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Public Act 098-0668 |
SB2187 Enrolled | LRB098 10555 MGM 40800 b |
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AN ACT concerning regulation.
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Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
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represented in the General Assembly:
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Section 5. The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act is |
amended by changing Sections 2, 7, and 15 and by adding |
Sections 4.2, 4.3, and 4.5 as follows:
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(225 ILCS 15/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 5352)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)
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Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:
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(1) "Department" means the Department of Financial and
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Professional Regulation.
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(2) "Secretary" means the Secretary
of Financial and |
Professional Regulation.
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(3) "Board" means the Clinical Psychologists Licensing
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and
Disciplinary
Board appointed by the Secretary.
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(4) "Person" means an individual, association, |
partnership or corporation.
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(5) "Clinical psychology" means the independent
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evaluation, classification and treatment of mental, |
emotional, behavioral
or nervous disorders or conditions, |
developmental disabilities, alcoholism
and substance |
abuse, disorders of habit or conduct, the psychological
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aspects of physical illness. The practice of clinical |
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psychology includes
psychoeducational evaluation, therapy, |
remediation and consultation, the
use of psychological and |
neuropsychological testing, assessment,
psychotherapy, |
psychoanalysis, hypnosis, biofeedback, and behavioral
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modification when any of these are used for the purpose of |
preventing or
eliminating psychopathology, or for the |
amelioration of psychological
disorders of individuals or |
groups. "Clinical psychology" does not include
the use of |
hypnosis by unlicensed persons
pursuant to Section 3.
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(6) A person represents himself to be a "clinical |
psychologist" or "psychologist" within
the meaning of this |
Act when he or she holds himself out to the public by
any |
title or description of services incorporating the words |
"psychological",
"psychologic", "psychologist", |
"psychology", or "clinical psychologist" or
under such |
title or description offers to render or renders clinical
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psychological services as defined in paragraph (7) of this |
Section to
individuals, corporations, or the public for |
remuneration.
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(7) "Clinical psychological services" refers to any |
services under
paragraph (5) of this Section if the words |
"psychological", "psychologic",
"psychologist", |
"psychology" or "clinical psychologist" are used to
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describe such services by the person or
organization |
offering to render or rendering them.
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(8) "Collaborating physician" means a physician |
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licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches in |
Illinois who generally prescribes medications for the |
treatment of mental health disease or illness to his or her |
patients in the normal course of his or her clinical |
medical practice. |
(9) "Prescribing psychologist" means a licensed, |
doctoral level psychologist who has undergone specialized |
training, has passed an examination as determined by rule, |
and has received a current license granting prescriptive |
authority under Section 4.2 of this Act that has not been |
revoked or suspended from the Department. |
(10) "Prescriptive authority" means the authority to |
prescribe, administer, discontinue, or distribute drugs or |
medicines. |
(11) "Prescription" means an order for a drug, |
laboratory test, or any medicines, including controlled |
substances as defined in the Illinois Controlled |
Substances Act. |
(12) "Drugs" has the meaning given to that term in the |
Pharmacy Practice Act. |
(13) "Medicines" has the meaning given to that term in |
the Pharmacy Practice Act. |
This Act shall not apply to persons lawfully carrying on |
their particular
profession or business under any valid |
existing regulatory Act of the State.
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(Source: P.A. 94-870, eff. 6-16-06.)
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(225 ILCS 15/4.2 new) |
Sec. 4.2. Prescribing psychologist license. |
(a) A psychologist may apply to the Department for a |
prescribing psychologist license. The application shall be |
made on a form approved by the Department, include the payment |
of any required fees, and be accompanied by evidence |
satisfactory to the Department that the applicant: |
(1) holds a current license to practice clinical |
psychology in Illinois; |
(2) has successfully completed the following minimum |
educational and training requirements either during the |
doctoral program required for licensure under this Section |
or in an accredited undergraduate or master level program |
prior to or subsequent to the doctoral program required |
under this Section: |
(A) specific minimum undergraduate biomedical |
prerequisite coursework, including, but not limited |
to: Medical Terminology (class or proficiency); |
Chemistry or Biochemistry with lab (2 semesters); |
Human Physiology (one semester); Human Anatomy (one |
semester); Anatomy and Physiology; Microbiology with |
lab (one semester); and General Biology for science |
majors or Cell and Molecular Biology (one semester); |
(B) a minimum of 60 credit hours of didactic |
coursework, including, but not limited to: |
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Pharmacology; Clinical Psychopharmacology; Clinical |
Anatomy and Integrated Science; Patient Evaluation; |
Advanced Physical Assessment; Research Methods; |
Advanced Pathophysiology; Diagnostic Methods; Problem |
Based Learning; and Clinical and Procedural Skills; |
and |
(C) a full-time practicum of 14 months supervised |
clinical training of at least 36 credit hours, |
including a research project; during the clinical |
rotation phase, students complete rotations in |
Emergency Medicine, Family Medicine, Geriatrics, |
Internal Medicine, Obstetrics and Gynecology, |
Pediatrics, Psychiatrics, Surgery, and one elective of |
the students' choice; program approval standards |
addressing faculty qualifications, regular competency |
evaluation and length of clinical rotations, and |
instructional settings, including hospitals, hospital |
outpatient clinics, community mental health clinics, |
and correctional facilities, in accordance with those |
of the Accreditation Review Commission on Education |
for the Physician Assistant shall be set by Department |
by rule; |
(3) has completed a National Certifying Exam, as |
determined by rule; and |
(4) meets all other requirements for obtaining a |
prescribing psychologist license, as determined by rule. |
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(b) The Department may issue a prescribing psychologist |
license if it finds that the applicant has met the requirements |
of subsection (a) of this Section. |
(c) A prescribing psychologist may only prescribe |
medication pursuant to the provisions of this Act if the |
prescribing psychologist: |
(1) continues to hold a current license to practice |
psychology in Illinois; |
(2) satisfies the continuing education requirements |
for prescribing psychologists, including 10 hours of |
continuing education annually in pharmacology from |
accredited providers; and |
(3) maintains a written collaborative agreement with a |
collaborating physician pursuant to Section 4.3 of this |
Act. |
(225 ILCS 15/4.3 new) |
Sec. 4.3. Written collaborative agreements. |
(a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all |
prescribing psychologists practicing under a prescribing |
psychologist license issued pursuant to Section 4.2 of this |
Act. |
(b) A written delegation of prescriptive authority by a |
collaborating physician may only include medications for the |
treatment of mental health disease or illness the collaborating |
physician generally provides to his or her patients in the |
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normal course of his or her clinical practice with the |
exception of the following: |
(1) patients who are less than 17 years of age or over |
65 years of age; |
(2) patients during pregnancy; |
(3) patients with serious medical conditions, such as |
heart disease, cancer, stroke, or seizures, and with |
developmental disabilities and intellectual disabilities; |
and |
(4) prescriptive authority for benzodiazepine Schedule |
III controlled substances. |
(c) The collaborating physician shall file with the |
Department notice of delegation of prescriptive authority and |
termination of the delegation, in accordance with rules of the |
Department. Upon receipt of this notice delegating authority to |
prescribe any nonnarcotic Schedule III through V controlled |
substances, the licensed clinical psychologist shall be |
eligible to register for a mid-level practitioner controlled |
substance license under Section 303.05 of the Illinois |
Controlled Substances Act. |
(d) All of the following shall apply to delegation of |
prescriptive authority: |
(1) Any delegation of Schedule III through V controlled |
substances shall identify the specific controlled |
substance by brand name or generic name. No controlled |
substance to be delivered by injection may be delegated. No |
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Schedule II controlled substance shall be delegated. |
(2) A prescribing psychologist shall not prescribe |
narcotic drugs, as defined in Section 102 of the Illinois |
Controlled Substances Act. |
Any prescribing psychologist who writes a prescription for |
a controlled substance without having valid and appropriate |
authority may be fined by the Department not more than $50 per |
prescription and the Department may take any other disciplinary |
action provided for in this Act. |
(e) The written collaborative agreement shall describe the |
working relationship of the prescribing psychologist with the |
collaborating physician and shall delegate prescriptive |
authority as provided in this Act. Collaboration does not |
require an employment relationship between the collaborating |
physician and prescribing psychologist. Absent an employment |
relationship, an agreement may not restrict third-party |
payment sources accepted by the prescribing psychologist. For |
the purposes of this Section, "collaboration" means the |
relationship between a prescribing psychologist and a |
collaborating physician with respect to the delivery of |
prescribing services in accordance with (1) the prescribing |
psychologist's training, education, and experience and (2) |
collaboration and consultation as documented in a jointly |
developed written collaborative agreement. |
(f) The agreement shall promote the exercise of |
professional judgment by the prescribing psychologist |
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corresponding to his or her education and experience. |
(g) The collaborative agreement shall not be construed to |
require the personal presence of a physician at the place where |
services are rendered. Methods of communication shall be |
available for consultation with the collaborating physician in |
person or by telecommunications in accordance with established |
written guidelines as set forth in the written agreement. |
(h) Collaboration and consultation pursuant to all |
collaboration agreements shall be adequate if a collaborating |
physician does each of the following: |
(1) participates in the joint formulation and joint |
approval of orders or guidelines with the prescribing |
psychologist and he or she periodically reviews the |
prescribing psychologist's orders and the services |
provided patients under the orders in accordance with |
accepted standards of medical practice and prescribing |
psychologist practice; |
(2) provides collaboration and consultation with the |
prescribing psychologist in person at least once a month |
for review of safety and quality clinical care or |
treatment; |
(3) is available through telecommunications for |
consultation on medical problems, complications, |
emergencies, or patient referral; and |
(4) reviews medication orders of the prescribing |
psychologist no less than monthly, including review of |
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laboratory tests and other tests as available. |
(i) The written collaborative agreement shall contain |
provisions detailing notice for termination or change of status |
involving a written collaborative agreement, except when the |
notice is given for just cause. |
(j) A copy of the signed written collaborative agreement |
shall be available to the Department upon request to either the |
prescribing psychologist or the collaborating physician. |
(k) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the |
authority of a prescribing psychologist to perform all duties |
authorized under this Act. |
(l) A prescribing psychologist shall inform each |
collaborating physician of all collaborative agreements he or |
she has signed and provide a copy of these to any collaborating |
physician. |
(m) No collaborating physician shall enter into more than 3 |
collaborative agreements with prescribing psychologists. |
(225 ILCS 15/4.5 new) |
Sec. 4.5. Endorsement. |
(a) Individuals who are already licensed as medical or |
prescribing psychologists in another state may apply for an |
Illinois prescribing psychologist license by endorsement from |
that state, or acceptance of that state's examination if they |
meet the requirements set forth in this Act and its rules, |
including proof of successful completion of the educational, |
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testing, and experience standards. Applicants from other |
states may not be required to pass the examination required for |
licensure as a prescribing psychologist in Illinois if they |
meet requirements set forth in this Act and its rules, such as |
proof of education, testing, payment of any fees, and |
experience. |
(b) Individuals who graduated from the Department of |
Defense Psychopharmacology Demonstration Project may apply for |
an Illinois prescribing psychologist license by endorsement. |
Applicants from the Department of Defense Psychopharmacology |
Demonstration Project may not be required to pass the |
examination required for licensure as a prescribing |
psychologist in Illinois if they meet requirements set forth in |
this Act and its rules, such as proof of education, testing, |
payment of any fees, and experience. |
(c) Individuals applying for a prescribing psychologist |
license by endorsement shall be required to first obtain a |
clinical psychologist license under this Act. |
(225 ILCS 15/7) (from Ch. 111, par. 5357) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017) |
Sec. 7. Board. The Secretary shall appoint a Board that
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shall serve in
an advisory capacity to the Secretary. |
The Board shall consist of 11 7 persons : , 4 of whom are
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licensed clinical
psychologists , and actively engaged in the |
practice of clinical psychology ; 2 of whom are licensed |
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prescribing psychologists; 2 of whom are physicians licensed to |
practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois who generally |
prescribe medications for the treatment of mental health |
disease or illness in the normal course of clinical medical |
practice, one of whom shall be a psychiatrist and the other a |
primary care or family physician; ,
2 of whom are licensed |
clinical psychologists and are full time faculty
members of |
accredited colleges or
universities who are engaged in training |
clinical psychologists ; , and one of
whom is a public member who |
is not a licensed health care provider. In
appointing members |
of the Board, the Secretary shall give due
consideration to the |
adequate representation of the various fields of
health care |
psychology such as clinical psychology, school psychology and
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counseling psychology. In appointing members of the Board,
the |
Secretary
shall give due consideration to recommendations by |
members of the
profession of clinical psychology and by the |
State-wide organizations
representing the interests of |
clinical psychologists and organizations
representing the |
interests of academic programs as well as recommendations
by |
approved doctoral level psychology programs in the State of |
Illinois , and, with respect to the 2 physician members of the |
Board, the Secretary shall give due consideration to |
recommendations by the Statewide professional associations or |
societies representing physicians licensed to practice |
medicine in all its branches in Illinois .
The members shall be |
appointed for a term of 4 years. No member shall be
eligible to |
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serve for more than 2 full terms. Any appointment to fill a
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vacancy shall be for the unexpired portion of the term. A |
member appointed
to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term for a |
duration of 2 years or more may be reappointed for a maximum of |
one term and a member appointed to fill a vacancy for an |
unexpired term for a duration of less than 2 years may be |
reappointed for a maximum of 2 terms. The Secretary
may remove |
any member for cause at any time prior to
the expiration of his |
or her term. |
The 2 initial appointees to the Board who are licensed
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prescribing psychologists may hold a medical or prescription
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license issued by another state so long as the license is |
deemed by the Secretary to be substantially equivalent to a |
prescribing psychologist license under this Act and so long as |
the appointees also maintain an Illinois clinical psychologist |
license. Such initial appointees shall serve on the Board until |
the Department adopts rules necessary to implement licensure |
under Section 4.2 of this Act. |
The Board shall annually elect one of its members as
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chairperson and vice chairperson. |
The members of the Board shall be reimbursed for all
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authorized legitimate and
necessary expenses incurred in |
attending the meetings of the Board. |
The Secretary shall give due consideration to all |
recommendations of the
Board. In the event the Secretary |
disagrees with or takes
action
contrary to the recommendation |
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of the Board, he or she
shall provide the
Board with a written |
and specific explanation of his or
her actions. |
The Board may make recommendations on all matters relating |
to continuing education including the number of hours necessary |
for license renewal, waivers for those unable to meet such |
requirements and acceptable course content. Such |
recommendations shall not impose an undue burden on the |
Department or an unreasonable restriction on those seeking |
license renewal. |
The 2 licensed prescribing psychologist members of the |
Board and the 2 physician members of the Board shall only |
deliberate and make recommendations related to the licensure |
and discipline of prescribing psychologists. Four members |
shall constitute a
quorum , except that all deliberations and |
recommendations related to the licensure and discipline of |
prescribing psychologists shall require a quorum of 6 members . |
A quorum is required for all Board decisions. |
Members of the Board shall have no liability in any action |
based upon any
disciplinary proceeding or other activity |
performed in good faith as a member
of the Board. |
The Secretary may terminate the appointment of any member |
for cause which
in the opinion of the Secretary
reasonably |
justifies such termination. |
(Source: P.A. 96-1050, eff. 1-1-11.)
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(225 ILCS 15/15) (from Ch. 111, par. 5365)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)
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Sec. 15. Disciplinary action; grounds. The Department may |
refuse to
issue, refuse to renew, suspend,
or revoke any |
license, or may place on probation, censure, reprimand, or
take |
other disciplinary action deemed appropriate by the |
Department,
including the imposition of fines not to exceed |
$10,000 for each violation,
with regard to any license issued |
under the provisions of this Act for any
one or a combination |
of the following reasons:
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(1) Conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo |
contendere to, any crime that is a felony under the laws of
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the United
States or any state or territory thereof or that |
is a misdemeanor
of which an
essential element is |
dishonesty, or any crime that
is
directly
related to the |
practice of the profession.
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(2) Gross negligence in the rendering of clinical |
psychological
services.
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(3) Using fraud or making any misrepresentation in |
applying for a license
or in passing the examination |
provided for in this Act.
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(4) Aiding or abetting or conspiring to aid or abet a |
person, not a
clinical psychologist licensed under this |
Act, in representing himself or
herself as
so licensed or |
in applying for a license under this Act.
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(5) Violation of any provision of this Act or the rules |
promulgated
thereunder.
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(6) Professional connection or association with any |
person, firm,
association, partnership or corporation |
holding himself, herself,
themselves, or
itself out in any |
manner contrary to this Act.
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(7) Unethical, unauthorized or unprofessional conduct |
as defined by rule.
In establishing those rules, the |
Department shall consider, though is not
bound by, the |
ethical standards for psychologists promulgated by |
recognized
national psychology associations.
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(8) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any |
provisions of this
Act or the rules promulgated thereunder.
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(9) Failing to provide, within 60 days, information in |
response to a
written request made by the Department.
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(10) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, |
narcotics,
stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug |
that results in a
clinical
psychologist's inability to |
practice with reasonable judgment, skill or
safety.
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(11) Discipline by another state, territory, the |
District of Columbia or
foreign country, if at least one of |
the grounds for the discipline is the
same or substantially |
equivalent to those set forth herein.
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(12) Directly or indirectly giving or receiving from |
any person, firm,
corporation, association or partnership |
any fee, commission, rebate, or
other form of compensation |
for any professional service not actually or
personally |
rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (12) affects any bona |
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fide independent contractor or employment arrangements |
among health care professionals, health facilities, health |
care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise |
prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include |
provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or |
other employment benefits for the provision of services |
within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. |
Nothing in this paragraph (12) shall be construed to |
require an employment arrangement to receive professional |
fees for services rendered.
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(13) A finding by the Board that the licensee, after
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having his or her
license placed on probationary status has |
violated the terms of
probation.
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(14) Willfully making or filing false records or |
reports, including but
not limited to, false records or |
reports filed with State agencies or
departments.
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(15) Physical illness, including but not limited to, |
deterioration through
the aging process, mental illness or |
disability that results in
the inability to practice the |
profession
with reasonable judgment, skill and safety.
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(16) Willfully failing to report an instance of |
suspected child abuse or
neglect as required by the Abused |
and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
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(17) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
report by the Department
of Children and Family Services |
pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child
Reporting Act, |
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and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the
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licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or |
neglected child as defined
in the Abused and Neglected |
Child Reporting Act.
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(18) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral |
Act.
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(19) Making a material misstatement in furnishing |
information to the
Department, any other State or federal |
agency, or any other entity.
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(20) Failing to report to the Department any adverse |
judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability |
claim related to an act or conduct similar to an act or |
conduct that would constitute grounds for action as set |
forth in this Section. |
(21) Failing to report to the Department any adverse |
final action taken against a licensee or applicant by |
another licensing jurisdiction, including any other state |
or territory of the United States or any foreign state or |
country, or any peer review body, health care institution, |
professional society or association related to the |
profession, governmental agency, law enforcement agency, |
or court for an act or conduct similar to an act or conduct |
that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action as |
set forth in this Section.
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(22) Prescribing, selling, administering, |
distributing, giving, or self-administering (A) any drug |
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classified as a controlled substance (designated product) |
for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes or |
(B) any narcotic drug. |
(23) Violating state or federal laws or regulations |
relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or |
ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act. |
(24) Exceeding the terms of a collaborative agreement |
or the prescriptive authority delegated to a licensee by |
his or her collaborating physician or established under a |
written collaborative agreement. |
The entry of an order by any circuit court establishing |
that any person
holding a license under this Act is subject to |
involuntary admission or
judicial admission as provided for in |
the Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities Code, |
operates as an automatic suspension of that license. That
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person may have his or her license restored only upon the |
determination by
a circuit
court that the patient is no longer |
subject to involuntary admission or
judicial admission and the |
issuance of an order so finding and discharging the
patient and |
upon the Board's recommendation to the
Department that the
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license be restored. Where the circumstances so indicate, the |
Board may
recommend to the Department that it require an |
examination prior to restoring
any license so automatically |
suspended.
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The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the |
license of any person
who fails to file a return, or to pay the |
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tax, penalty or interest shown in
a filed return, or to pay any |
final assessment of the tax penalty or
interest, as required by |
any tax Act administered by the Illinois
Department of Revenue, |
until such time as the requirements of any such tax
Act are |
satisfied.
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In enforcing this Section, the Board upon a showing of a |
possible
violation may compel any person licensed to practice |
under this Act, or
who has applied for licensure or |
certification pursuant to this Act, to submit
to a mental or |
physical examination, or both, as required by and at the |
expense
of the Department. The examining physicians or clinical |
psychologists
shall be those specifically designated by the |
Board.
The Board or the Department may order the examining |
physician or clinical
psychologist to present testimony |
concerning this mental or physical
examination
of the licensee |
or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of
any |
common law or statutory privilege relating to communications |
between the
licensee or applicant and the examining physician |
or clinical psychologist.
The person to be examined may have, |
at his or her own expense, another
physician or clinical |
psychologist of his or her choice present during all
aspects of |
the examination. Failure of any person to submit to a mental or
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physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for |
suspension of a
license until the person submits to the |
examination if the Board finds,
after notice and hearing, that |
the refusal to submit to the examination was
without reasonable |
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cause.
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If the Board finds a person unable to practice because of |
the reasons
set forth in this Section, the Board may require |
that person to submit to
care, counseling or treatment by |
physicians or clinical psychologists approved
or designated by |
the Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued,
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reinstated, or
renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of |
care, counseling or treatment,
the
Board may recommend to the |
Department to file a complaint to immediately
suspend, revoke |
or otherwise discipline the license of the person.
Any person |
whose
license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, |
disciplined or supervised
subject to such terms, conditions or |
restrictions, and who fails to comply with
such terms, |
conditions or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary |
for a
determination as to whether the person shall have his or |
her license
suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the |
Board.
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In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a |
person's license
under this Section, a hearing on that person's |
license must be convened by
the Board within 15 days after the |
suspension and completed without appreciable
delay.
The Board |
shall have the authority to review the subject person's record |
of
treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the |
extent permitted by
applicable federal statutes and |
regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of
medical |
records.
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A person licensed under this Act and affected under this |
Section shall
be
afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the |
Board that he or she can resume
practice in compliance with |
acceptable and prevailing standards under the
provisions of his |
or her license.
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(Source: P.A. 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10.)
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Section 10. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by |
changing Sections 22 and 54.5 as follows:
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(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2014)
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Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.
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(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, |
reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other |
disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may |
deem proper
with regard to the license or permit of any person |
issued
under this Act to practice medicine, or a chiropractic |
physician, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for |
each violation, upon any of the following grounds:
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(1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place, |
locale,
facility, or
institution other than:
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(a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory |
Surgical Treatment
Center Act;
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(b) an institution licensed under the Hospital |
Licensing Act;
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(c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or |
hospitalization or care
facility maintained by the |
State or any agency thereof, where such department
or |
agency has authority under law to establish and enforce |
standards for the
ambulatory surgical treatment |
centers, hospitalization, or care facilities
under its |
management and control;
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(d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, |
hospitalization or care
facilities maintained by the |
Federal Government; or
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(e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, |
hospitalization or care
facilities maintained by any |
university or college established under the laws
of |
this State and supported principally by public funds |
raised by
taxation.
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(2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a wilful |
and wanton
manner on a
woman who was not pregnant at the |
time the abortion procedure was
performed.
|
(3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of |
guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, |
including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding |
sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first |
offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of |
the United States of any crime that is a felony.
|
(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.
|
(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or |
|
unprofessional
conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
defraud or harm the public.
|
(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or
|
misrepresentation.
|
(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined |
in law
as
controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any |
other substances which results in
the inability to practice |
with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
|
(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by |
law, an
assumed
name.
|
(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or |
procuring, a
license
under this Act or in connection with |
applying for renewal of a license under
this Act.
|
(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding |
their
skill or the
efficacy or value of the medicine, |
treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at
their direction |
in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the |
body
or mind.
|
(11) Allowing another person or organization to use |
their
license, procured
under this Act, to practice.
|
(12) Disciplinary action of another state or |
jurisdiction
against a license
or other authorization to |
practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy,
doctor |
of osteopathic medicine or
doctor of chiropractic, a |
certified copy of the record of the action taken by
the |
other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence |
|
thereof.
|
(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the |
Medical
Practice Act
prior to the repeal of that Act, or |
violation of the rules, or a final
administrative action of |
the Secretary, after consideration of the
recommendation |
of the Disciplinary Board.
|
(14) Violation of the prohibition against fee |
splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.
|
(15) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the
|
registrant after
having his or her license placed on |
probationary status or subjected to
conditions or |
restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed |
to
comply with such terms or conditions.
|
(16) Abandonment of a patient.
|
(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, |
distributing, giving
or
self-administering any drug |
classified as a controlled substance (designated
product) |
or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic
|
purposes.
|
(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, |
appliances or
goods provided
for a patient in such manner |
as to exploit the patient for financial gain of
the |
physician.
|
(19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat
|
disease by a secret
method, procedure, treatment or |
medicine, or the treating, operating or
prescribing for any |
|
human condition by a method, means or procedure which the
|
licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.
|
(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act |
including,
but not limited to, commission of an act of |
sexual misconduct related to the
licensee's
practice.
|
(21) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports |
in his
or her
practice as a physician, including, but not |
limited to, false records to
support claims against the |
medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare |
and Family Services (formerly Department of
Public Aid)
|
under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
|
(22) Wilful omission to file or record, or wilfully |
impeding
the filing or
recording, or inducing another |
person to omit to file or record, medical
reports as |
required by law, or wilfully failing to report an instance |
of
suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.
|
(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
report by
the Department
of Children and Family Services |
under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting
Act, and |
upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the |
licensee has
caused a child to be an abused child or |
neglected child as defined in the
Abused and Neglected |
Child Reporting Act.
|
(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any
|
corporation, agents or
persons, or profiting from those |
representing themselves to be agents of the
licensee.
|
|
(25) Gross and wilful and continued overcharging for
|
professional services,
including filing false statements |
for collection of fees for which services are
not rendered, |
including, but not limited to, filing such false statements |
for
collection of monies for services not rendered from the |
medical assistance
program of the Department of Healthcare |
and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
|
under the Illinois Public Aid
Code.
|
(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which
|
demonstrates
incapacity
or incompetence to practice under |
this Act.
|
(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the
|
inability to
practice under this Act with reasonable |
judgment, skill or safety.
|
(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to,
|
deterioration through
the aging process, or loss of motor |
skill which results in a physician's
inability to practice |
under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or
safety.
|
(29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing
|
examinations
administered under this Act.
|
(30) Wilfully or negligently violating the |
confidentiality
between
physician and patient except as |
required by law.
|
(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive |
statement
in any
document connected with practice under |
this Act.
|
|
(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed |
under this
Act in the
practice of a profession licensed |
under this Act.
|
(33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations |
relating
to controlled
substances, legend
drugs, or |
ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.
|
(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse |
final
action taken
against them by another licensing |
jurisdiction (any other state or any
territory of the |
United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer
|
review body, by any health care institution, by any |
professional society or
association related to practice |
under this Act, by any governmental agency, by
any law |
enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct |
similar to acts
or conduct which would constitute grounds |
for action as defined in this
Section.
|
(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a
|
license or
authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a |
doctor of osteopathy, a
doctor of osteopathic medicine, or |
doctor
of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or |
surrender of membership on
any medical staff or in any |
medical or professional association or society,
while |
under disciplinary investigation by any of those |
authorities or bodies,
for acts or conduct similar to acts |
or conduct which would constitute grounds
for action as |
defined in this Section.
|
|
(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse |
judgment,
settlement,
or award arising from a liability |
claim related to acts or conduct similar to
acts or conduct |
which would constitute grounds for action as defined in |
this
Section.
|
(37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as |
required
by law.
|
(38) Failure to furnish the Department, its |
investigators or
representatives, relevant information, |
legally requested by the Department
after consultation |
with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical
|
Coordinator.
|
(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral
|
Act.
|
(40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is |
required
under the
Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.
|
(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of |
patient care and
treatment as required by this law.
|
(42) Entering into an excessive number of written |
collaborative
agreements with licensed advanced practice |
nurses resulting in an inability to
adequately |
collaborate.
|
(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
licensed advanced practice nurse. |
(44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical |
Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
|
|
(45) Entering into an excessive number of written |
collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing |
psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately |
collaborate. |
(46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
licensed prescribing psychologist. |
Except
for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all |
proceedings to suspend,
revoke, place on probationary status, |
or take any
other disciplinary action as the Department may |
deem proper, with regard to a
license on any of the foregoing |
grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next
after receipt by |
the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or
|
notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described |
herein. Except
for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and |
(29), no action shall be commenced more
than 10 years after the |
date of the incident or act alleged to have violated
this |
Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a |
pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents |
alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior |
that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act |
received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the |
complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause |
of action
in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final |
judgment of any civil action
in favor of the plaintiff, such |
claim, cause of action or civil action being
grounded on the |
allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent
|
|
in providing care, the Department shall have an additional |
period of 2 years
from the date of notification to the |
Department under Section 23 of this Act
of such settlement or |
final judgment in which to investigate and
commence formal |
disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except
|
as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder |
of the license
was outside the State of Illinois shall not be |
included within any period of
time limiting the commencement of |
disciplinary action by the Department.
|
The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court |
establishing that any
person holding a license under this Act |
is a person in need of mental treatment
operates as a |
suspension of that license. That person may resume their
|
practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon |
a finding by
the Disciplinary Board that they have been |
determined to be recovered
from mental illness by the court and |
upon the Disciplinary Board's
recommendation that they be |
permitted to resume their practice.
|
The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary |
action concerning the license of any person
who fails to file a |
return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a
filed |
return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or |
interest, as
required by any tax Act administered by the |
Illinois Department of Revenue,
until such time as the |
requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as
determined by |
the Illinois Department of Revenue.
|
|
The Department, upon the recommendation of the |
Disciplinary Board, shall
adopt rules which set forth standards |
to be used in determining:
|
(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently |
rehabilitated to warrant the
public trust;
|
(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or |
unprofessional conduct of
a character likely to deceive, |
defraud, or harm the public;
|
(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission |
of any act,
including, but not limited to, commission of an |
act of sexual misconduct
related
to the licensee's |
practice; and
|
(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice |
of medicine.
|
However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in |
any civil action
except for review of a licensing or other |
disciplinary action under this Act.
|
In enforcing this Section, the Disciplinary Board or the |
Licensing Board,
upon a showing of a possible violation, may |
compel, in the case of the Disciplinary Board, any individual |
who is licensed to
practice under this Act or holds a permit to |
practice under this Act, or, in the case of the Licensing |
Board, any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit
|
pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical |
examination and evaluation, or both,
which may include a |
substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by |
|
the Licensing Board or Disciplinary Board and at the expense of |
the Department. The Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall |
specifically designate the examining physician licensed to |
practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the |
multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or |
physical examination and evaluation, or both. The |
multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to |
practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one |
or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice |
medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic |
physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical |
social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and |
other professional and administrative staff. Any examining |
physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require |
any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation |
pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional |
supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any |
examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited |
to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or |
neuropsychological testing.
The Disciplinary Board, the |
Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining
|
physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to |
provide to the Department, the Disciplinary Board, or the |
Licensing Board any and all records, including business |
records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, |
including any supplemental testing performed. The Disciplinary |
|
Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the |
examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team |
to present testimony concerning this examination
and |
evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, |
including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or |
documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No |
information, report, record, or other documents in any way |
related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by |
reason of
any common
law or statutory privilege relating to |
communication between the licensee or
applicant and
the |
examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary |
team.
No authorization is necessary from the licensee, permit |
holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and |
examination for the examining physician or any member of the |
multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, |
records, or other documents or to provide any testimony |
regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be |
examined may have, at his or her own expense, another
physician |
of his or her choice present during all aspects of the |
examination.
Failure of any individual to submit to mental or |
physical examination and evaluation, or both, when
directed, |
shall result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until |
such time
as the individual submits to the examination. If the |
Disciplinary Board finds a physician unable
to practice because |
of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Disciplinary
|
Board shall require such physician to submit to care, |
|
counseling, or treatment
by physicians approved or designated |
by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition
for continued, |
reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician,
|
whose license was granted pursuant to Sections 9, 17, or 19 of |
this Act, or,
continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or |
supervised, subject to such
terms, conditions or restrictions |
who shall fail to comply with such terms,
conditions or |
restrictions, or to complete a required program of care,
|
counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical |
Coordinator or
Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred |
to the Secretary for a
determination as to whether the licensee |
shall have their license suspended
immediately, pending a |
hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In instances in
which the |
Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a |
hearing
upon such person's license must be convened by the |
Disciplinary Board within 15
days after such suspension and |
completed without appreciable delay. The
Disciplinary Board |
shall have the authority to review the subject physician's
|
record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to |
the extent
permitted by applicable federal statutes and |
regulations safeguarding the
confidentiality of medical |
records.
|
An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this |
Section, shall be
afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the |
Disciplinary Board that they can
resume practice in compliance |
with acceptable and prevailing standards under
the provisions |
|
of their license.
|
The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of |
fines in
disciplinary cases, not to exceed
$10,000 for each |
violation of this Act. Fines
may be imposed in conjunction with |
other forms of disciplinary action, but
shall not be the |
exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out
of |
conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds |
collected from
such fines shall be deposited in the Medical |
Disciplinary Fund.
|
All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within |
60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine |
or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing |
the fine. |
(B) The Department shall revoke the license or
permit |
issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic |
physician who
has been convicted a second time of committing |
any felony under the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the |
Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who |
has been convicted a second time of
committing a Class 1 felony |
under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public
Aid Code. A |
person whose license or permit is revoked
under
this subsection |
B shall be prohibited from practicing
medicine or treating |
human ailments without the use of drugs and without
operative |
surgery.
|
(C) The Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the
|
Department civil
penalties and any other appropriate |
|
discipline in disciplinary cases when the
Board finds that a |
physician willfully performed an abortion with actual
|
knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been |
performed is a minor
or an incompetent person without notice as |
required under the Parental Notice
of Abortion Act of 1995. |
Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall
impose, |
for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a |
second or
subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-601, eff. 12-30-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 60/54.5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2014)
|
Sec. 54.5. Physician delegation of authority to physician |
assistants , and advanced practice nurses , and prescribing |
psychologists .
|
(a) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its
|
branches may delegate care and treatment responsibilities to a
|
physician assistant under guidelines in accordance with the
|
requirements of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of
1987. A |
physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches may |
enter into supervising physician agreements with
no more than 5 |
physician assistants as set forth in subsection (a) of Section |
7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
|
(b) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
|
branches in active clinical practice may collaborate with an |
advanced practice
nurse in accordance with the requirements of |
|
the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration
is for the purpose of |
providing medical consultation,
and no employment relationship |
is required. A
written collaborative agreement shall
conform to |
the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act. |
The written collaborative agreement shall
be for
services the |
collaborating physician generally provides or may provide in
|
his or her clinical medical practice.
A written collaborative |
agreement shall be adequate with respect to collaboration
with |
advanced practice nurses if all of the following apply:
|
(1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of |
professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse |
commensurate with his or her education and experience. The |
agreement need not describe the exact steps that an |
advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each |
specific condition, disease, or symptom, but must specify |
those procedures that require a physician's presence as the |
procedures are being performed.
|
(2) Practice guidelines and orders are developed and |
approved jointly by the advanced practice nurse and |
collaborating physician, as needed, based on the practice |
of the practitioners. Such guidelines and orders and the |
patient services provided thereunder are periodically |
reviewed by the collaborating physician.
|
(3) The advance practice nurse provides services the |
collaborating physician generally provides or may provide |
in his or her clinical medical practice, except as set |
|
forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. With respect to |
labor and delivery, the collaborating physician must |
provide delivery services in order to participate with a |
certified nurse midwife. |
(4) The collaborating physician and advanced practice |
nurse consult at least once a month to provide |
collaboration and consultation. |
(5) Methods of communication are available with the |
collaborating physician in person or through |
telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and |
referral as needed to address patient care needs. |
(6) The agreement contains provisions detailing notice |
for termination or change of status involving a written |
collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given |
for just cause.
|
(b-5) An anesthesiologist or physician licensed to |
practice medicine in
all its branches may collaborate with a |
certified registered nurse anesthetist
in accordance with |
Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act for the provision of |
anesthesia services. With respect to the provision of |
anesthesia services, the collaborating anesthesiologist or |
physician shall have training and experience in the delivery of |
anesthesia services consistent with Department rules. |
Collaboration shall be
adequate if:
|
(1) an anesthesiologist or a physician
participates in |
the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or
|
|
guidelines and periodically reviews such orders and the |
services provided
patients under such orders; and
|
(2) for anesthesia services, the anesthesiologist
or |
physician participates through discussion of and agreement |
with the
anesthesia plan and is physically present and |
available on the premises during
the delivery of anesthesia |
services for
diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of |
emergency medical conditions.
Anesthesia services in a |
hospital shall be conducted in accordance with
Section 10.7 |
of the Hospital Licensing Act and in an ambulatory surgical
|
treatment center in accordance with Section 6.5 of the |
Ambulatory Surgical
Treatment Center Act.
|
(b-10) The anesthesiologist or operating physician must |
agree with the
anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of |
services.
|
(c) The supervising physician shall have access to the
|
medical records of all patients attended by a physician
|
assistant. The collaborating physician shall have access to
the |
medical records of all patients attended to by an
advanced |
practice nurse.
|
(d) (Blank).
|
(e) A physician shall not be liable for the acts or
|
omissions of a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant , |
or advanced practice
nurse solely on the basis of having signed |
a
supervision agreement or guidelines or a collaborative
|
agreement, an order, a standing medical order, a
standing |
|
delegation order, or other order or guideline
authorizing a |
prescribing psychologist, physician assistant , or advanced |
practice
nurse to perform acts, unless the physician has
reason |
to believe the prescribing psychologist, physician assistant , |
or advanced
practice nurse lacked the competency to perform
the |
act or acts or commits willful and wanton misconduct.
|
(f) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, |
delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse |
as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the |
delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the |
requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. |
(g) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, |
delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as |
part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of |
prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of |
Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. |
(h) For the purposes of this Section, "generally provides |
or may provide in his or her clinical medical practice" means |
categories of care or treatment, not specific tasks or duties, |
that the physician provides individually or through delegation |
to other persons so that the physician has the experience and |
ability to provide collaboration and consultation. This |
definition shall not be construed to prohibit an advanced |
practice nurse from providing primary health treatment or care |
within the scope of his or her training and experience, |
including, but not limited to, health screenings, patient |
|
histories, physical examinations, women's health examinations, |
or school physicals that may be provided as part of the routine |
practice of an advanced practice nurse or on a volunteer basis. |
(i) A collaborating physician shall delegate prescriptive |
authority to a prescribing psychologist as part of a written |
collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive |
authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 4.3 of |
the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. |
(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1071, eff. 8-24-12; |
98-192, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
Section 15. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is |
amended by changing Sections 102 and 303.05 as follows: |
(720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102) |
Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
context
otherwise requires:
|
(a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, |
chemical,
substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as |
to endanger the public
morals, health, safety or welfare or who |
is so far addicted to the use of a
dangerous drug or controlled |
substance other than alcohol as to have lost
the power of self |
control with reference to his or her addiction.
|
(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a |
controlled
substance, whether by injection, inhalation, |
ingestion, or any other
means, to the body of a patient, |
|
research subject, or animal (as
defined by the Humane |
Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
|
(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his |
or her authorized agent),
|
(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an |
order, or
|
(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane |
Euthanasia in
Animal Shelters Act.
|
(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf |
of or at
the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, |
dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not
include a |
common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
|
the carrier or warehouseman.
|
(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal |
substance,
chemically and pharmacologically related to |
testosterone (other than
estrogens, progestins, |
corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone),
and includes:
|
(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, |
(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, |
(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione, |
(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta], |
17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), |
(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha], |
17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), |
(vi) 4-androstenediol |
(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene), |
|
(vii) 5-androstenediol |
(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene), |
(viii) 1-androstenedione |
([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione), |
(ix) 4-androstenedione |
(androst-4-en-3,17-dione), |
(x) 5-androstenedione |
(androst-5-en-3,17-dione), |
(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- |
hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- |
1,4,-diene-3-one), |
(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4- |
diene-3,17-dione), |
(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17 |
[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- |
hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro- |
17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl- |
androst-1,4-dien-3-one), |
(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone |
(17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] |
-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol), |
(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a. |
'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy- |
|
5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy- |
androstan-3-one), |
(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl- |
5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- |
hydroxyestr-4-ene), |
(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl- |
1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha], |
17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), |
(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan), |
(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) |
(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy- |
androst-4-en-3-one), |
(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]- |
dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one), |
(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one), |
(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
[5a]-androstan-3-one), |
(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), |
(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- |
dihydroxyandrost-5-ene), |
|
(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]- |
dihydroxy-5a-androstane), |
(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy |
-5a-androstane), |
(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- |
dihydroxyandrost-4-ene), |
(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]- |
methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one), |
(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one), |
(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- |
hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone |
(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]- |
androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl- |
1-testosterone'), |
(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- |
dihydroxyestr-4-ene), |
(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- |
|
dihydroxyestr-4-ene), |
(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- |
dihydroxyestr-5-ene), |
(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- |
dihydroxyestr-5-ene), |
(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione |
(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione), |
(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4- |
en-3,17-dione), |
(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5- |
en-3,17-dione), |
(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]- |
hydroxygon-4-en-3-one), |
(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- |
hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- |
hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]- |
dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene- |
17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
|
(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole), |
(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17- |
secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic |
acid lactone), |
(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- |
4-en-3-one), |
(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]- |
diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon- |
4,9,11-trien-3-one), |
(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9, |
11-trien-3-one).
|
Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an |
anabolic
steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, |
distributes, dispenses,
delivers, or possesses with intent to |
deliver an anabolic steroid, which
anabolic steroid is |
expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be
administered |
through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
|
which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services |
for such
administration, and which the person intends to |
administer or have
administered through such implants, shall |
not be considered to be in
unauthorized possession or to |
unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense,
deliver, or |
possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
|
purposes of this Act.
|
|
(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement |
Administration,
United States Department of Justice, or its |
successor agency.
|
(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" |
means a Department of Human Services administrative employee |
licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances |
who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human |
Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription |
Information Library. |
(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of |
components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a |
prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the |
prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of |
professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident |
to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale |
or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs |
or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug |
orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing |
patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded |
for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the |
following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not |
reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a |
timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the |
prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be |
compounded. |
(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or |
|
immediate
precursor, to a Schedule whether by
transfer from |
another Schedule or otherwise.
|
(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or |
immediate
precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act |
or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, |
designated as a controlled substance by the Department through |
administrative rule. The term does not include distilled |
spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are
|
defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the |
Tobacco Products Tax
Act of 1995 .
|
(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance: |
(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially |
similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance |
in Schedule I or II; |
(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or |
hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is |
substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, |
depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central |
nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or |
II; or |
(3) with respect to a particular person, which such |
person represents or intends to have a stimulant, |
depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central |
nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater |
than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect |
on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in |
|
Schedule I or II. |
(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, |
which, or
the container or labeling of which, without |
authorization bears the
trademark, trade name, or other |
identifying mark, imprint, number or
device, or any likeness |
thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or
dispenser other |
than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed,
or |
dispensed the substance.
|
(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive |
or
attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, |
with or
without consideration, whether or not there is an |
agency relationship.
|
(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human |
Services (as
successor to the Department of Alcoholism and |
Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
|
(j) (Blank).
|
(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of |
Corrections
of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" |
means the Department
of Financial and Professional Regulation |
of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
(m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall |
depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes |
impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be |
habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including |
but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles |
|
and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, |
barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and |
synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar |
sedative hypnotics.
|
(n) (Blank).
|
(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State |
Police or his or her designated agents.
|
(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to |
an
ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the |
lawful order of
a prescriber, including the prescribing, |
administering, packaging,
labeling, or compounding necessary |
to prepare the substance for that
delivery.
|
(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
|
(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by |
administering or
dispensing, a controlled substance.
|
(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
|
(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the |
official
United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic |
Pharmacopoeia of the
United States, or official National |
Formulary, or any supplement to any
of them; (2) substances |
intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
treatment, or |
prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances
(other |
than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
|
the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use |
as a
component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or |
(3) of this
subsection. It does not include devices or their |
|
components, parts, or
accessories.
|
(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means
an entity certified by the |
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
|
purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control |
facility license or
animal
shelter license under the Animal |
Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is
authorized to purchase, |
store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
|
Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal |
euthanasia.
|
(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III |
substances
(nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used |
by a euthanasia agency for
the purpose of animal euthanasia.
|
(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a |
controlled
substance by a practitioner in the regular course of |
professional
treatment to or for any person who is under his or |
her treatment for a
pathology or condition other than that |
individual's physical or
psychological dependence upon or |
addiction to a controlled substance,
except as provided herein: |
and application of the term to a pharmacist
shall mean the |
dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
|
prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the |
pharmacist
is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by |
accepted professional
standards including, but not limited to |
the following, in making the
judgment:
|
(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient |
relationship,
|
|
(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one |
prescriber for
large numbers of patients,
|
(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
|
(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be |
clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual |
dose may be used legitimately),
|
(5) unusual geographic distances between patient, |
pharmacist and
prescriber,
|
(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
|
(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly |
altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any |
type. |
(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a |
pharmacy in
compounding solutions for direct administration to |
a patient in a private
residence, long-term care facility, or |
hospice setting by means of parenteral,
intravenous, |
intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
|
(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State
Police of the |
State of Illinois, or its successor agency. |
(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
|
(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule |
designated as
being a principal compound used, or produced |
primarily for use, in the
manufacture of a controlled |
substance;
|
(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or |
likely to
be used in the manufacture of such controlled |
|
substance; and
|
(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, |
curtail or limit
the manufacture of such controlled |
substance.
|
(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, |
educating
or instructing by practitioners using controlled |
substances within
educational facilities approved by the State |
Board of Education or
its successor agency.
|
(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, |
County or
Municipal peace unit or police force.
|
(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a |
controlled
substance which (1) by overall dosage unit |
appearance, including shape,
color, size, markings or lack |
thereof, taste, consistency, or any other
identifying physical |
characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable
person |
to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) |
is
expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled |
substance or is
distributed under circumstances which would |
lead a reasonable person to
believe that the substance is a |
controlled substance. For the purpose of
determining whether |
the representations made or the circumstances of the
|
distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the |
substance to be
a controlled substance under this clause (2) of |
subsection (y), the court or
other authority may consider the |
following factors in addition to any other
factor that may be |
relevant:
|
|
(a) statements made by the owner or person in control |
of the substance
concerning its nature, use or effect;
|
(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the |
substance may
be resold for profit;
|
(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner |
normally used for the
illegal distribution of controlled |
substances;
|
(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution |
included an
exchange of or demand for money or other |
property as consideration, and
whether the amount of the |
consideration was substantially greater than the
|
reasonable retail market value of the substance.
|
Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a |
noncontrolled
substance in its finished dosage form that was |
initially introduced into
commerce prior to the initial |
introduction into commerce of a controlled
substance in its |
finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
|
Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or |
distributing
of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized |
to dispense and
distribute controlled substances under this |
Act, provided that such action
would be deemed to be carried |
out in good faith under subsection (u) if the
substances |
involved were controlled substances.
|
Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the |
manufacture,
preparation, propagation, compounding, |
processing, packaging, advertising
or distribution of a drug or |
|
drugs by any person registered pursuant to
Section 510 of the |
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
|
(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is |
located in a state
of the United States that delivers, |
dispenses or
distributes, through the United States Postal |
Service or other common
carrier, to Illinois residents, any |
substance which requires a prescription.
|
(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, |
propagation,
compounding, conversion or processing of a |
controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
|
directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of |
natural origin,
or independently by means of chemical |
synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical |
synthesis, and includes any packaging or
repackaging of the |
substance or labeling of its container, except that
this term |
does not include:
|
(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding |
of a
controlled substance for his or her own use; or
|
(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent |
under his or her
supervision, the preparation, |
compounding, packaging, or labeling of a
controlled |
substance:
|
(a) as an incident to his or her administering or |
dispensing of a
controlled substance in the course of |
his or her professional practice; or
|
(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or |
|
chemical
analysis and not for sale.
|
(z-1) (Blank).
|
(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited |
under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act. |
(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician |
assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through |
a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to |
practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with |
Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, |
(ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated |
authority to prescribe through a written delegation of |
authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all |
of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with |
Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, or (iii) an animal |
euthanasia agency , or (iv) a prescribing psychologist . |
(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether |
produced
directly or indirectly by extraction from substances |
of vegetable origin,
or independently by means of chemical |
synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical |
synthesis:
|
(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, |
including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts |
of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of |
such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within |
the specific chemical designation; however the term |
"narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline |
|
alkaloids of opium;
|
(2) (blank);
|
(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
|
(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of |
coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and |
ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have |
been removed;
|
(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, |
and salts of isomers; |
(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, |
and salts of isomers; |
(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which |
contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to |
in subparagraphs (1) through (6). |
(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
|
Nurse Practice Act.
|
(cc) (Blank).
|
(dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction |
forming or
addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine |
or being capable of
conversion into a drug having addiction |
forming or addiction sustaining
liability.
|
(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
|
somniferum L., except its seeds.
|
(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or |
solution or other liquid form of medication intended for |
administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form |
|
of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal |
administration. |
(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon |
Board of
the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, |
mail-order pharmacy,
government or governmental subdivision or |
agency, business trust, estate,
trust, partnership or |
association, or any other entity.
|
(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or |
certificate of
registration as a registered pharmacist, a local |
registered pharmacist
or a registered assistant pharmacist |
under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
|
(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in |
which
pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy |
Practice Act.
|
(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited |
under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act. |
(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise |
requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all |
of its branches. |
(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of |
the opium
poppy, after mowing.
|
(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice |
medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric |
physician,
veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, |
physician assistant,
advanced practice nurse,
licensed |
|
practical
nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or |
pharmacy, or other
person licensed, registered, or otherwise |
lawfully permitted by the
United States or this State to |
distribute, dispense, conduct research
with respect to, |
administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
|
controlled substance in the course of professional practice or |
research.
|
(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written |
prescription upon which
the designated drug has been indicated |
prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written |
prescription that is individually generated by machine or |
computer in the prescriber's office.
|
(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice |
medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, |
prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the |
Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive |
authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical |
Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician , or
|
veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant |
who
issues a
prescription for a controlled substance
in |
accordance
with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a |
written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5
of the
|
Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced |
practice
nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under |
Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with |
Section 303.05, a written delegation,
and a written
|
|
collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse |
Practice Act.
|
(nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral |
order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable |
federal requirements,
of
a physician licensed to practice |
medicine in all its branches,
dentist, podiatric physician or |
veterinarian for any controlled
substance, of an optometrist |
for a Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substance in accordance |
with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of |
1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 |
of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive |
authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical |
Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant for a
|
controlled substance
in accordance with Section 303.05, a |
written delegation, and a written supervision agreement |
required under
Section 7.5 of the
Physician Assistant Practice |
Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice
nurse with prescriptive |
authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice |
Act who issues a prescription for a
controlled substance in |
accordance
with
Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a |
written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the |
Nurse Practice Act when required by law.
|
(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an |
electronic library that contains reported controlled substance |
data. |
(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the |
|
entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on |
controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316. |
(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, |
planting,
cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled |
substance other than methamphetamine.
|
(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to |
register
under Section 302 of this Act.
|
(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each |
person
authorized to handle controlled substances under the |
laws of the United
States and of this State.
|
(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either |
the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the |
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the |
Secretary's designated agents. |
(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, |
district,
commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, |
and any area
subject to the legal authority of the United |
States of America.
|
(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an |
overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) |
causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be |
habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including |
but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, |
methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine |
and its analogs. |
(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses |
|
a
controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of |
a member of his or her
household or for administering to an |
animal owned by him or her or by a member
of his or her |
household.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised |
11-12-13.)
|
(720 ILCS 570/303.05)
|
Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.
|
(a) The Department of Financial and Professional |
Regulation shall register licensed
physician assistants , and |
licensed advanced practice nurses , and prescribing |
psychologists licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical |
Psychologist Licensing Act to prescribe and
dispense |
controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia
|
agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia |
drugs under the
following circumstances:
|
(1) with respect to physician assistants,
|
(A) the physician assistant has been
delegated
|
written authority to prescribe any Schedule III |
through V controlled substances by a physician |
licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches in |
accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant |
Practice Act
of 1987;
and
the physician assistant has
|
completed the
appropriate application forms and has |
paid the required fees as set by rule;
or
|
|
(B) the physician assistant has been delegated
|
authority by a supervising physician licensed to |
practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or |
dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a |
written delegation of authority and under the |
following conditions: |
(i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances |
by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
application may be delegated, provided that the |
delegated Schedule II controlled substances are |
routinely prescribed by the supervising physician. |
This delegation must identify the specific |
Schedule II controlled substances by either brand |
name or generic name. Schedule II controlled |
substances to be delivered by injection or other |
route of administration may not be delegated; |
(ii) any delegation must be of controlled |
substances prescribed by the supervising |
physician; |
(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no |
more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation |
authorized only after prior approval of the |
supervising physician; |
(iv) the physician assistant must discuss the |
condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
substance is prescribed monthly with the |
|
delegating physician; |
(v) the physician assistant must have |
completed the appropriate application forms and |
paid the required fees as set by rule; |
(vi) the physician assistant must provide |
evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact |
hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant |
program accredited by the Accreditation Review |
Commission on Education for the Physician |
Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for |
any new license issued with Schedule II authority |
after the effective date of this amendatory Act of |
the 97th General Assembly; and |
(vii) the physician assistant must annually |
complete at least 5 hours of continuing education |
in pharmacology ; . |
(2) with respect to advanced practice nurses, |
(A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
|
authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V |
controlled substances by a collaborating physician |
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a |
collaborating podiatric physician in accordance with |
Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice
Act. The advanced |
practice nurse has completed the
appropriate |
application forms and has paid the required
fees as set |
by rule; or |
|
(B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
|
authority by a collaborating physician licensed to |
practice medicine in all its branches or collaborating |
podiatric physician to prescribe or dispense Schedule |
II controlled substances through a written delegation |
of authority and under the following conditions: |
(i) specific Schedule II controlled substances |
by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
application may be delegated, provided that the |
delegated Schedule II controlled substances are |
routinely prescribed by the collaborating |
physician or podiatric physician. This delegation |
must identify the specific Schedule II controlled |
substances by either brand name or generic name. |
Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered |
by injection or other route of administration may |
not be delegated; |
(ii) any delegation must be of controlled |
substances prescribed by the collaborating |
physician or podiatric physician; |
(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no |
more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation |
authorized only after prior approval of the |
collaborating physician or podiatric physician; |
(iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss |
the condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
|
substance is prescribed monthly with the |
delegating physician or podiatric physician or in |
the course of review as required by Section 65-40 |
of the Nurse Practice Act; |
(v) the advanced practice nurse must have |
completed the appropriate application forms and |
paid the required fees as set by rule; |
(vi) the advanced practice nurse must provide |
evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45 |
graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new |
license issued with Schedule II authority after |
the effective date of this amendatory Act of the |
97th General Assembly; and |
(vii) the advanced practice nurse must |
annually complete 5 hours of continuing education |
in pharmacology; or |
(3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the |
euthanasia agency has
obtained a license from the |
Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation and |
obtained a registration number from the
Department ; or .
|
(4) with respect to prescribing psychologists, the |
prescribing psychologist has been delegated
authority to |
prescribe any nonnarcotic Schedule III through V |
controlled substances by a collaborating physician |
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in |
accordance with Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist |
|
Licensing Act, and the prescribing psychologist has |
completed the
appropriate application forms and has paid |
the required
fees as set by rule. |
(b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to |
prescribe those
schedules of controlled substances for which a |
licensed physician or licensed podiatric physician has |
delegated
prescriptive authority, except that an animal |
euthanasia agency does not have any
prescriptive authority.
A |
physician assistant and an advanced practice nurse are |
prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled |
substances not set forth in the required written delegation of |
authority.
|
(c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, |
physician
assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal |
euthanasia agencies may be issued a
mid-level practitioner
|
controlled substances license for Illinois.
|
(d) A collaborating physician or podiatric physician may, |
but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an |
advanced practice nurse as part of a written collaborative |
agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall |
conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse |
Practice Act. |
(e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, |
delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as |
part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of |
prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of |