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Public Act 103-0309 |
HB2395 Enrolled | LRB103 28370 AMQ 54750 b |
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AN ACT concerning regulation.
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Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
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represented in the General Assembly:
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Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by |
changing Sections 4.34 and 4.39 as follows: |
(5 ILCS 80/4.34) |
Sec. 4.34. Acts and Section repealed on January 1, 2024. |
The following Acts and
Section of an Act are repealed
on |
January 1, 2024: |
The Crematory Regulation Act. |
The Electrologist Licensing Act. |
The Illinois Certified Shorthand Reporters Act of |
1984. |
The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act. |
The Illinois Public Accounting Act. |
The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private |
Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. |
The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered |
Surgical Technologist
Title Protection Act. |
Section 2.5 of the Illinois Plumbing License Law.
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The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of |
2004. |
(Source: P.A. 102-291, eff. 8-6-21.) |
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(5 ILCS 80/4.39) |
Sec. 4.39. Acts repealed on January 1, 2029 and December |
31, 2029. |
(a) The following Act is repealed on January 1, 2029: |
The Electrologist Licensing Act. |
The Environmental Health Practitioner Licensing Act. |
The Illinois Public Accounting Act. |
The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private |
Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. |
Section 2.5 of the Illinois Plumbing License Law. |
The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of |
2004. |
(b) The following Act is repealed on December 31, 2029: |
The Structural Pest Control Act.
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(Source: P.A. 100-716, eff. 8-3-18; 100-796, eff. 8-10-18; |
101-81, eff. 7-12-19.) |
Section 10. The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice |
Act of 2004 is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, 8, 10, 10.5, |
11, 12, 14.1, 25, 25.2, 25.6, 25.7, 25.9, 25.15, 25.17, and 27 |
and by adding Sections 3.5 and 4.5 as follows:
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(225 ILCS 115/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 7003)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 3. Definitions. The
following terms have the meanings |
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indicated, unless the context requires
otherwise:
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"Accredited college of veterinary medicine" means a |
veterinary college,
school, or division of a university or |
college that offers the degree of Doctor
of Veterinary |
Medicine or its equivalent and that is accredited by the |
Council
on Education of the American Veterinary Medical |
Association (AVMA).
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"Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application |
file or license file as maintained by the Department's |
licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or |
licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, |
and those changes must be made either through the Department's |
website or by contacting the Department. |
"Accredited program in veterinary technology" means any |
post-secondary educational program that is accredited by the |
AVMA's Committee on Veterinary Technician Education and |
Activities or any veterinary technician program that is |
recognized as its equivalent by the AVMA's Committee on |
Veterinary Technician Education and Activities. |
"Animal" means any animal, vertebrate or invertebrate, |
other than a human.
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"Board" means the Veterinary Licensing and Disciplinary |
Board.
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"Certified veterinary technician" means a person who is |
validly and currently licensed to practice veterinary |
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technology in this State.
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"Client" means an entity, person, group, or corporation |
that has entered into
an agreement with a veterinarian for the |
purposes of obtaining veterinary
medical services.
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"Complementary, alternative, and integrative therapies" |
means a heterogeneous group of diagnostic and therapeutic |
philosophies and practices, which at the time they are |
performed may differ from current scientific knowledge, or |
whose theoretical basis and techniques may diverge from |
veterinary medicine routinely taught in accredited veterinary |
medical colleges, or both. "Complementary, alternative, and |
integrative therapies" include, but are not limited to, |
veterinary acupuncture, acutherapy, and acupressure; |
veterinary homeopathy; veterinary manual or manipulative |
therapy or therapy based on techniques practiced in |
osteopathy, chiropractic medicine, or physical medicine and |
therapy; veterinary nutraceutical therapy; veterinary |
phytotherapy; and other therapies as defined by rule.
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"Consultation" means when a veterinarian receives advice |
in person,
telephonically, electronically, or by any other |
method of communication from a
veterinarian licensed in this |
or any other state or other person whose
expertise, in the |
opinion of the veterinarian, would benefit a patient. Under
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any circumstance, the responsibility for the welfare of the |
patient remains
with the veterinarian receiving consultation.
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"Department" means the Department of Financial and |
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Professional Regulation.
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"Direct supervision" means the supervising veterinarian is |
readily available on the premises
where the animal is being |
treated.
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"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained |
by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. |
"Immediate supervision" means the supervising veterinarian |
is in the immediate area, within audible and visual range of |
the animal patient and the person treating the patient. |
"Impaired veterinarian" means a veterinarian who is unable |
to practice
veterinary medicine with reasonable skill and |
safety because of a physical or
mental disability as evidenced |
by a written determination or written consent
based on |
clinical evidence, including deterioration through the aging |
process,
loss of motor skills, or abuse of drugs or alcohol of |
sufficient degree to
diminish a person's ability to deliver |
competent patient care.
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"Indirect supervision" means the supervising veterinarian |
need not be on the
premises, but has given either written or |
oral instructions for the treatment
of the animal and is |
available by telephone or other form of communication.
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"Licensed veterinarian" means a person who is validly and |
currently licensed to practice veterinary medicine in this |
State. |
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"Patient" means an animal or group of animals that is |
examined or treated by a veterinarian.
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"Person" means an individual, firm, partnership (general, |
limited, or limited
liability), association, joint venture, |
cooperative, corporation, limited
liability company, or any |
other group or combination acting in concert, whether
or not |
acting as a principal, partner, member, trustee, fiduciary, |
receiver, or
any other kind of legal or personal |
representative, or as the successor in
interest, assignee, |
agent, factor, servant, employee, director, officer, or any
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other representative of such person.
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"Practice of veterinary medicine" means to diagnose, |
prognose, treat, correct, change, alleviate, or prevent animal |
disease, illness, pain, deformity, defect, injury, or other |
physical, dental, or mental conditions by any method or mode , |
such as telemedicine, ; including the performance of one or |
more of the
following:
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(1) Prescribing, dispensing, administering, applying, |
or ordering the administration of any drug, medicine, |
biologic, apparatus, anesthetic, or other therapeutic or |
diagnostic substance, or medical or surgical technique.
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(2) (Blank).
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(3) Performing upon an animal a surgical or dental |
operation.
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(3.5) Performing upon an animal complementary, |
alternative, or integrative therapy.
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(4) Performing upon an animal any manual or mechanical |
procedure for reproductive management, including the |
diagnosis or treatment of pregnancy, sterility, or |
infertility. |
(4.5) The rendering of advice or recommendation by any |
means, including telephonic and other electronic |
communications, with regard to the performing upon an |
animal any manual or mechanical procedure for reproductive |
management, including the diagnosis or treatment of |
pregnancy, sterility, or infertility.
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(5) Determining the health and fitness of an animal.
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(6) Representing oneself, directly or indirectly, as |
engaging in the
practice of veterinary medicine.
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(7) Using any word, letters, or title under such |
circumstances as to
induce the belief that the person |
using them is qualified to engage in the
practice of |
veterinary medicine or any of its branches. Such use shall |
be
prima facie evidence of the intention to represent |
oneself as engaging in the
practice of veterinary |
medicine.
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"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
Professional Regulation. |
"Supervising veterinarian" means a veterinarian who |
assumes responsibility
for the professional care given to an |
animal by a person working under his or
her direction in either |
an immediate, direct, or indirect supervision arrangement. The |
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supervising veterinarian must have examined the animal at
such |
time as acceptable veterinary medical practices requires, |
consistent with
the particular delegated animal health care |
task.
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"Therapeutic" means the treatment, control, and prevention |
of disease. |
"Veterinarian" means a person who is validly and currently |
licensed to practice veterinary medicine in this State. |
"Veterinarian-client-patient relationship" means that all |
of the following conditions have been met:
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(1) The veterinarian has assumed the responsibility |
for making clinical
judgments regarding the health of an |
animal and the need for medical treatment
and the client, |
owner, or other caretaker has agreed to follow the |
instructions
of the veterinarian;
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(2) There is sufficient knowledge of an animal by the |
veterinarian to
initiate at least a general or preliminary |
diagnosis of the medical condition
of the animal. This |
means that the veterinarian has recently seen and is
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personally acquainted with the keeping and care of the |
animal by virtue of an in-person
examination of the animal |
or by medically appropriate and timely visits to the
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premises where the animal is kept, or the veterinarian has |
access to the animal patient's records and has been |
designated by the veterinarian with the prior relationship |
to provide reasonable and appropriate medical care if the |
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veterinarian with the prior relationship he or she is |
unavailable; and
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(3) The practicing veterinarian is readily available |
for follow-up in case
of adverse reactions or failure of |
the treatment regimen or, if unavailable, has designated |
another available veterinarian who has access to the |
animal patient's records to provide reasonable and |
appropriate medical care.
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"Veterinarian-client-patient relationship" does not mean a |
relationship solely based on telephonic or other electronic |
communications. |
"Veterinary medicine" means all branches and specialties |
included within the practice of veterinary medicine. |
"Veterinary premises" means any premises or facility where |
the practice of veterinary medicine occurs, including, but not |
limited to, a mobile clinic, outpatient clinic, satellite |
clinic, or veterinary hospital or clinic. "Veterinary |
premises" does not mean the premises of a veterinary client, |
research facility, a federal military base, or an accredited |
college of veterinary medicine. |
"Veterinary prescription drugs" means those drugs |
restricted to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian |
in accordance with Section 503(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, |
and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 353). |
"Veterinary specialist" means a veterinarian: (1) who has |
been awarded and maintains certification from a veterinary |
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specialty organization recognized by the American Board of |
Veterinary Specialties; (2) who has been awarded and maintains |
certification from a veterinary certifying organization whose |
standards have been found by the Board to be equivalent to or |
more stringent than those of American Board of Veterinary |
Specialties-recognized veterinary specialty organizations; or |
(3) who otherwise meets criteria that may be established by |
the Board to support a claim to be a veterinary specialist that |
a veterinarian is a diplomate within an AVMA-recognized |
veterinary specialty organization . |
"Veterinary technology" means the performance of services |
within the field of
veterinary medicine by a person who, for |
compensation or personal profit, is
employed by a licensed |
veterinarian to perform duties that require an
understanding |
of veterinary medicine necessary to carry out the orders of
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the veterinarian. Those services, however, shall not include |
diagnosing,
prognosing, prescribing writing prescriptions , or |
surgery.
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(Source: P.A. 98-339, eff. 12-31-13.)
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(225 ILCS 115/3.5 new) |
Sec. 3.5. Address of record; email address of record. All |
applicants and licensees shall: |
(1) provide a valid address and email address to the |
Department, which shall serve as the address of record and |
email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
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application for licensure or renewal of a license; and |
(2) inform the Department of any change of address
of |
record or email address of record within 14 days after |
such change either through the Department's website or by |
contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.
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(225 ILCS 115/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 7004)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 4. Exemptions. Nothing in this Act shall apply to any |
of the
following:
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(1) Veterinarians employed by the federal or State |
government while
engaged in their official duties.
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(2) Licensed veterinarians from other states who are |
invited to Illinois
for consultation by a veterinarian |
licensed in Illinois.
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(3) Veterinarians employed by colleges or universities |
while engaged in
the performance of their official duties, |
or
faculty engaged in animal husbandry or animal |
management programs of colleges
or universities.
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(3.5) A veterinarian or veterinary technician from |
another state or country who (A) is not licensed under |
this Act; (B) is currently licensed as a veterinarian or |
veterinary technician in another state or country, or |
otherwise exempt from licensure in the other state; (C) is |
an invited guest of a professional veterinary association, |
veterinary training program, or continuing education |
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provider approved by the Department; and (D) engages in |
professional education through lectures, clinics, or |
demonstrations.
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(4) A veterinarian employed by an accredited college |
of veterinary
medicine providing assistance requested by a |
veterinarian licensed in Illinois,
acting with informed |
consent from the client and acting under the direct or
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indirect supervision and control of the licensed |
veterinarian. Providing
assistance involves hands-on |
active participation in the treatment and care of
the |
patient. The licensed veterinarian shall maintain |
responsibility for the
veterinarian-client-patient |
relationship.
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(5) Veterinary students in an accredited
college of |
veterinary medicine, university,
department
of a |
university, or other institution of veterinary medicine |
and surgery
engaged in duties assigned by their
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instructors or working under the immediate or direct |
supervision of a licensed veterinarian.
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(5.5) Students of an accredited program in veterinary |
technology performing veterinary technology duties or |
actions assigned by instructors or working under the |
immediate or direct supervision of a licensed |
veterinarian.
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(6) Any person engaged in bona fide scientific |
research which
requires
the use of animals.
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(7) An owner of livestock and any of the owner's |
employees or the owner
and employees of a service and care |
provider of livestock caring for and
treating livestock |
belonging to the owner or under a provider's care, |
including
but not limited to, the performance of husbandry |
and livestock management
practices such as dehorning, |
castration, emasculation, or docking of cattle,
horses, |
sheep, goats, and swine, artificial insemination, and |
drawing of semen.
Nor shall this Act be construed to |
prohibit any person from administering in a
humane manner |
medicinal or surgical treatment to any livestock in the |
care
of such person. However, any such services shall |
comply with the Humane Care
for Animals Act.
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(8) An owner of an animal, or an agent of the owner |
acting with the
owner's approval, in caring for, training, |
or treating an animal belonging to
the owner, so long as |
that individual or agent does not represent himself or
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herself as a veterinarian or use any title associated with |
the practice of
veterinary medicine or surgery or |
diagnose, prescribe drugs, or perform
surgery. The agent |
shall provide the owner with a written statement
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summarizing the nature of the services provided and obtain |
a signed
acknowledgment from the owner that they accept |
the services provided. The
services shall comply with the |
Humane Care for Animals Act. The provisions of
this item |
(8) do not apply to a person who is exempt under item (7).
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(9) A member in good standing of another licensed or |
regulated profession
within any state or a member of an |
organization or group approved by the
Department by rule |
providing assistance that is requested in writing by a |
veterinarian
licensed in this State acting within a |
veterinarian-client-patient relationship and with |
informed consent from the client and the member is acting
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under the immediate, direct, or indirect supervision and |
control of the licensed
veterinarian. Providing assistance |
involves hands-on active participation in
the treatment |
and care of the patient, as defined by rule. The licensed
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veterinarian shall maintain responsibility for the |
veterinarian-client-patient
relationship, but shall be |
immune from liability, except for willful and wanton |
conduct, in any civil or criminal action if a member |
providing assistance does not meet the requirements of |
this item (9).
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(10) A graduate of a non-accredited college of |
veterinary medicine who is
in
the process of obtaining a |
certificate of educational equivalence and is
performing |
duties or actions assigned by instructors in an approved |
college of
veterinary medicine.
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(10.5) A veterinarian who is enrolled in a |
postgraduate instructional program in an accredited |
college of veterinary medicine performing duties or |
actions assigned by instructors or working under the |
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immediate or direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian |
or a faculty member of the College of Veterinary Medicine |
at the University of Illinois.
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(11) A certified euthanasia technician who is |
authorized to perform
euthanasia in the course and scope |
of his or her employment only as permitted by the Humane |
Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.
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(12) A person who, without expectation of |
compensation, provides emergency
veterinary care in an |
emergency or disaster situation so long as the person he |
or she does
not represent oneself himself or herself as a |
veterinarian or use a title or degree
pertaining to the |
practice of veterinary medicine and surgery.
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(13) Any certified veterinary technician or other |
employee of a licensed
veterinarian performing permitted |
duties other than diagnosis, prognosis, prescribing |
prescription ,
or surgery under the appropriate direction |
and supervision of the veterinarian, who shall
be |
responsible for the performance of the employee.
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(13.5) Any pharmacist licensed in the State, merchant, |
or manufacturer selling at a his or her regular place of |
business medicines, feed, appliances, or other products |
used in the prevention or treatment of animal diseases as |
permitted by law and provided that the services provided |
he or she provides do not include diagnosing, prognosing, |
prescribing writing prescriptions , or surgery.
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(14) An approved humane investigator regulated under |
the Humane Care for
Animals Act or employee of a shelter |
licensed under the Animal Welfare Act,
working under the |
indirect supervision of a licensed veterinarian.
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(15) An individual providing equine dentistry services |
requested by a
veterinarian licensed to practice in this |
State, an owner, or an owner's agent.
For the purposes of |
this item (15), "equine dentistry services" means floating
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teeth without the use of drugs or extraction.
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(15.5) In the event of an emergency or disaster, a |
veterinarian or veterinary technician not licensed in this |
State who (A) is responding to a request for assistance |
from the Illinois Department of Agriculture, the Illinois |
Department of Public Health, the Illinois Emergency |
Management Agency, or other State agency as determined by |
the Department; (B) is licensed and in good standing in |
another state; and (C) has been granted a temporary waiver |
from licensure by the Department.
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(16) Private treaty sale of animals unless otherwise |
provided by law.
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(Source: P.A. 98-339, eff. 12-31-13.)
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(225 ILCS 115/4.5 new) |
Sec. 4.5. Telemedicine. Telemedicine occurs when either |
the animal who is receiving the care is located in the State |
when receiving telemedicine treatment or the veterinarian |
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providing the care to the animal is located in the State when |
providing telemedicine treatment, pursuant to the provisions |
of Section 5. Telemedicine may only be used when a |
veterinarian has an established veterinarian-client-patient |
relationship. Telemedicine may be used in the following |
circumstance: |
(1) when a physical examination of the patient has |
been conducted within one year; and |
(2) if it is possible to make a diagnosis and create a |
treatment plan without a recent physical examination based |
on professional standards of care. |
A veterinarian shall not substitute telehealth, |
teleadvice, telemedicine, or teletriage when a physical |
examination is warranted or necessary for an accurate |
diagnosis of any medical condition or creation of an |
appropriate treatment plan. All minimum standards of practice |
and provisions under this Act and rules shall be maintained. |
A veterinarian shall ensure that any technology used in |
the provision of telemedicine is sufficient and of appropriate |
quality to provide accurate remote assessment and diagnosis. A |
veterinarian shall meet all recordkeeping requirements |
pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 25.17. |
A supervising veterinarian may delegate telemedicine |
services to a certified veterinary technician who is acting |
under direct or indirect supervision and in accordance with |
the Act and rules. A valid veterinarian-client-patient |
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relationship established by a physical examination conducted |
by the supervising veterinarian must exist for the certified |
veterinary technician to provide delegated telemedicine |
services. |
A veterinarian and a certified veterinary technician |
providing telemedicine services shall, at the time of service, |
provide the veterinarian or certified veterinary technician's |
contact information, including the veterinarian or certified |
veterinary technician's full name, to the client or practice |
using the service. All telemedicine records shall be provided |
to the client upon request.
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(225 ILCS 115/8) (from Ch. 111, par. 7008)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 8. Qualifications. A person is qualified to receive a |
license if the applicant he
or she : (1)
is of good moral |
character; (2) has graduated from an accredited college or
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school of veterinary medicine;
and (3) has passed the |
examination
authorized
by the Department to determine fitness |
to hold a license.
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Applicants for licensure from non-accredited veterinary |
schools are
required
to
successfully complete a program of |
educational equivalency as established by
rule. At a minimum, |
this program shall include all of the following:
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(1) A certified transcript indicating graduation from |
such college.
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(2) Successful completion of a communication ability |
examination designed
to assess communication skills, |
including a command of the English language.
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(3) Successful completion of an examination or |
assessment mechanism
designed to evaluate educational |
equivalence, including both preclinical and
clinical |
competencies.
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(4) Any other reasonable assessment mechanism designed |
to ensure an
applicant possesses the educational |
background necessary to protect the public
health and |
safety.
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Successful completion of the criteria set forth in this |
Section shall
establish education equivalence as one of the |
criteria for licensure set forth
in this Act. Applicants under |
this Section must also meet all other statutory
criteria for |
licensure prior to the issuance of any such license, including
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graduation from veterinary school.
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A graduate of a non-approved veterinary school who was |
issued a work permit
by
the Department before the effective |
date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd
General Assembly may |
continue to work under the direct supervision of a
licensed |
veterinarian until the expiration of his or her permit.
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In determining moral character under this Section, the |
Department may take
into consideration any felony conviction |
of the applicant, but such a
conviction shall not operate as a |
bar to obtaining a license. The Department
may also request |
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the applicant to submit and may consider as evidence of
moral |
character, endorsements from 2 individuals licensed under this |
Act.
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(Source: P.A. 93-281, eff. 12-31-03 .)
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(225 ILCS 115/10) (from Ch. 111, par. 7010)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 10. Application for licensure. A person who desires |
to obtain a
license as a veterinarian or a certificate as a |
veterinary technician
shall apply to the Department on forms |
provided by the Department. Each
application shall be |
accompanied by proof of qualifications and shall be
verified |
by the applicant under oath and be accompanied by the required |
fee.
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If an applicant neglects, fails, or refuses to take an |
examination or fails to pass an examination for a license or |
otherwise fails to complete the application process under this |
Act within 3 years after filing the applicant's application, |
the application shall be denied. However, such applicant may |
make a new application for examination accompanied by the |
required fee and must furnish proof of meeting qualifications |
for examination in effect at the time of new application. |
(Source: P.A. 88-424 .)
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(225 ILCS 115/10.5)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 10.5. Social Security Number or individual taxpayer |
identification number on license application. In addition
to |
any other information required to be contained in the |
application, every
application for an original license under |
this Act shall
include the applicant's Social Security Number |
or individual taxpayer identification number , which shall be |
retained in the agency's records pertaining to the license. As |
soon as practical, the Department shall assign a customer's |
identification number to each applicant for a license. |
Every application for a renewal or restored license shall |
require the applicant's customer identification number.
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(Source: P.A. 97-400, eff. 1-1-12 .)
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(225 ILCS 115/11) (from Ch. 111, par. 7011)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 11. Practice pending licensure. A person holding the |
degree of Doctor of
Veterinary Medicine, or its equivalent, |
from an accredited college of
veterinary medicine,
and who has |
applied in writing to the Department for a license to practice
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veterinary medicine and surgery in any of its branches, and |
who has fulfilled
the requirements of Section 8 of this Act, |
with the exception of receipt of
notification of his or her |
examination results, may practice under the direct
supervision |
of a veterinarian who is licensed in this State,
until: (1) the |
applicant has been notified of his or her failure to pass the |
examination
authorized by the Department; (2) the applicant |
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has withdrawn his or her
application; (3) the applicant has |
received a license from the Department after successfully |
passing the examination authorized by the Department; or (4) |
the applicant has been notified by the Department to cease and |
desist from practicing.
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The applicant shall perform only those acts
that may be |
prescribed by and incidental to his or her employment and |
those acts
shall be performed under the direction of a |
supervising veterinarian who is licensed in this State. The |
applicant shall not be entitled to otherwise engage in the
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practice of
veterinary medicine until fully licensed in this |
State.
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The Department shall
immediately notify , by certified |
mail, the supervising
veterinarian employing the applicant and |
the applicant that the applicant shall immediately cease and |
desist from practicing if the applicant (1) practices outside |
his or her employment under a licensed veterinarian; (2) |
violates any provision of this Act; or (3) becomes ineligible |
for licensure under this Act.
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(Source: P.A. 96-571, eff. 8-18-09; 96-638, eff. 8-24-09; |
96-1000, eff. 7-2-10 .)
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(225 ILCS 115/12) (from Ch. 111, par. 7012)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 12. Renewal and inactive status; restoration; |
military service. |
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(a) The expiration date and renewal period for each |
license or certificate shall be set by rule. |
(b) A licensee who has permitted his or her license to |
expire or who has had his or her license on inactive status may |
have the license restored by making application to the |
Department by filing proof acceptable to the Department of his |
or her fitness to have the license restored and by paying the |
required fees. Proof of fitness may include sworn evidence |
certifying to active lawful practice in another jurisdiction. |
If the licensee has not maintained an active practice in |
another jurisdiction satisfactory to the Department, the |
Department shall determine, by an evaluation program |
established by rule, his or her fitness for restoration of the |
license and shall establish procedures and requirements for |
restoration. |
(c) A licensee whose license expired while the licensee he |
or she was (1) in federal service on active duty with the Armed |
Forces of the United States or the State Militia called into |
service or training or (2) in training or education under the |
supervision of the United States before induction into the |
military service, may have the license restored without paying |
any lapsed renewal fees if within 2 years after honorable |
termination of the service, training, or education the |
licensee he or she furnishes the Department with satisfactory |
evidence to the effect that the licensee he or she has been so |
engaged and that the licensee's his or her service, training, |
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or education has been so terminated. |
(d) Any licensee
who notifies the Department in writing on |
the prescribed form may place the licensee's his or
her license |
or certification on an inactive status and shall, subject to |
rule,
be exempt from payment of the renewal fee until the |
licensee he or she notifies the Department in writing of
the |
licensee's his or her intention to resume active status.
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(e) Any veterinarian or certified veterinary technician |
requesting
restoration from
inactive or expired status shall |
be required to complete the continuing education
requirements |
for a single license or certificate renewal period, pursuant |
to
rule, and pay the current renewal fee to restore the renewal |
applicant's his or her license or
certification as provided in |
this Act.
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(f) Any licensee whose license is in inactive, expired, or |
suspended status shall not practice
veterinary medicine and |
surgery in this State.
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(Source: P.A. 98-339, eff. 12-31-13.)
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(225 ILCS 115/14.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 7014.1)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 14.1. Returned checks; fines. Any person who delivers |
a check or other
payment to the Department that is returned to |
the Department unpaid by the
financial institution upon which |
it is drawn shall pay to the Department, in
addition to the |
amount already owed to the Department, a fine of $50. The
fines |
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imposed by this Section
are
in addition to any other |
discipline provided under this Act for unlicensed
practice or |
practice on a nonrenewed license or certificate. The |
Department
shall notify the person that payment of fees and |
fines shall be paid to the
Department by certified check or |
money order within 30 calendar days of the
notification. If, |
after the expiration of 30 days from the date of the
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notification, the person has failed to submit the necessary |
remittance, the
Department shall automatically terminate the |
license or certificate or deny
the application, without |
hearing. If, after termination or denial, the
person seeks a |
license or certificate, the person he or she shall apply to the
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Department for restoration or issuance of the license or |
certificate and
pay all fees and fines due to the Department. |
The Department may establish
a fee for the processing of an |
application for restoration of a license or
certificate to pay |
all expenses of processing this application. The Secretary
may |
waive the fines due under this Section in individual cases |
where the Secretary
finds that the fines would be unreasonable |
or unnecessarily
burdensome.
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(Source: P.A. 96-1322, eff. 7-27-10 .)
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(225 ILCS 115/25) (from Ch. 111, par. 7025)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 25. Disciplinary actions.
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1. The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may |
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revoke,
suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other |
disciplinary or non-disciplinary
action as the Department may |
deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to
exceed |
$10,000 for each violation and the assessment of costs as |
provided for in Section 25.3 of this Act, with regard to any
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license or certificate for any one or combination of the |
following:
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A. Material misstatement in furnishing information to |
the
Department.
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B. Violations of this Act, or of the rules adopted |
pursuant to this Act.
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C. Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, |
finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by |
sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, |
convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, |
conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under |
the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is |
(i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element |
of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the |
practice of the profession.
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D. Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or |
procuring a license under this Act or in connection with |
applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
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E. Professional incompetence.
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F. Malpractice.
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G. Aiding or assisting another person in violating any |
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provision of this
Act or rules.
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H. Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in |
response to a
written request made by the Department.
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I. Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or |
unprofessional conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
defraud, or harm the public.
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J. Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined |
in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other |
substance that results in the inability
to practice with |
reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.
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K. Discipline by another state, unit of government, |
government agency, District of Columbia, territory, or
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foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the |
discipline is the same
or substantially equivalent to |
those set forth herein.
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L. Charging for professional services not rendered, |
including filing false statements for the collection of |
fees for which services are not rendered.
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M. A finding by the Board that the licensee or |
certificate holder,
after having his license or |
certificate placed on probationary status, has
violated |
the terms of probation.
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N. Willfully making or filing false records or reports |
in his practice,
including but not limited to false |
records filed with State agencies or
departments.
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O. Physical illness, including but not limited to, |
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deterioration through
the aging process, or loss of motor |
skill which results in the inability
to practice under |
this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.
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P. Solicitation of professional services other than |
permitted
advertising.
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Q. Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by |
an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.
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R. Conviction of or cash compromise of a charge or |
violation of the
Harrison Act or the Illinois Controlled |
Substances Act, regulating narcotics.
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S. Fraud or dishonesty in applying, treating, or |
reporting on
tuberculin or other biological tests.
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T. Failing to report, as required by law, or making |
false report of any
contagious or infectious diseases.
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U. Fraudulent use or misuse of any health certificate, |
shipping
certificate, brand inspection certificate, or |
other blank forms used in
practice that might lead to the |
dissemination of disease or the transportation
of diseased |
animals dead or alive; or dilatory methods, willful |
neglect, or
misrepresentation in the inspection of milk, |
meat, poultry, and the by-products
thereof.
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V. Conviction on a charge of cruelty to animals.
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W. Failure to keep one's premises and all equipment |
therein in a clean
and sanitary condition.
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X. Failure to provide satisfactory proof of having |
participated in
approved continuing education programs.
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Y. Mental illness or disability that results in the |
inability to practice under this Act with reasonable |
judgment, skill, or safety.
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Z. (Blank). Conviction by any court of competent |
jurisdiction, either within or
outside this State, of any |
violation of any law governing the practice of
veterinary |
medicine, if the Department determines, after |
investigation, that
the person has not been sufficiently |
rehabilitated to warrant the public trust.
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AA. Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, |
appliances, or goods provided
for a patient in any manner |
to exploit the client for financial gain of the
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veterinarian.
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BB. Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for |
professional services.
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CC. Practicing under a false or, except as provided by |
law, an assumed
name.
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DD. Violating state or federal laws or regulations |
relating to controlled substances or legend drugs.
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EE. Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing |
examination
administered under this Act.
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FF. Using, prescribing, or selling a prescription drug |
or the
extra-label use of a prescription drug by any means |
in the absence of a valid
veterinarian-client-patient |
relationship.
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GG. Failing to report a case of suspected aggravated |
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cruelty, torture,
or
animal fighting pursuant to Section |
3.07 or 4.01 of the Humane Care for
Animals Act or Section |
26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal |
Code of 2012.
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All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within |
60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine |
or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing |
the fine. |
2. The determination by a circuit court that a licensee or |
certificate
holder is subject to involuntary admission or |
judicial admission as provided in
the Mental Health and |
Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic
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suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a |
court that the
patient is no longer subject to involuntary |
admission or judicial admission and
issues an order so finding |
and discharging the patient. In any case where a license is |
suspended under this provision, the licensee shall file a |
petition for restoration and shall include evidence acceptable |
to the Department that the licensee can resume practice in |
compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of his or |
her profession.
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3. All proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on |
probationary status, or
take any other disciplinary action as |
the Department may deem proper, with
regard to a license or |
certificate on any of the foregoing grounds, must be
commenced |
within 5 years after receipt by the Department of a complaint
|
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alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order |
for any of the
acts described in this Section. Except for |
proceedings brought for violations
of items (CC), (DD), or |
(EE), no action shall be commenced more than 5 years
after the |
date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this |
Section.
In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause |
of action in favor of the
claimant or the reduction to final |
judgment of any civil action in favor of the
plaintiff, the |
claim, cause of action, or civil action being grounded on the
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allegation that a person licensed or certified under this Act |
was negligent in
providing care, the Department shall have an |
additional period of one year from
the date of the settlement |
or final judgment in which to investigate and begin
formal |
disciplinary proceedings under Section 25.2 of this Act, |
except as
otherwise provided by law. The time during which the |
holder of the license or
certificate was outside the State of |
Illinois shall not be included within any
period of time |
limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the
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Department.
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4. The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend |
without hearing, as provided for in the Illinois Code of Civil |
Procedure,
the license of any person who fails to file a |
return, to pay the tax, penalty,
or interest
shown in a filed |
return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or
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interest as
required by any tax Act administered by the |
Illinois Department of Revenue, until such
time as
the |
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requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance |
with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil |
Administrative Code of Illinois.
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5. In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a |
showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who |
is registered under this Act or any individual who has applied |
for registration to submit to a mental or physical examination |
or evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or |
sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the Department. |
The Department shall specifically designate the examining |
physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches |
or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in |
providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation. |
The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician |
licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may |
consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed |
to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed |
chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, |
licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical |
professional counselors, and other professional and |
administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the |
multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to |
submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this |
Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing |
deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation |
process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, |
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urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological |
testing. |
The Department may order the examining physician or any |
member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the |
Department any and all records, including business records, |
that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any |
supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the |
examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary |
team to present testimony concerning this examination and |
evaluation of the registrant or applicant, including testimony |
concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to |
the examination and evaluation. No information, report, |
record, or other documents in any way related to the |
examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any |
common law or statutory privilege relating to communication |
between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician |
or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization |
is necessary from the registrant or applicant ordered to |
undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining |
physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to |
provide information, reports, records, or other documents or |
to provide any testimony regarding the examination and |
evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or |
her own expense, another physician of his or her choice |
present during all aspects of the examination. |
Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical |
|
examination or evaluation, or both, when directed, shall |
result in an automatic suspension without hearing, until such |
time as the individual submits to the examination. If the |
Department finds a registrant unable to practice because of |
the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department shall |
require such registrant to submit to care, counseling, or |
treatment by physicians approved or designated by the |
Department as a condition for continued, reinstated, or |
renewed registration. |
In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a |
registration under this Section, a hearing upon such person's |
registration must be convened by the Department within 15 days |
after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. |
The Department shall have the authority to review the |
registrant's record of treatment and counseling regarding the |
impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal |
statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of |
medical records. |
Individuals registered under this Act who are affected |
under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to |
demonstrate to the Department that they can resume practice in |
compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the |
provisions of their registration.
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6. (Blank). |
7. In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family |
Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential |
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licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of |
child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency |
to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew |
or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take |
other disciplinary action against that person based solely |
upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department |
of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with paragraph |
(5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil |
Administrative Code of Illinois. |
(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 100-872, eff. 8-14-18.)
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(225 ILCS 115/25.2) (from Ch. 111, par. 7025.2)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 25.2. Investigation; notice and hearing. The |
Department may investigate the
actions of any applicant or of |
any person or persons holding or claiming to
hold a license or |
certificate. The Department shall, before refusing to issue,
|
to renew or discipline a license or certificate under Section |
25, at least 30
days prior to the date set for the hearing, |
notify the applicant or licensee in writing of the nature of |
the charges and
the time and place for a hearing on the |
charges. The Department shall direct
the applicant, |
certificate holder, or licensee to file a written answer to |
the charges with the
Board under oath within 20 days after the |
service of the notice and inform the
applicant, certificate |
holder, or licensee that failure to file an answer will
result |
|
in default being taken against the applicant, certificate |
holder, or
licensee. At the time and place fixed in the notice, |
the Department shall proceed to hear the charges and the |
parties or their counsel shall be accorded ample opportunity |
to present any pertinent statements, testimony, evidence, and |
arguments. The Department may continue the hearing from time |
to time. In case the person, after receiving the notice, fails |
to file an answer, his or her license may, in the discretion of |
the Department, be revoked, suspended, placed on probationary |
status, or the Department may take whatever disciplinary |
action considered proper, including limiting the scope, |
nature, or extent of the person's practice or the imposition |
of a fine, without a hearing, if the act or acts charged |
constitute sufficient grounds for that action under the Act. |
The written notice and any notice in the subsequent proceeding |
may be served by registered or certified mail to the |
licensee's address of record or, if in the course of the |
administrative proceeding the party has previously designated |
a specific email address at which to accept electronic service |
for that specific proceeding, by sending a copy by email to an |
email address on record .
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(Source: P.A. 98-339, eff. 12-31-13.)
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(225 ILCS 115/25.6) (from Ch. 111, par. 7025.6)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 25.6. Board report. At the conclusion of the hearing |
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the Board
shall present to the Secretary a written report of |
its findings of fact,
conclusions of law, and recommendations. |
The report shall contain a finding
whether or not the accused |
person violated this Act or failed to comply with
the |
conditions required in this Act. The Board shall specify the |
nature of the
violation or failure to comply, and shall make |
its recommendations to the Secretary.
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The report of findings of fact, conclusions of law and |
recommendation of
the Board shall be the basis for the |
Secretary's Department's order for refusing to issue, restore, |
or renew a license, or otherwise disciplining a licensee, or |
for
the granting of a license, certificate, or permit. If the |
Secretary disagrees
in any regard with the report of the |
Board, then the Secretary may issue an order in
contravention |
thereof. The finding is not admissible in evidence
against the |
person in a criminal prosecution brought for the violation of |
this
Act, but the hearing and finding are not a bar to a |
criminal prosecution
brought for the violation of this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-339, eff. 12-31-13.)
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(225 ILCS 115/25.7) (from Ch. 111, par. 7025.7)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 25.7. Motion for rehearing; procedure upon refusal to |
license or issue certificate. In
any hearing involving the |
refusal to issue, renew, or
discipline a license or |
certificate, a copy of the Board's report shall be
served upon |
|
the respondent by the Department, either personally or as |
provided
in this Act for the service of the notice of hearing. |
Within 20 days after
service, the respondent may present to |
the Secretary Department a motion in writing for a
rehearing. |
The motion shall specify the particular grounds for the |
rehearing.
If no motion for rehearing is filed, then upon the |
expiration of the time
specified for filing a motion, or if a |
motion for rehearing is denied, then
upon the denial, then the |
Secretary may enter an order in accordance with
|
recommendations of the Board except as provided in Section |
25.6 of this Act.
If the respondent orders from the reporting |
service, and pays for a transcript
of the record within the |
time for filing a motion for rehearing, the 20-day 20 day
|
period within which such a motion may be filed shall commence |
upon the delivery
of the transcript to the respondent.
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(Source: P.A. 98-339, eff. 12-31-13.)
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(225 ILCS 115/25.9) (from Ch. 111, par. 7025.9)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 25.9. Hearing officers; reports; review. The |
Secretary shall have the authority
to appoint any attorney |
duly licensed to practice law in the State of Illinois
to serve |
as the hearing officer in any action for refusal to issue, |
renew, or
discipline of a license, certificate, or permit. The |
hearing officer shall have full authority to
conduct the |
hearing. The hearing officer shall report his or her findings |
|
of
fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations to the Board |
and the Secretary .
The Board shall have 60 days from receipt of |
the report to review the report of
the hearing officer and |
present its findings of fact, conclusions of law, and
|
recommendations to the Secretary. If the Board fails to |
present its report
within the 60-day 60 day period, then the |
Secretary may issue an order based on the report
of the hearing |
officer. If the Secretary disagrees with the
recommendation of |
the Board or hearing officer, then the Secretary may issue an |
order in
contravention of the report.
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(Source: P.A. 98-339, eff. 12-31-13.)
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(225 ILCS 115/25.15) (from Ch. 111, par. 7025.15)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 25.15. Certification of record. The Department shall |
not be
required to certify any record
to the Court or file any |
answer in court or otherwise appear in any court
in a judicial |
review proceeding, unless and until the Department has |
received from the plaintiff payment of the
costs of furnishing |
and certifying the record, which costs shall be determined by |
the Department. Exhibits shall be certified without cost. |
Failure on the part of
the plaintiff to file a receipt in Court |
shall be grounds for
dismissal
of the action.
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(Source: P.A. 98-339, eff. 12-31-13.)
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(225 ILCS 115/25.17)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 25.17. Disclosure of patient records; maintenance. |
(a) No veterinarian shall be required to
disclose any |
information concerning the veterinarian's care of an animal |
except
on written authorization or other waiver by the |
veterinarian's client or on
appropriate court order or |
subpoena. Any veterinarian releasing information
under written |
authorization, or other waiver by the client, or court order |
of
subpoena is not liable to the client or any other person. |
The privilege
provided by this Section is waived to the extent |
that the veterinarian's client
or the owner of the animal |
places the care and treatment or the nature and
extent of |
injuries to the animal at issue in any civil or criminal |
proceeding.
When communicable disease laws, cruelty to animal |
laws, or laws providing for
public health and safety are |
involved, the privilege provided by this Section
is waived.
|
(b) Copies of patient records must be released to the |
client upon written request as provided for by rule. |
(c) Each person who provides veterinary medical services |
shall maintain appropriate patient records as defined by rule. |
The patient records are the property of the practice and the |
practice owner. Patient records shall, if applicable, include |
the following: |
(1) patient identification; |
(2) client identification; |
(3) dated reason for visit and pertinent history; |
|
(4) physical exam findings; |
(5) diagnostic, medical, surgical or therapeutic |
procedures performed; |
(6) all medical treatment must include identification |
of each medication given in the practice, together with |
the date, dosage, and route of administration and |
frequency and duration of treatment; |
(7) all medicines dispensed or prescribed must be |
recorded, including directions for use and quantity; |
(8) any changes in medications or dosages, including |
telephonically or electronically initiated changes, must |
be recorded; |
(9) if a necropsy is performed, then the record must |
reflect the findings; |
(10) any written records and notes, radiographs, |
sonographic images, video recordings, photographs or other |
images, and laboratory reports; |
(11) other information received as the result of |
consultation; |
(12) identification of any designated agent of the |
client for the purpose of authorizing veterinary medical |
or animal health care decisions; and |
(13) any authorizations, releases, waivers, or other |
related documents. |
(d) Patient records must be maintained for a minimum of 5 |
years from the date of the last known contact with a an animal |
|
patient. |
(e) Information and records related to patient care shall |
remain confidential except as provided in subsections (a) and |
(b) of this Section. |
(Source: P.A. 96-1322, eff. 7-27-10 .)
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(225 ILCS 115/27) (from Ch. 111, par. 7027)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 27. Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois |
Administrative Procedure
Act is hereby expressly adopted and |
incorporated into this Act as if all of the
provisions of that |
Act were included in this Act, except that the provision of
|
subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois Administrative |
Procedure Act
that provides that at hearings the licensee or |
certificate holder has the right
to show compliance with all |
lawful requirements for retention,
continuation, or renewal of |
the license or certificate is specifically
excluded. For the |
purpose of this Act the notice required
under Section 10-25 of |
the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act
is considered |
sufficient when mailed to the last known address of record or |
sent electronically to the last known email address of record .
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(Source: P.A. 98-339, eff. 12-31-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 115/23 rep.)
|
Section 15. The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice |
Act of 2004 is amended by repealing Section 23. |
|
Section 20. The Landscape Architecture Registration Act is |
amended by changing Section 10 and by adding Section 53 as |
follows: |
(225 ILCS 316/10) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)
|
Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act: |
"Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
by the Department in the applicant's application file or |
registrant's registration file as maintained by the |
Department. |
"Board" means the Registered Landscape Architecture |
Registration Board. |
"Department" means the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation. |
"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address of record by the Department in the applicant's |
application file or registrant's registration file as |
maintained by the Department. |
"Landscape architecture" means the art and science of |
arranging land, together with the spaces and objects upon it, |
for the purpose of creating a safe, efficient, healthful, and |
aesthetically pleasing physical environment for human use and |
enjoyment, as performed by landscape architects. |
"Landscape architectural practice" means the offering or |
|
furnishing of professional services in connection with a |
landscape architecture project that do not require the seal of |
an architect, land surveyor, professional engineer, or |
structural engineer. These services may include, but are not |
limited to, providing preliminary studies; developing design |
concepts; planning for the relationships of physical |
improvements and intended uses of the site; establishing form |
and aesthetic elements; developing those technical details on |
the site that are exclusive of any building or structure; |
preparing and coordinating technical submissions; and |
conducting site observation of a landscape architecture |
project. |
"Registered landscape architect" means a person who, based |
on education, experience, and examination in the field of |
landscape architecture, is registered under this Act. |
"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
Professional Regulation. The Secretary may designate his or |
her duties under this Act to a designee of his or her choice, |
including, but not limited to, the Director of Professional |
Regulation.
|
(Source: P.A. 102-284, eff. 8-6-21.) |
(225 ILCS 316/53 new) |
Sec. 53. Continuing education. The Department may adopt |
rules of continuing education for persons registered under |
this Act. The Department shall consider the recommendations of |
|
the Board in establishing the guidelines for the continuing |
education requirements. The requirements of this Section apply |
to any person seeking renewal or restoration under Section 50. |
Section 25. The Electrologist Licensing Act is amended by |
changing Sections 10, 32, 40, 90, and 120 and by adding Section |
12 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 412/10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
|
"Address of Record" means the designated address recorded |
by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application |
file or license file as maintained by the Department's |
licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or |
licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, |
and those changes must be made either through the Department's |
website or by contacting the Department. |
"Department" means the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation.
|
"Electrologist" means an individual licensed to practice |
electrology pursuant
to the provisions of this Act.
|
"Electrology" means the practice or teaching of services |
for
permanent hair removal
utilizing only solid probe |
electrode type epilation, which may include
thermolysis |
(shortwave, high frequency), electrolysis (galvanic), or a
|
|
combination of both (superimposed or sequential blend). |
"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
application file or in a licensee's license file, as |
maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.
|
"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
Professional Regulation. |
(Source: P.A. 98-363, eff. 8-16-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 412/12 new) |
Sec. 12. Address of record and email address of record. |
All applicants and licensees shall: |
(1) provide a valid physical address and email address |
to the Department, which shall serve as the address of |
record and email address of record, respectively, at the |
time of application for licensure or renewal of a license; |
and |
(2) inform the Department of any change of address of |
record or email address of record within 14 days. Those |
changes must be made either through the Department's |
website or by contacting the Department through the |
Department's licensure maintenance unit.
|
(225 ILCS 412/32)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 32. Social Security number or individual taxpayer |
|
identification number on license application. In addition to |
any
other information required to be contained in the |
application, every
application for an
original license under |
this Act shall include the
applicant's social
security number |
or individual taxpayer identification number , which shall be |
retained in the agency's records pertaining to the license. As |
soon as practical, the Department shall assign a customer's |
identification number to each applicant for a license. |
Every application for a renewed, reinstated, or restored |
license shall require the applicant's customer identification |
number.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-400, eff. 1-1-12; 98-363, eff. 8-16-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 412/40)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 40. Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois |
Administrative
Procedure Act is hereby expressly
adopted and |
incorporated in this Act as if all of the provisions of
the |
Illinois Administrative Procedure Act
where included in this |
Act, except that the provision of paragraph (d) of
Section |
10-65 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, which |
provides
that at hearings the licensee has the right to show |
compliance with all
lawful requirements for retention, |
continuation, or renewal of the
license, is specifically |
excluded. For the purposes of this Act, the
notice required |
under Section 10-25 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure
|
|
Act is considered to be sufficient when mailed to the |
licensee's address of record or email address of record .
|
(Source: P.A. 98-363, eff. 8-16-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 412/90)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 90. Investigations; notice and hearing.
|
(a) The Department may investigate the actions of an |
applicant or a person
holding or claiming to hold a license.
|
(b) Before refusing to issue or renew a license or take any |
disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against
a licensed |
electrologist pursuant to Section 75 of this Act,
the |
Department shall notify in writing the applicant
or the |
licensee of the nature of the charges and that a hearing will |
be held on
the
date designated, which shall be at least 30 days
|
after
the date of the notice.
The Department shall direct the |
applicant or licensee
to
file a written answer to the |
Department under oath within 20 days after the
service
of
the |
notice and inform the applicant or licensee that failure to |
file
an answer will result
in
default being taken against the |
applicant or licensee and that the
license may be suspended, |
revoked, placed on probationary status, or other
disciplinary |
or non-disciplinary action may be taken, including limiting |
the scope, nature, or
extent of
business as the Secretary may |
deem proper. Written notice may be served by
certified or |
registered mail sent to the licensee's address of record.
|
|
The written notice and any notice in the subsequent |
proceeding may be served electronically to the licensee's |
email address of record, or, if in the course of the |
administrative proceeding the party has previously designated |
a specific email address at which to accept electronic service |
for that specific proceeding, by sending a copy by email to the |
email address on record. |
If the applicant
or licensee fails to file
an
answer after |
receiving notice, the license may, in the
discretion of
the |
Department, be suspended, revoked, or placed on probationary |
status, or the
Department may take whatever disciplinary |
action considered proper including limiting the scope, nature, |
or extent of the person's practice or the imposition of a fine, |
without a hearing if the act or acts charged
constitute
|
sufficient grounds
for such action under this Act.
|
At the time and place fixed in the
notice,
the Department |
shall proceed to hear the charges, and the parties or their
|
counsel
shall
be accorded ample opportunity to present any |
pertinent statements, testimony, evidence,
and argument. The
|
Department
may continue a hearing from time to time.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-363, eff. 8-16-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 412/120)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 120. Motion for rehearing. In any case involving the |
refusal to
issue or renew a license,
or the
discipline of a |
|
licensee, a copy of the hearing officer's report shall be
|
served
upon
the respondent by the Secretary Department , either |
personally or as provided in this
Act for the service of the |
notice of hearing. Within 20 days after
service, the |
respondent may present to the Department a motion in writing
|
for a rehearing which shall specify the particular grounds
for |
rehearing. If no motion for rehearing is filed, then upon the |
expiration
of
the time specified for filing a motion, or if a |
motion for rehearing
is denied, then upon denial, the |
Secretary may enter an order in
accordance with the |
recommendation of the hearing officer.
If the respondent |
orders from the reporting
service, and pays for a transcript |
of the record within the time for filing
a motion for |
rehearing, the 20-day period within which a motion may be
|
filed shall commence upon the delivery of the transcript to |
the respondent.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-363, eff. 8-16-13.)
|
Section 30. The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private |
Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and
Locksmith Act of 2004 is |
amended by changing Sections 5-10, 10-5, 10-20, 10-37, 10-45, |
15-5, 15-10, 15-15, 15-25, 20-10, 20-15, 20-20, 25-5, 25-10, |
25-15, 25-20, 25-30, 30-5, 30-10, 30-15, 30-20, 30-30, 31-5, |
31-10, 31-15, 31-20, 35-5, 35-10, 35-15, 35-25, 35-30, 35-35, |
35-43, 35-45, 40-5, 40-10, 40-20, 40-25, 40-30, 45-10, 45-15, |
45-40, 45-55, 50-5, 50-10, 50-15, 50-20, and 50-45 as follows:
|
|
(225 ILCS 447/5-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 5-10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
|
"Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
by the Department in the applicant's application file or the |
licensee's license file, as maintained by the Department's |
licensure maintenance unit. |
"Advertisement" means any public media, including printed |
or electronic material, that is published or displayed in a |
phone book,
newspaper, magazine, pamphlet, newsletter, |
website, or other similar type of publication or electronic |
format
that is
intended to either attract business or merely |
provide contact information to
the public for
an agency or |
licensee. Advertisement shall not include a licensee's or an
|
agency's
letterhead, business cards, or other stationery used |
in routine business
correspondence or
customary name, address, |
and number type listings in a telephone directory.
|
"Alarm system" means any system, including an electronic |
access control
system, a
surveillance video system, a security |
video system, a burglar alarm system, a
fire alarm
system, or |
any other electronic system that activates an audible, |
visible,
remote, or
recorded signal that is designed for the |
protection or detection of intrusion,
entry, theft,
fire, |
vandalism, escape, or trespass, or other electronic systems |
designed for the protection of life by indicating the |
|
existence of an emergency situation. "Alarm system" also |
includes an emergency communication system and a mass |
notification system.
|
"Applicant" means a person or business applying for |
licensure, registration, or authorization under this Act. Any |
applicant or person who holds oneself himself or herself out |
as an applicant is considered a licensee or registrant for the |
purposes of enforcement, investigation, hearings, and the |
Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. |
"Armed employee" means a licensee or registered person who |
is employed by an
agency licensed or an armed proprietary |
security force registered under this
Act who carries a weapon |
while engaged in the
performance
of official duties within the |
course and scope of the employee's his or her employment |
during
the hours
and times the employee is scheduled to work or |
is commuting between the employee's his or her
home or
place of |
employment.
|
"Armed proprietary security force" means a security force |
made up of one or
more
armed individuals employed by a |
commercial or industrial operation or
by a financial |
institution as security officers
for the
protection of persons |
or property.
|
"Board" means the Private Detective, Private Alarm, |
Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and
Locksmith Board.
|
"Branch office" means a business location removed from the |
place of business
for which an agency license has been issued, |
|
including, but not limited to,
locations where active employee |
records that are required to be maintained
under this Act are |
kept, where prospective new
employees
are processed, or where |
members of the public are invited in to transact
business. A
|
branch office does not include an office or other facility |
located on the
property of an
existing client that is utilized |
solely for the benefit of that client and is
not owned or
|
leased by the agency.
|
"Canine handler" means a person who uses or handles a |
trained dog
to protect persons or property or
to conduct |
investigations. |
"Canine handler authorization card" means a card issued by |
the Department that authorizes
the holder to use or handle a |
trained dog to protect persons or property or to conduct
|
investigations during the performance of the holder's his or |
her duties as specified in this Act. |
"Canine trainer" means a person who acts as a dog trainer |
for the purpose of training dogs to protect
persons or |
property or to conduct investigations. |
"Canine trainer authorization card" means a card issued by |
the Department that authorizes the
holder to train a dog to |
protect persons or property or to conduct investigations |
during the
performance of the holder's his or her duties as |
specified in this Act. |
"Canine training facility" means a facility operated by a |
licensed private detective agency or private
security |
|
contractor agency wherein dogs are trained for the purposes of |
protecting persons or property or to
conduct investigations.
|
"Corporation" means an artificial person or legal entity |
created by or under
the
authority of the laws of a state, |
including without limitation a corporation,
limited liability |
company, or any other legal entity.
|
"Department" means the Department of Financial and
|
Professional Regulation.
|
"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained |
by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. |
"Emergency communication system" means any system that |
communicates information about emergencies, including but not |
limited to fire, terrorist activities, shootings, other |
dangerous situations, accidents, and natural disasters. |
"Employee" means a person who works for a person or agency |
that has the
right to
control the details of the work performed |
and is not dependent upon whether or
not
federal or state |
payroll taxes are withheld.
|
"Fingerprint vendor" means a person that offers, |
advertises, or provides services to fingerprint individuals, |
through electronic or other means, for the purpose of |
providing fingerprint images and associated demographic data |
to the Illinois State Police for processing fingerprint based |
criminal history record information inquiries. |
|
"Fingerprint vendor agency" means a person, firm, |
corporation, or other legal entity that engages in the |
fingerprint vendor business and employs, in addition to the |
fingerprint vendor licensee-in-charge, at least one other |
person in conducting that business. |
"Fingerprint vendor licensee-in-charge" means a person who |
has been designated by a fingerprint vendor agency to be the |
licensee-in-charge of an agency who is a full-time management |
employee or owner who assumes sole responsibility for |
maintaining all records required by this Act and who assumes |
sole responsibility for assuring the licensed agency's |
compliance with its responsibilities as stated in this Act. |
The Department shall adopt rules mandating licensee-in-charge |
participation in agency affairs.
|
"Fire alarm system" means any system that is activated by |
an automatic or
manual device in the detection of smoke, heat, |
or fire that activates an
audible, visible, or
remote signal |
requiring a response.
|
"Firearm control card" means a card issued by the |
Department that
authorizes
the holder, who has complied with |
the training and other requirements of this Act, to carry a |
weapon during the performance of the holder's his or her |
duties as
specified in
this Act.
|
"Firm" means an unincorporated business entity, including |
but not limited to
proprietorships and partnerships.
|
"Licensee" means a person or business licensed under this |
|
Act. Anyone who holds oneself himself or herself out as a |
licensee or who is accused of unlicensed practice is |
considered a licensee for purposes of enforcement, |
investigation, hearings, and the Illinois Administrative |
Procedure Act. |
"Locksmith" means
a person who engages in a business or |
holds oneself himself out to the public as
providing a service |
that includes, but is not limited to, the servicing,
|
installing, originating first keys, re-coding, repairing, |
maintaining,
manipulating, or bypassing of a mechanical or |
electronic locking device, access
control or video |
surveillance system at premises, vehicles, safes, vaults, safe
|
deposit boxes, or automatic teller machines.
|
"Locksmith agency" means a person, firm, corporation, or |
other legal entity
that engages
in the
locksmith business and |
employs, in addition to the locksmith
licensee-in-charge, at |
least
one other person in conducting such business.
|
"Locksmith licensee-in-charge" means a person who has been |
designated by
agency to be the licensee-in-charge of an |
agency,
who is a
full-time management employee or owner who |
assumes sole responsibility
for
maintaining all records |
required by this Act, and who assumes sole
responsibility for
|
assuring the licensed agency's compliance with its |
responsibilities as stated
in this Act. The Department shall |
adopt rules mandating licensee-in-charge
participation in |
agency affairs.
|
|
"Mass notification system" means any system that is used |
to provide information and instructions to people in a |
building or other space using voice communications, including |
visible signals, text, graphics, tactile, or other |
communication methods. |
"Peace officer" or "police officer" means a person who, by |
virtue of office
or
public
employment, is vested by law with a |
duty to maintain public order or to make
arrests for
offenses, |
whether that duty extends to all offenses or is limited to |
specific
offenses.
Officers, agents, or employees of the |
federal government commissioned by
federal
statute
to make |
arrests for violations of federal laws are considered peace |
officers.
|
"Permanent employee registration card" means a card issued |
by the Department
to an
individual who has applied to the |
Department and meets the requirements for
employment by a |
licensed agency under this Act.
|
"Person" means a natural person.
|
"Private alarm contractor" means a person who engages in a |
business that
individually or through others undertakes, |
offers to undertake, purports to
have the
capacity to |
undertake, or submits a bid to sell, install, design, monitor, |
maintain, test, inspect,
alter, repair,
replace, or service |
alarm and other security-related systems or parts thereof,
|
including fire
alarm systems, at protected premises or |
premises to be protected or responds to
alarm
systems at a |
|
protected premises on an emergency basis and not as a |
full-time
security officer. "Private alarm contractor" does |
not include a person, firm,
or
corporation that
manufactures |
or sells alarm systems
only from its place of business and does |
not sell, install, monitor, maintain,
alter, repair, replace, |
service, or respond to alarm systems at protected
premises or |
premises to be protected.
|
"Private alarm contractor agency" means a person, |
corporation, or other
entity
that
engages in the private alarm |
contracting business and employs, in addition to
the private
|
alarm contractor-in-charge, at least one other person in |
conducting such
business.
|
"Private alarm contractor licensee-in-charge" means a |
person who has been
designated by an
agency to be the |
licensee-in-charge of an agency, who is a full-time management
|
employee or owner who
assumes sole
responsibility for |
maintaining all records required by this Act, and who
assumes
|
sole
responsibility for assuring the licensed agency's |
compliance with its
responsibilities as
stated in this Act.
|
The Department shall adopt rules mandating licensee-in-charge |
participation in
agency affairs.
|
"Private detective" means any person who by any means, |
including, but not
limited to, manual, canine odor detection,
|
or electronic methods, engages in the business of, accepts
|
employment
to furnish, or agrees to make or makes |
investigations for a fee or other
consideration to
obtain |
|
information relating to:
|
(1) Crimes or wrongs done or threatened against the |
United States, any
state or
territory of the United |
States, or any local government of a state or
territory.
|
(2) The identity, habits, conduct, business |
occupation, honesty,
integrity,
credibility, knowledge, |
trustworthiness, efficiency, loyalty, activity,
|
movements, whereabouts, affiliations, associations, |
transactions, acts,
reputation, or character of any |
person, firm, or other entity by any means,
manual or |
electronic.
|
(3) The location, disposition, or recovery of lost or |
stolen property.
|
(4) The cause, origin, or responsibility for fires, |
accidents, or injuries
to
individuals or real or personal |
property.
|
(5) The truth or falsity of any statement or |
representation.
|
(6) Securing evidence to be used before any court, |
board, or investigating
body.
|
(7) The protection of individuals from bodily harm or |
death (bodyguard
functions).
|
(8) Service of process in criminal and civil |
proceedings.
|
"Private detective agency" means a person, firm, |
corporation, or other legal
entity that engages
in the
private |
|
detective business and employs, in addition to the |
licensee-in-charge,
one or more
persons in conducting such |
business.
|
"Private detective licensee-in-charge" means a person who |
has been designated
by an agency
to be the licensee-in-charge |
of an
agency,
who is a full-time management employee or owner
|
who assumes sole
responsibility
for
maintaining all records |
required by this Act, and who assumes sole
responsibility
for |
assuring
the licensed agency's compliance with its |
responsibilities as stated in this
Act. The Department shall |
adopt rules mandating licensee-in-charge
participation in |
agency affairs.
|
"Private security contractor" means a person who engages |
in the business of
providing a private security officer, |
watchman, patrol, guard dog, canine odor detection, or a |
similar service by
any other
title or name on a contractual |
basis for another person, firm, corporation, or
other entity
|
for a fee or other consideration and performing one or more of |
the following
functions:
|
(1) The prevention or detection of intrusion, entry, |
theft, vandalism,
abuse, fire,
or trespass on private or |
governmental property.
|
(2) The prevention, observation, or detection of any |
unauthorized activity
on
private or governmental property.
|
(3) The protection of persons authorized to be on the |
premises of the
person,
firm, or other entity for which |
|
the security contractor contractually provides
security |
services.
|
(4) The prevention of the misappropriation or |
concealment of goods, money,
bonds, stocks, notes, |
documents, or papers.
|
(5) The control, regulation, or direction of the |
movement of the public
for
the
time specifically required |
for the protection of property owned or controlled
by the |
client.
|
(6) The protection of individuals from bodily harm or |
death (bodyguard
functions).
|
"Private security contractor agency" means a person, firm, |
corporation, or
other legal entity that
engages in
the private |
security contractor business and that employs, in addition to |
the
licensee-in-charge, one or more persons in conducting such |
business.
|
"Private security contractor licensee-in-charge" means a |
person who has been
designated by an agency to be the
|
licensee-in-charge of an
agency, who is a full-time management |
employee or owner
who assumes sole responsibility for |
maintaining all records required by this
Act, and who
assumes |
sole responsibility for assuring the licensed agency's |
compliance with
its
responsibilities as
stated in this Act. |
The Department shall adopt rules mandating
licensee-in-charge |
participation in agency affairs.
|
"Public member" means a person who is not a licensee or |
|
related to a
licensee, or who is not an employer or employee of |
a licensee. The term
"related to" shall be determined by the |
rules of the Department.
|
"Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department of |
Financial and Professional Regulation.
|
(Source: P.A. 102-152, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; |
102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/10-5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 10-5. Requirement of license.
|
(a) It is unlawful for a person to act as or provide the |
functions of a
private detective, private security contractor, |
private alarm contractor, fingerprint vendor, or
locksmith or |
to advertise or to assume to act as any one of these, or to use
|
these or any other title implying that the person is engaged in |
any of these
activities unless licensed as such by the |
Department. An individual or sole
proprietor who does not |
employ any employees other than himself or herself may
operate |
under a "doing business as" or assumed name certification |
without
having to obtain an agency license, so long as the |
assumed name is first
registered with the Department.
|
(b) It is unlawful for a person, firm, corporation, or |
other legal entity
to act as an agency licensed under this Act, |
to advertise, or to assume to
act as a licensed agency or to |
use a title implying that the person, firm, or
other entity is |
|
engaged in the practice as a private detective agency, private
|
security contractor agency, private alarm contractor agency, |
fingerprint vendor agency, or locksmith
agency unless licensed |
by the Department.
|
(c) No agency shall operate a branch office without first |
applying for and
receiving a branch office license for each |
location.
|
(d) It Beginning 12 months after the adoption of rules |
providing for the licensure of fingerprint vendors under this |
Act, it is unlawful for a person to operate live scan |
fingerprint equipment or other equipment designed to obtain |
fingerprint images for the purpose of providing fingerprint |
images and associated demographic data to the Illinois State |
Police, unless the person he or she has successfully completed |
a fingerprint training course conducted or authorized by the |
Illinois State Police and is licensed as a fingerprint vendor.
|
(e) No Beginning 12 months after the adoption of rules |
providing for the licensure of canine handlers and canine |
trainers under this Act, no person shall operate a canine |
training facility unless licensed as a private detective
|
agency or private security contractor agency under this Act, |
and no person shall act as a canine trainer unless the person |
he or she is licensed as a private detective or private |
security contractor or is a registered employee of a private |
detective agency or private security contractor agency |
approved by the Department. |
|
(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/10-20)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 10-20. Application for license; forms.
|
(a) Each license application shall be on forms provided by |
the Department.
|
(b) Application for a license by endorsement shall be
made
|
in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-40.
|
(c) Every application for an original license shall
|
include the
applicant's Social Security number or individual |
taxpayer identification number , which shall be retained in the |
agency's records pertaining to the license. As soon as |
practical, the Department shall assign a customer's |
identification number to each applicant for a license. |
Every application for a renewal or restored license shall |
require the applicant's customer identification number.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-400, eff. 1-1-12 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/10-37) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 10-37. Address of record ; email address of record . |
All applicants and licensees shall: |
(1) provide a valid address and email address to the |
Department, which serves as the address of record and |
email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
|
application for licensure or renewal of a license; and |
(2) It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to |
inform the Department of any change of address within 14 |
days after such change either through the Department's |
website or by contacting the Department's licensure |
maintenance unit.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-1445, eff. 8-20-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/10-45)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 10-45. Emergency care without a fee. A license
|
holder, agency, or registered employee of a private security
|
contractor, as defined in Section 5-10 of this Act, who in
good |
faith provides emergency care without fee to any person
or |
takes actions in good faith that directly relate to the
|
employee's job responsibilities to protect people and
|
property, as defined by the areas in which registered security
|
officers receive training under Sections 20-20 and 25-20 shall
|
not, as a result of those his or her acts or omissions, except
|
willful and wanton misconduct, in providing the care, be
|
liable to a person to whom such care is provided for civil
|
damages.
|
(Source: P.A. 93-438, eff. 8-5-03 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/15-5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
|
Sec. 15-5. Exemptions; private detective. The provisions
|
of this Act relating to the licensure of private detectives do
|
not apply to any of the following:
|
(1) An employee of the United States, Illinois, or a
|
political subdivision of either while the employee is |
engaged
in the performance of the employee's his or her |
official duties within the
scope of the employee's his or |
her employment. However, any such person who
offers his or |
her services as a private detective or uses a
similar |
title when these services are performed for
compensation |
or other consideration, whether received directly
or |
indirectly, is subject to this Act.
|
(2) A person, firm, or other entity engaged |
exclusively
in tracing and compiling lineage or ancestry |
who does not hold
oneself himself or herself out to be a |
private detective.
|
(3) A person engaged exclusively in obtaining and
|
furnishing information, including providing reports, as to |
the financial rating or creditworthiness of
persons in
|
connection with (i) consumer credit transactions, (ii)
|
information for employment purposes, or (iii) information |
for
the underwriting of consumer insurance.
|
(4) Insurance adjusters employed or under contract as
|
adjusters who engage in no other investigative activities
|
other than those directly connected with adjustment of |
claims
against an insurance company or a self-insured |
|
entity by which
they are employed or with which they have a |
contract. No
insurance adjuster or company may use the |
term "investigation"
or any derivative thereof, in its |
name or in its advertising.
|
(5) A person, firm, or other entity engaged in
|
providing computer forensics services so long as the
|
person, firm, or other entity does not hold oneself |
himself or
herself out to be a private detective. For the |
purposes of
this item (5), "computer forensics services" |
means a
branch of forensic science pertaining to the |
recovery and
analysis of electronically stored |
information. |
(6) A person employed as an investigator exclusively
|
by only one employer in connection with the exclusive
|
activities of that employer and who does not hold oneself |
himself
or herself out to be a private detective. |
(7) A person appointed by the circuit court pursuant |
to the Code of Civil Procedure to make service of process |
in a specific case, provided that such person is not
|
otherwise engaged in the business of serving process. |
(8) A person appointed by the circuit court pursuant
|
to the Code of Civil Procedure who is an honorably
|
discharged veteran of the armed forces of the United |
States and is self-employed as a process server. |
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
|
(225 ILCS 447/15-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 15-10. Qualifications for licensure as a private
|
detective. |
(a) A person is qualified for licensure as a private
|
detective if the person he or she meets all of the following
|
requirements:
|
(1) Is at least 21 years of age.
|
(2) Has not been convicted of any felony in any
|
jurisdiction or at least 10 years have elapsed since the |
time
of full discharge from a sentence imposed for a |
felony
conviction.
|
(3) Is of good moral character. Good character is
a |
continuing requirement of licensure. Conviction of crimes
|
other than felonies may be used in determining moral
|
character, but shall not constitute an absolute bar to
|
licensure, except where the applicant is a registered sex |
offender.
|
(4) Has not been declared by any court of competent
|
jurisdiction to be incompetent by reason of mental or |
physical
defect or disease, unless a court has |
subsequently declared
him or her to be competent.
|
(5) Is not suffering from dependence on alcohol or
|
from narcotic addiction or dependence.
|
(6) Has a minimum of 3 years experience of the 5
years |
immediately preceding application working full-time for
a |
|
licensed private detective agency as a registered private
|
detective agency employee or with 3 years experience of |
the 5
years immediately preceding his or her application |
employed as
a full-time investigator for a licensed |
attorney, for an in-house investigative unit for a |
corporation having 100 or more employees, for any of the |
armed forces of the United States, or in a law
enforcement |
agency of the federal government, a state, or a state |
political
subdivision, which shall include a state's |
attorney's office
or a public defender's office. The Board |
and the Department
shall approve such full-time |
investigator experience and may accept, in lieu of the |
experience requirement in this item (6), alternative |
experience working full-time for a private detective |
agency licensed in another state or for a private |
detective agency in a state that does not license such |
agencies if the experience is substantially equivalent to |
that gained working for an Illinois licensed private |
detective agency. An
applicant who has a baccalaureate |
degree, or higher, in law
enforcement or a related field |
or a business degree from an
accredited college or |
university shall be given credit for 2
of the 3 years of |
the required experience. An applicant who
has an associate |
degree in law enforcement or in a related
field or in |
business from an accredited college or university
shall be |
given credit for one of the 3 years of the required
|
|
experience. An applicant who has completed a non-degree
|
military training program in law enforcement or a
related |
field shall be given credit for one of the 3 years
of the |
required experience if the Board and the Department
|
determine that such training is substantially equivalent
|
to that received in an associate degree program.
|
(7) Has not been dishonorably discharged from the
|
armed forces of the United States or has not been |
discharged
from a law enforcement agency of the United |
States or of any
state or of any political subdivision |
thereof, which shall
include a state's attorney's office, |
for reasons relating to his
or her conduct as an employee |
of that law enforcement agency.
|
(8) Has passed an examination authorized by the
|
Department.
|
(9) Submits the applicant's his or her fingerprints, |
proof of having
general liability insurance required under |
subsection (b), and
the required license fee.
|
(10) Has not violated Section 10-5 of this Act.
|
(b) It is the responsibility of the applicant to obtain
|
general liability insurance in an amount and coverage
|
appropriate for the applicant's circumstances as determined by
|
rule. The applicant shall provide evidence of insurance to
the |
Department before being issued a license. Failure to
maintain |
general liability insurance and to provide the
Department with |
written proof of the insurance shall result in
cancellation of |
|
the license without hearing.
|
(c) (Blank). Any person who has been providing canine odor |
detection services for hire prior to January 1, 2005 is exempt |
from the requirements of item (6) of subsection (a) of this |
Section and may be granted a private detective license if (i) |
he or she meets the requirements of items (1) through (5) and |
items (7) through (10) of subsection (a) of this Section, (ii) |
pays all applicable fees, and (iii) presents satisfactory |
evidence to the Department of the provision of canine odor |
detection services for hire since January 1, 2005.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/15-15)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 15-15. Qualifications for licensure as a private
|
detective agency. |
(a) Upon receipt of the required fee and proof that the
|
applicant has a full-time Illinois licensed private detective |
licensee-in-charge, which
is a continuing requirement for |
agency
licensure, the Department shall issue a
license as a |
private detective agency to any of the following:
|
(1) An individual who submits an application and is
a |
licensed private detective under this Act.
|
(2) A firm that submits an application and all of
the |
members of the firm are licensed private detectives under
|
this Act.
|
|
(3) A corporation or limited liability company
doing |
business in Illinois that is authorized to engage in the |
business of
conducting a private detective agency, |
provided at least one
full-time executive employee is |
licensed as a private
detective under this Act and all |
unlicensed
officers and directors of the corporation or |
limited liability
company are determined by the Department |
to be persons of good
moral character.
|
(b) No private detective may be the licensee-in-charge
for |
more than one private detective agency. Upon written
request |
by a representative of an agency, within 10 days after
the loss |
of a licensee-in-charge of an agency because of the
death of |
that individual or because of the termination of the
|
employment of that individual, the Department shall issue a
|
temporary certificate of authority allowing the continuing
|
operation of the licensed agency. No temporary certificate of
|
authority shall be valid for more than 90 days. An extension
of |
an additional 90 days may be granted upon written request
by |
the representative of the agency. Not more than 2
extensions |
may be granted to any agency. No temporary permit
shall be |
issued for a loss of the licensee-in-charge because
of |
disciplinary action by the Department related to
the |
licensee-in-charge's his or her conduct on behalf of the |
agency.
|
(c) Upon issuance of the temporary certificate of |
authority as provided for in subsection (b) of this Section, |
|
and at any time thereafter while the temporary certificate of |
authority is in effect, the Department may request in writing |
additional information from the agency regarding the loss of |
its licensee-in-charge, the selection of a new |
licensee-in-charge, and the management of the agency. Failure |
of the
agency to respond or respond to the satisfaction of the
|
Department shall cause the Department to deny any extension
of |
the temporary certificate of authority. While the
temporary |
certificate of authority is in effect, the
Department may |
disapprove the selection of a new licensee-in-charge
by the |
agency if the person's license is not operative
or the |
Department has good cause to believe that the person
selected |
will not fully exercise the responsibilities of a
|
licensee-in-charge. If the Department has disapproved the
|
selection of a new licensee-in-charge and the temporary
|
certificate of authority expires or is about to expire
without |
the agency selecting another new licensee-in-charge,
the |
Department shall grant an extension of the temporary
|
certificate of authority for an additional 90 days, except as
|
otherwise prohibited in subsection (b) or this subsection (c). |
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/15-25)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 15-25. Training; private detective and employees.
|
(a) Registered employees of a private detective agency
|
|
shall complete, within 30 days of their employment, a minimum
|
of 20 hours of basic training provided by a qualified |
instructor.
The substance of the training shall be related to |
the work
performed by the registered employee. The training |
may be classroom-based or online Internet-based but shall not |
be conducted as on-the-job training.
|
(a-5) In addition to the basic training required in |
subsection (a), registered employees of a private detective |
agency shall complete an additional minimum of 8 hours of |
annual training for every calendar year, commencing with the |
calendar year beginning after the employee's hire date. |
(a-10) Annual training for registered employees shall be |
based on subjects related to the work performed as determined |
by the employer and may be conducted in a classroom or seminar |
setting or via Internet-based online learning programs. Annual |
training may not be conducted as on-the-job training. |
(b) It is the responsibility of the employer to certify,
|
on a form provided by the Department, that the employee has
|
successfully completed the basic and annual training. The |
original form or a copy shall be a
permanent record of training |
completed by the employee and
shall be placed in the |
employee's file with the employer for
the period the employee |
remains with the employer. The original form or a copy shall be |
given to the employee when
the employee's his or her |
employment is terminated. Failure to return the
original form |
or a copy to the employee is grounds for disciplinary
action. |
|
The employee shall not be required to repeat the
required |
training once the employee has been issued the form.
An |
employer may provide or require additional training.
|
(c) (Blank).
|
(d) All private detectives shall complete a minimum of 8 |
hours of annual training on a topic of their choosing, |
provided that the subject matter is reasonably related to |
their private detective practice. The annual training for |
private detectives may be completed utilizing any combination |
of hours obtained in a classroom or seminar setting or via |
Internet-based online learning programs. The Department shall |
adopt rules to administer this subsection. |
(e) The annual training requirements for private |
detectives shall not apply until the calendar year following |
the issuance of the private detective license. |
(f) It shall be the responsibility of the private |
detective to keep and maintain a personal log of all training |
hours earned along with sufficient documentation for the |
Department to verify the annual training completed for at |
least 5 years. The personal training log and documentation |
shall be provided to the Department in the same manner as other |
documentation and records required under this Act. |
(g) If the private detective owns or is employed by a |
private detective agency, the private detective agency shall |
maintain a record of the annual training. The private |
detective agency must make the record of annual training |
|
available to the Department upon request. |
(h) Recognizing the diverse professional practices of |
private detectives licensed under this Act, it is the intent |
of the training requirements in this Section to allow for a |
broad interpretation of the coursework, seminar subjects, or |
class topics to be considered reasonably related to the |
practice of any profession licensed under this Act. |
(i) Notwithstanding any other professional license a |
private detective holds under this Act, no more than 8 hours of |
annual training shall be required for any one year. |
(Source: P.A. 102-152, eff. 1-1-22 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/20-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 20-10. Qualifications for licensure as a private
|
alarm contractor. |
(a) A person is qualified for licensure as a private
alarm |
contractor if the person he or she meets all of the following
|
requirements:
|
(1) Is at least 21 years of age.
|
(2) Has not been convicted of any felony in any
|
jurisdiction or at least 10 years have elapsed since the |
time
of full discharge from a sentence imposed for a |
felony
conviction.
|
(3) Is of good moral character. Good moral
character |
is a continuing requirement of licensure.
Conviction of |
|
crimes other than felonies may be used in
determining |
moral character, but shall not constitute an
absolute bar |
to licensure, except where the applicant is a registered |
sex offender.
|
(4) Has not been declared by any court of competent
|
jurisdiction to be incompetent by reason of mental or |
physical
defect or disease, unless a court has |
subsequently declared
him or her to be competent.
|
(5) Is not suffering from dependence on alcohol or
|
from narcotic addiction or dependence.
|
(6) Has a minimum of 3 years experience during the 5
|
years immediately preceding the application (i) working as |
a full-time
manager for a licensed private alarm |
contractor agency or (ii) working for
a government, one of |
the armed forces of the United States, or private entity |
that inspects, reviews, designs, sells, installs, |
operates, services, or monitors
alarm systems that, in the |
judgment of the Board, satisfies
the standards of alarm |
industry competence. The Board and the Department may
|
accept, in lieu of the experience requirement in this
item |
(6), alternative experience working as a full-time
manager |
for a private alarm contractor agency licensed in
another |
state or for a private alarm contractor agency in
a state |
that does not license such agencies, if the
experience is |
substantially equivalent to that
gained working for an |
Illinois licensed private alarm
contractor agency. An |
|
applicant who
has received a 4-year degree or higher in |
electrical
engineering or a related field from a program |
approved by the
Board or a business degree from an |
accredited college or university shall be given credit for |
2 years of the required
experience. An applicant who has |
successfully completed a
national certification program |
approved by the Board shall be
given credit for one year of |
the required experience.
|
(7) Has not been dishonorably discharged from the
|
armed forces of the United States.
|
(8) Has passed an examination authorized by the
|
Department.
|
(9) Submits the applicant's his or her fingerprints, |
proof of
having general liability insurance required under |
subsection
(c), and the required license fee.
|
(10) Has not violated Section 10-5 of this Act.
|
(b) (Blank).
|
(c) It is the responsibility of the applicant to obtain
|
general liability insurance in an amount and coverage
|
appropriate for the applicant's circumstances as determined by
|
rule. The applicant shall provide evidence of insurance to
the |
Department before being issued a license. Failure to
maintain |
general liability insurance and to provide the
Department with |
written proof of the insurance shall result in
cancellation of |
the license without hearing.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13; 99-174, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
|
(225 ILCS 447/20-15)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 20-15. Qualifications for licensure as a private
|
alarm contractor agency. |
(a) Upon receipt of the required fee and proof that the
|
applicant has a full-time Illinois licensed private alarm
|
contractor licensee-in-charge, which is a continuing |
requirement for
agency licensure, the Department shall issue
a |
license as a private alarm contractor agency to
any of the |
following:
|
(1) An individual who submits an application and is
a |
licensed private alarm contractor under this Act.
|
(2) A firm that submits an application and all of
the |
members of the firm are licensed private alarm
contractors |
under this Act.
|
(3) A corporation or limited liability company
doing |
business in Illinois that is authorized by its articles
of |
incorporation or organization to engage in the business of
|
conducting a private alarm contractor agency if at least |
one
executive employee is licensed as a private alarm |
contractor
under this Act and all unlicensed officers and |
directors of
the corporation or limited liability company |
are determined by
the Department to be persons of good |
moral character.
|
(b) No private alarm contractor may be the |
|
licensee-in-charge for more than one private alarm
contractor |
agency. Upon written request by a representative
of an agency, |
within 10 days after the loss of a licensee-in-charge of an |
agency because of the
death of that individual or because of |
the termination of the
employment of that individual, the |
Department shall issue a
temporary certificate of authority |
allowing the continuing
operation of the licensed agency. No |
temporary certificate of
authority shall be valid for more |
than 90 days. An extension
of an additional 90 days may be |
granted upon written request
by the representative of the |
agency. Not more than 2
extensions may be granted to any |
agency. No temporary permit
shall be issued for loss of the |
licensee-in-charge because of
disciplinary action by the |
Department related to
the licensee-in-charge's his or her |
conduct on behalf of the agency.
|
(c) No private alarm contractor, private alarm
contractor |
agency, or person may install or connect an alarm
system or |
fire alarm system that connects automatically and
directly to |
a governmentally operated police or fire dispatch
system in a |
manner that violates subsection (a) of Section
15.2 of the |
Emergency Telephone System Act. In addition to
the penalties |
provided by the Emergency Telephone System Act,
a private |
alarm contractor agency that violates this Section
shall pay |
the Department an additional penalty of $250 per
occurrence.
|
(d) Upon issuance of the temporary certificate of
|
authority as provided for in subsection (b) of this Section
|
|
and at any time thereafter while the temporary certificate of
|
authority is in effect, the Department may request in writing
|
additional information from the agency regarding the loss of
|
its licensee-in-charge, the selection of a new |
licensee-in-charge,
and the management of the agency. Failure |
of the
agency to respond or respond to the satisfaction of the
|
Department shall cause the Department to deny any extension of
|
the temporary certificate of authority. While the temporary
|
certificate of authority is in effect, the Department may
|
disapprove the selection of a new licensee-in-charge by the
|
agency if the person's license is not operative or the
|
Department has good cause to believe that the person selected
|
will not fully exercise the responsibilities of a |
licensee-in-charge.
If the Department has disapproved the |
selection of another
new licensee-in-charge and the temporary |
certificate of
authority expires or is about to expire without |
the agency
selecting a new licensee-in-charge, the Department |
shall
grant an extension of the temporary certificate of |
authority
for an additional 90 days, except as otherwise |
prohibited in
subsection (b) or this subsection (d). |
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/20-20)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 20-20. Training; private alarm contractor and
|
employees. |
|
(a) Registered employees of the private alarm contractor
|
agency who carry a firearm and respond to alarm systems shall
|
complete, within 30 days of their employment, a minimum of 20
|
hours of classroom training provided by a qualified instructor
|
and shall include all of the following subjects:
|
(1) The law regarding arrest and search and seizure
as |
it applies to the private alarm industry.
|
(2) Civil and criminal liability for acts related
to |
the private alarm industry.
|
(3) The use of force, including but not limited to
the |
use of nonlethal force (i.e., disabling spray, baton,
|
stungun, or similar weapon).
|
(4) Arrest and control techniques.
|
(5) The offenses under the Criminal Code of 2012
that |
are directly related to the protection of persons and
|
property.
|
(6) The law on private alarm forces and on
reporting |
to law enforcement agencies.
|
(7) Fire prevention, fire equipment, and fire
safety.
|
(8) Civil rights and public relations.
|
(9) The identification of terrorists, acts of |
terrorism, and terrorist organizations, as defined by |
federal and State statutes.
|
Pursuant to directives set forth by the U.S. Department of |
Homeland Security and the provisions set forth by the National |
Fire Protection Association in the National Fire Alarm Code |
|
and the Life Safety Code, training may include the |
installation, repair, and maintenance of emergency |
communication systems and mass notification systems. |
(b) All other employees of a private alarm contractor
|
agency shall complete a minimum of 20 hours of basic training
|
provided by a qualified instructor within 30 days of their
|
employment. The training may be provided in a classroom or |
seminar setting or via Internet-based online learning |
programs. The substance of the training shall be related to
|
the work performed by the registered employee.
|
(c) It is the responsibility of the employer to certify,
|
on forms provided by the Department, that the employee
has |
successfully completed the training. The original form or a |
copy shall be a
permanent record of training completed by the |
employee and
shall be placed in the employee's file with the |
employer for
the term the employee is retained by the
|
employer. A private alarm contractor agency may place a
copy |
of the Department form in lieu of the original
into the |
permanent employee registration card file. The original
form |
or a copy shall be returned to the employee when the employee's |
his
or her employment is terminated. Failure to return the |
original
form or a copy to the employee is grounds for |
discipline. The employee shall not be
required to
complete the |
training required under this Act
once the employee has been |
issued a form.
|
(d) Nothing in this Act prevents any employer from
|
|
providing or requiring additional training beyond the required
|
20 hours that the employer feels is necessary and appropriate
|
for competent job performance.
|
(e) Any certification of completion of the 20-hour
basic |
training issued under the Private Detective, Private
Alarm, |
Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 1993 or any
prior Act |
shall be accepted as proof of training under this
Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 102-152, eff. 1-1-22 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/25-5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 25-5. Exemptions; private security contractor. The
|
provisions of this Act related to licensure of a private
|
security contractor do not apply to any of the following:
|
(1) An employee of the United States, Illinois, or a
|
political subdivision of either while the employee is |
engaged
in the performance of the employee's his or her |
official duties within the
scope of the employee's his or |
her employment. However, any such person who
offers the |
person's his or her services as a private security |
contractor or
uses a similar title when these services are |
performed for
compensation or other consideration, whether |
received directly
or indirectly, is subject to this Act.
|
(2) A person employed as either an armed or unarmed
|
security officer at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or
|
development site or facility regulated by the United |
|
States
Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the |
background
screening and training mandated by the |
regulations of the
United States Nuclear Regulatory |
Commission.
|
(3) A person, watchman, or proprietary security |
officer
employed exclusively by only one employer in |
connection with
the exclusive activities of that employer.
|
(Source: P.A. 93-438, eff. 8-5-03 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/25-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 25-10. Qualifications for licensure as a private
|
security contractor. |
(a) A person is qualified for licensure as a private
|
security contractor if the person he or she meets all of the |
following
requirements:
|
(1) Is at least 21 years of age.
|
(2) Has not been convicted of any felony in any
|
jurisdiction or at least 10 years have elapsed since the |
time
of full discharge from a sentence imposed for a |
felony
conviction.
|
(3) Is of good moral character. Good character is
a |
continuing requirement of licensure. Conviction of crimes
|
other than felonies may be used in determining moral
|
character, but shall not constitute an absolute bar to
|
licensure, except where the applicant is a registered sex
|
|
offender.
|
(4) Has not been declared by any court of competent
|
jurisdiction to be incompetent by reason of mental or |
physical
defect or disease, unless a court has |
subsequently declared
him or her to be competent.
|
(5) Is not suffering from dependence on alcohol or
|
from narcotic addiction or dependence.
|
(6) Has a minimum of 3 years experience of the 5
years |
immediately preceding application working as a full-time
|
manager for a licensed private security contractor agency |
or a
manager of a proprietary security force of 30 or more |
persons
registered with the Department or with 3 years |
experience of
the 5 years immediately preceding his or her |
application
employed as a full-time supervisor for
an |
in-house security unit for a corporation having 100 or
|
more employees, for a military police or related security
|
unit in any of the armed forces of the United States, or in |
a law enforcement agency
of the federal government, a |
state, or a state political subdivision, which shall
|
include a state's attorney's office, a public defender's
|
office, or the Department of Corrections. The Board and |
the Department shall approve such full-time supervisory
|
experience and may accept, in lieu
of the experience |
requirement in this subsection,
alternative experience |
working as a full-time manager for
a private security |
contractor agency licensed in another
state or for a |
|
private security contractor agency in a
state that does |
not license such agencies if the
experience is |
substantially equivalent to that
gained working for an |
Illinois licensed private security
contractor agency. An |
applicant who has a
baccalaureate degree or higher in |
police science or a related
field or a business degree |
from an accredited college or
university shall be given |
credit for 2 of the 3 years of the
required experience. An |
applicant who has completed a non-degree military training |
program in police science or a related field shall be |
given credit for one of the 3 years of the required |
experience if the Board and the Department determine that |
such training is substantially equivalent to that received |
in an associate degree program. An applicant who has an |
associate degree
in police science or in a related field |
or in business from an
accredited college or university |
shall be given credit for one
of the 3 years of the |
required experience.
|
(7) Has not been dishonorably discharged from the
|
armed forces of the United States.
|
(8) Has passed an examination authorized by the
|
Department.
|
(9) Submits the applicant's his or her fingerprints, |
proof of having
general liability insurance required under |
subsection (b), and
the required license fee.
|
(10) Has not violated Section 10-5 of this Act.
|
|
(b) It is the responsibility of the applicant to obtain
|
general liability insurance in an amount and coverage
|
appropriate for the applicant's circumstances as determined by
|
rule. The applicant shall provide evidence of insurance to
the |
Department before being issued a license. Failure to
maintain |
general liability insurance and to provide the
Department with |
written proof of the insurance shall result in
cancellation of |
the license without hearing. |
(c) (Blank). Any person who has been providing canine odor |
detection services for hire prior to January 1, 2005 is exempt |
from the requirements of item (6) of subsection (a) of this |
Section and may be granted a private security contractor |
license if (i) he or she meets the requirements of items (1) |
through (5) and items (7) through (10) of subsections (a) of |
this Section, (ii) pays all applicable fees, and (iii) |
presents satisfactory evidence to the Department of the |
provision of canine odor detection services for hire since |
January 1, 2005.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-181, eff. 8-18-17 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/25-15)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 25-15. Qualifications for licensure as a private
|
security contractor agency. |
(a) Upon receipt of the required fee and proof that the
|
applicant has a full-time Illinois licensed private security
|
|
licensee-in-charge, which is a continuing requirement for
|
agency licensure, the Department shall issue
a license as a |
private security contractor agency
to any of the following:
|
(1) An individual who submits an application and is
a |
licensed private security contractor under this Act.
|
(2) A firm that submits an application and all of
the |
members of the firm are licensed private security
|
contractors under this Act.
|
(3) A corporation or limited liability company
doing |
business in Illinois that is authorized to engage in the |
business of
conducting a private security contractor |
agency if at least
one officer or executive employee is |
licensed as a private
security contractor under this Act |
and all unlicensed
officers and directors of the |
corporation or limited liability
company are determined by |
the Department to be persons of good
moral character.
|
(b) No private security contractor may be the |
licensee-in-charge for more than one
private security |
contractor agency. Upon written request by a
representative of |
the agency, within 10 days after the loss of
a |
licensee-in-charge of an agency
because of the death of that |
individual or because of the
termination of the employment of |
that individual, the
Department shall issue a temporary |
certificate of authority
allowing the continuing operation of |
the licensed agency. No
temporary certificate of authority |
shall be valid for more
than 90 days. An extension of an |
|
additional 90 days may be
granted upon written request by the |
representative of the
agency. Not more than 2 extensions may |
be granted to any
agency. No temporary permit shall be issued |
for loss of the
licensee-in-charge because of disciplinary |
action by the
Department related to the licensee-in-charge's |
his or her conduct on behalf of the
agency.
|
(c) Upon issuance of the temporary certificate of |
authority as provided for in subsection (b) of this Section |
and at any time thereafter while the temporary certificate of |
authority is in effect, the Department may request in writing |
additional information from the agency regarding the loss of |
its licensee-in-charge, the selection of a new |
licensee-in-charge, and the management of the agency. Failure |
of the agency to respond or respond to the satisfaction of the
|
Department shall cause the Department to deny any extension
of |
the temporary certificate of authority. While the
temporary |
certificate of authority is in effect, the
Department may |
disapprove the selection of a new licensee-in-charge
by the |
agency if the person's license is not operative
or the |
Department has good cause to believe that the person
selected |
will not fully exercise the responsibilities of a
|
licensee-in-charge. If the Department has disapproved the
|
selection of a new licensee-in-charge and the temporary
|
certificate of authority expires or is about to expire
without |
the agency selecting another new licensee-in-charge,
the |
Department shall grant an extension of the temporary
|
|
certificate of authority for an additional 90 days, except as
|
otherwise prohibited in subsection (b) or this subsection (c). |
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/25-20)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 25-20. Training; private security contractor and
|
employees. |
(a) Registered employees of the private security
|
contractor agency who provide traditional guarding or other
|
private security related functions or who respond to alarm
|
systems shall complete, within 30 days of their employment, a
|
minimum of 20 hours of basic training, which may be provided in |
a classroom or seminar setting or via Internet-based online |
learning programs, and shall be provided by a
qualified |
instructor, which shall include the following
subjects:
|
(1) The law regarding arrest and search and seizure
as |
it applies to private security.
|
(2) Civil and criminal liability for acts related
to |
private security.
|
(3) The use of force, including but not limited to
the |
use of nonlethal force (i.e., disabling spray, baton,
|
stungun, taser, or similar weapon).
|
(4) Verbal communication skills.
|
(5) The offenses under the Criminal Code of 2012
that |
are directly related to the protection of persons and
|
|
property.
|
(6) Private security officers and the criminal justice |
system.
|
(7) Fire prevention, fire equipment, and fire
safety.
|
(8) Report writing and observation techniques.
|
(9) Customer service, civil rights, and public |
relations.
|
(10) The identification of terrorists, acts of |
terrorism, and terrorist organizations, as defined by |
federal and State statutes.
|
(b) All other employees of a private security contractor
|
agency shall complete a minimum of 20 hours of basic training
|
provided by the qualified instructor within 30 days of their
|
employment. The training may be provided in a classroom or |
seminar setting or via Internet-based online learning |
programs. The substance of the training shall be related to
|
the work performed by the registered employee.
|
(c) Registered employees of the private security |
contractor agency who
provide
guarding or other private |
security related functions, in addition to the basic
training
|
required under subsection (a), within 6 months of their |
employment,
shall complete
an additional 8 hours of training |
on subjects to be determined by the
employer, which
training |
may be site-specific and may be conducted on the job. The |
training may be provided in a classroom or seminar setting or |
via Internet-based online learning programs.
|
|
(d) In addition to the basic training provided for in |
subsections (a) and
(c),
registered employees of the private |
security contractor agency who provide
guarding or other
|
private security related functions
shall complete an
|
additional
8 hours of refresher training on subjects to be |
determined by the
employer
each calendar year commencing with |
the
calendar year
following the employee's first employment |
anniversary date,
which
refresher training may be |
site-specific and may be conducted on the job.
|
(e) It is the responsibility of the employer to certify,
|
on a form provided by the Department, that the employee has
|
successfully completed the basic and refresher training. The |
original
form or a copy shall be a permanent record of training |
completed by the
employee and shall be placed in the |
employee's file with the
employer for the period the employee |
remains with the
employer. The original form or a copy shall be
|
given to the employee when the employee's his or her |
employment is
terminated. Failure to return the original form |
or a copy to the
employee is grounds for disciplinary action. |
The employee
shall not be required to repeat the required |
training once the
employee has been issued the form. An |
employer may provide or
require additional training.
|
(f) (Blank).
|
(g) All private security contractors shall complete a |
minimum of 4 hours of annual training on a topic of their |
choosing, provided that the subject matter of the training is |
|
reasonably related to their private security contractor |
practice. The training may be provided in a classroom setting |
or seminar setting or via Internet-based online learning |
programs. The Department shall adopt rules to administer this |
subsection. |
(h) It shall be the responsibility of the private security |
contractor to keep and maintain a personal log of all training |
hours earned along with sufficient documentation necessary for |
the Department to verify the annual training completed for at |
least 5 years. The personal training log and documentation |
shall be provided to the Department in the same manner as other |
documentation and records required under this Act. |
(i) If the private security contractor owns or is employed |
by a private security contractor agency, the private security |
contractor agency shall maintain a record of the annual |
training. The private security contractor agency must make the |
record of annual training available to the Department upon |
request. |
(j) Recognizing the diverse professional practices of |
private security contractors licensed under this Act, it is |
the intent of the training requirements in this Section to |
allow for a broad interpretation of the coursework, seminar |
subjects, or class topics to be considered reasonably related |
to the practice of any profession licensed under this Act. |
(k) Notwithstanding any other professional license a |
private security contractor holds under this Act, no more than |
|
4 hours of annual training shall be required for any one year. |
(l) The annual training requirements for private security |
contractors shall not apply until the calendar year following |
the issuance of the private security contractor license. |
(Source: P.A. 102-152, eff. 1-1-22 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/25-30)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 25-30. Uniforms.
|
(a) No licensee under this Act or any employee of a
|
licensed agency shall wear or display a badge, shoulder patch
|
or other identification that contains the words "law" or |
"enforcement". No license holder or employee of a licensed
|
agency shall imply in any manner that the person is an
employee |
or agent of a governmental entity, display a badge or
|
identification card, emblem, or uniform using the words
|
"police", "sheriff", "highway patrol", "trooper", "law
|
enforcement" or any similar term.
|
(b) All military-style uniforms, if worn by
employees of a |
licensed private security contractor agency,
must bear the |
name of the private security contractor agency,
which shall be |
plainly visible on a patch, badge, or other
insignia.
|
(c) All uniforms, if worn by employees of a licensed |
private security contractor agency, may only be worn in the |
performance of their duties or while commuting directly to or |
from the employee's place or places of employment.
|
|
(d) Employees shall return any uniform , badge,
|
identification card, or equipment issued, but not sold, to the
|
employee by the agency and any badge or identification card |
issued to the employee by the agency within 72 hours of |
termination of
employment. |
(e) Licensees under this Act of any employee of a
licensed |
agency are prohibited from using the Illinois State
Seal on |
badges, company logos, identification cards, patches,
or other |
insignia. |
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/30-5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 30-5. Exemptions; locksmith. The provisions of this
|
Act do not apply to any of the following if the person
|
performing the service does not hold himself or herself out as
|
a locksmith:
|
(1) Automobile service dealers who service, install,
|
repair, or rebuild automobile locks.
|
(2) Police officers, firefighters, or municipal |
employees
who open a lock in an emergency situation.
|
(3) A retail merchant selling locks or similar |
security
accessories, duplicating keys, or installing, |
programming,
repairing,
maintaining, reprogramming, |
rebuilding,
or
servicing electronic garage door devices.
|
(4) A member of the building trades who installs or
|
|
removes complete locks or locking devices in the course of
|
residential or commercial new construction or remodeling.
|
(5) An employee of a towing service, repossessor, |
roadside assistance service, or
automobile club opening |
automotive locks in the normal course
of the employee's |
his or her duties. Additionally, this Act shall not
|
prohibit an employee of a towing service or roadside |
assistance service from opening motor
vehicles to enable a |
vehicle to be moved without towing,
provided the towing |
service or roadside assistance service does not hold |
itself out to the
public, by directory advertisement, |
through a sign at the
facilities of the towing service or |
roadside assistance service, or by any other form of
|
advertisement, as a locksmith.
|
(6) A student in the course of study in locksmith
|
programs approved by the Department.
|
(7) Warranty service by a lock manufacturer or its
|
employees on the manufacturer's own products.
|
(8) A maintenance employee of a property management
|
company at a multi-family residential building who |
services,
installs, repairs, or opens locks for tenants.
|
(9) A person employed exclusively by only one employer
|
in connection with the exclusive activities of that |
employer,
providing that person does not hold oneself |
himself or herself out to
the public as a locksmith.
|
(10) Persons who have no access to confidential or
|
|
security information and who otherwise do not provide
|
traditional locksmith services, as defined in this Act, |
are
exempt from employee registration. Examples of exempt
|
employees include, but are not limited to, employees |
working
in the capacity of key cutters, cashiers, drivers, |
and
reception personnel. Confidential or security |
information is
that which pertains to employee files, |
scheduling, client
contracts, master key charts, access |
codes, or technical
security and alarm data.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/30-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 30-10. Qualifications for licensure as a locksmith.
|
(a) A person is qualified for licensure as a locksmith
if |
the person he or she meets all of the following requirements:
|
(1) Is at least 18 years of age.
|
(2) Has not been convicted of any felony in any
|
jurisdiction or at least 10 years have elapsed since the |
time
of full discharge from a sentence imposed for a |
felony
conviction.
|
(3) Is of good moral character. Good moral
character |
is a continuing requirement of licensure.
Conviction of |
crimes other than felonies may be used in
determining |
moral character, but shall not constitute an
absolute bar |
to licensure, except where the applicant is a registered |
|
sex offender.
|
(4) Has not been declared by any court of competent
|
jurisdiction to be incompetent by reason of mental or |
physical
defect or disease, unless a court has |
subsequently declared
him or her to be competent.
|
(5) Is not suffering from dependence on alcohol or
|
from narcotic addiction or dependence.
|
(6) Has not been dishonorably discharged from the
|
armed forces of the United States.
|
(7) Has passed an examination authorized by the
|
Department.
|
(8) Submits the applicant's his or her fingerprints,
|
proof of having general liability insurance required under
|
subsection (b), and the required license fee.
|
(9) Has not violated Section 10-5 of this Act.
|
(b) It is the responsibility of the applicant to obtain
|
general liability insurance in an amount and coverage
|
appropriate for the applicant's circumstances as determined by
|
rule. The applicant shall provide evidence of insurance to
the |
Department before being issued a license. Failure to
maintain |
general liability insurance and to provide the
Department with |
written proof of the insurance shall result in
cancellation of |
the license without hearing. A locksmith employed by a
|
licensed locksmith agency or employed by a private concern may
|
provide proof that the locksmith's his or her actions as a |
locksmith are
covered by the liability insurance of the |
|
locksmith's his or her employer.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/30-15)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 30-15. Qualifications for licensure as a locksmith
|
agency. |
(a) Upon receipt of the required fee and proof that the
|
applicant has a full-time Illinois licensed locksmith |
licensee-in-charge, which is a
continuing requirement for |
agency licensure, the Department
shall issue a license as a |
locksmith
agency to any of the following:
|
(1) An individual who submits an application and is
a |
licensed locksmith under this Act.
|
(2) A firm that submits an application and all of
the |
members of the firm are licensed locksmiths under this
|
Act.
|
(3) A corporation or limited liability company
doing |
business in Illinois that is authorized to engage in the |
business of
conducting a locksmith agency if at least one |
officer or
executive employee is a licensed locksmith |
under this Act and
all unlicensed officers and directors |
of the corporation or
limited liability company are |
determined by the Department to
be persons of good moral |
character.
|
(b) An individual licensed as a locksmith operating
under |
|
a business name other
than the licensed locksmith's own name |
shall not be required
to obtain a locksmith agency license if |
that licensed
locksmith does not employ any persons to engage |
in the
practice of locksmithing and registers under the |
Assumed Business Name Act.
|
(c) No locksmith may be the licensee in-charge for more |
than one
locksmith agency. Upon written
request by a |
representative of the agency, within 10 days
after the loss of |
a licensee-in-charge of an agency because
of the death of that |
individual or because of the termination
of the employment of |
that individual, the Department shall
issue a temporary |
certificate of authority allowing the
continuing operation of |
the licensed agency. No temporary
certificate of authority |
shall be valid for more than 90 days.
An extension of an |
additional 90 days may be granted upon
written request by the |
representative of the agency. Not more
than 2 extensions may |
be granted to any agency. No temporary
permit shall be issued |
for loss of the licensee-in-charge because of
disciplinary |
action by
the Department related to the licensee-in-charge's |
his or her conduct on behalf of the
agency.
|
(c-1) Upon issuance of the temporary certificate of |
authority as provided for in subsection (c) of this Section |
and at any time thereafter while the temporary certificate of |
authority is in effect, the Department may request in writing |
additional information from the agency regarding the loss of |
its licensee-in-charge, the selection of a new |
|
licensee-in-charge, and the management of the agency. Failure |
of the agency to respond to the satisfaction of the Department |
shall cause the Department to deny any extension of the |
temporary certificate of authority. While the temporary
|
certificate of authority is in effect, the Department may
|
disapprove the selection of a new licensee-in-charge by the
|
agency if the person's license is not operative or the
|
Department has good cause to believe that the person selected
|
will not fully exercise the responsibilities of a |
licensee-in-charge.
If the Department has disapproved the |
selection of a
new licensee-in-charge and the temporary |
certificate of
authority expires or is about to expire without |
the agency
selecting another new licensee-in-charge, the |
Department shall grant an extension of the temporary |
certificate of authority for an additional 90 days, except as |
otherwise prohibited in subsection (c) or this subsection |
(c-1). |
(d) The Department shall require without limitation all of |
the following information from each applicant for licensure as |
a locksmith agency under this Act: |
(1) The name, full business address, and telephone |
number of the locksmith agency. The business address for |
the locksmith agency shall be a complete street address |
from which business is actually conducted, shall be |
located within the State, and may not be a P.O. Box. The |
applicant shall submit proof that the business location is |
|
or will be used to conduct the locksmith agency's |
business. The Department may approve of an out-of-state |
business location if it is not over 50 miles in distance |
from the borders of this State. |
(2) All trade or business names used by the licensee. |
(3) The type of ownership or operation, such as a |
partnership, corporation, or sole proprietorship. |
(4) The name of the owner or operator of the locksmith |
agency, including: |
(A) if a person, then the name and address of |
record of the person; |
(B) if a partnership, then the name and address of |
record of each partner and the name of the |
partnership; |
(C) if a corporation, then the name, address of |
record, and title of each corporate officer and |
director, the corporate names, and the name of the |
state of incorporation; and |
(D) if a sole proprietorship, then the full name |
and address of record of the sole proprietor and the |
name of the business entity. |
(5) The name and license number of the |
licensee-in-charge for the locksmith agency. |
(6) Any additional information required by the |
Department by rule. |
(e) A licensed locksmith agency may operate under a "doing |
|
business as" or assumed name certification without having to |
obtain a separate locksmith agency license if the "doing |
business as" or assumed name is first registered with the |
Department. A licensed locksmith agency may register no more |
than one assumed name. |
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/30-20)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 30-20. Training; locksmith and employees.
|
(a) Registered employees of a licensed locksmith agency
|
shall complete a minimum of 20 hours of training provided by a
|
qualified instructor within 30 days of their employment. The
|
substance of the training shall be prescribed by rule.
|
(b) It is the responsibility of the employer to certify,
|
on a form provided by the Department, that the employee has
|
successfully completed the training. The form shall be a
|
permanent record of training completed by the employee and
|
shall be placed in the employee's file with the employer for
|
the period the employee remains with the employer. An agency
|
may place a notarized copy of the Department form in lieu of
|
the original into the permanent employee registration card |
file. The original
form or a copy shall be
given to the |
employee when the employee's his or her employment is
|
terminated. Failure to return the original form or a copy to |
the
employee is grounds for disciplinary action. The employee
|
|
shall not be required to repeat the required training once the
|
employee has been issued the form. An employer may provide or
|
require additional training.
|
(c) Any certification of completion of the 20-hour basic
|
training issued under the Private Detective, Private Alarm,
|
Private Security and Locksmith Act of 1993 or any prior Act
|
shall be accepted as proof of training under this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 93-438, eff. 8-5-03 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/30-30) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 30-30. Consumer protection; required information for |
consumers. |
(a) A licensee providing any locksmith services shall |
document on a work order, invoice, or receipt the name, |
address, and telephone number of the person requesting the |
work to be done. |
(b) The locksmith who performs the services shall include |
on the work order, invoice, or receipt the locksmith's his or |
her name and license number. |
(c) If the locksmith who performs the services is employed |
by a locksmith agency, then the name, address, and license |
number of the locksmith agency and the name and license or |
registration number of the locksmith who performed the |
services shall be included on the work order, invoice, or |
receipt. |
|
(d) A copy of the work order, invoice, or receipt shall be |
provided to the customer at the time of service and the |
original copy of the work order, invoice, or receipt shall be |
kept by the licensed locksmith or locksmith agency for a |
period of 2 years. |
(e) The name, address, and license number of the locksmith |
or locksmith agency, if applicable, shall be pre-printed on |
the work order, invoice, or receipt required under this |
Section. |
(f) A locksmith may be disciplined by the Department |
pursuant to this Act for gross or willful overcharging for |
professional locksmith services, including filing false |
statements for the collection of fees for services not |
rendered.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.) |
(225 ILCS 447/31-5) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 31-5. Exemptions. |
(a) The provisions of this Act regarding fingerprint |
vendors do not apply to any of the following, if the person |
performing the service does not hold oneself himself or |
herself out as a fingerprint vendor or fingerprint vendor |
agency: |
(1) An employee of the United States, Illinois, or a |
political subdivision, including public school districts, |
|
of either while the employee is engaged in the performance |
of the employee's his or her official duties within the |
scope of the employee's his or her employment. However, |
any such person who offers the person's his or her |
services as a fingerprint vendor or uses a similar title |
when these services are performed for compensation or |
other consideration, whether received directly or |
indirectly, is subject to this Act. |
(2) A person employed exclusively by only one employer |
in connection with the exclusive activities of that |
employer, provided that person does not hold oneself |
himself or herself out to the public as a fingerprint |
vendor.
|
(3) Any member of local law enforcement in the |
performance of his or her duties for criminal justice |
purposes, notwithstanding whether the local law |
enforcement agency charges a reasonable fee related to the |
cost of offering fingerprinting services. |
(b) The provisions of this Act regarding fingerprint |
vendors do not apply to any member of a local law enforcement |
agency, acting on behalf of the local law enforcement agency |
that is registered with the Illinois State Police to provide |
fingerprinting services for non-criminal justice purposes, |
notwithstanding whether the local law enforcement agency |
charges a reasonable fee related to the cost of offering |
fingerprinting services. |
|
(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.) |
(225 ILCS 447/31-10) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 31-10. Qualifications for licensure as a fingerprint |
vendor. |
(a) A person is qualified for licensure as a fingerprint |
vendor if the person he or she meets all of the following |
requirements: |
(1) Is at least 18 years of age. |
(2) Has not been convicted of any felony in any |
jurisdiction or at least 10 years have elapsed since the |
time of full discharge from a sentence imposed for a |
felony conviction. |
(3) Is of good moral character. Good moral character |
is a continuing requirement of licensure. Conviction of |
crimes other than felonies may be used in determining |
moral character, but shall not constitute an absolute bar |
to licensure, except where the applicant is a registered |
sex offender. |
(4) Has not been declared by any court of competent |
jurisdiction to be incompetent by reason of mental or |
physical defect or disease, unless a court has |
subsequently declared him or her to be competent. |
(5) Is not suffering from dependence on alcohol or |
from narcotic addiction or dependence. |
|
(6) Has not been dishonorably discharged from the |
armed forces of the United States. |
(7) Submits certification issued by the Illinois State |
Police that the applicant has successfully completed a |
fingerprint vendor training course conducted or authorized |
by the Illinois State Police. |
(8) Submits the applicant's his or her fingerprints, |
in accordance with subsection (b) of this Section. |
(9) Has not violated any provision of this Act or any |
rule adopted under this Act. |
(10) Provides evidence satisfactory to the Department |
that the applicant has obtained general liability |
insurance in an amount and with coverage as determined by |
rule. Failure to maintain general liability insurance and |
failure to provide the Department with written proof of |
the insurance, upon request, shall result in cancellation |
of the license without hearing. A fingerprint vendor |
employed by a licensed fingerprint vendor agency may |
provide proof that the employee's his or her actions as a |
fingerprint vendor are covered by the liability insurance |
of the employee's his or her employer. |
(11) Pays the required licensure fee. |
(12) (Blank). |
(13) Submits proof that the applicant maintains a |
business office located in the State of Illinois. |
(14) Provides proof of compliance with subsection (e) |
|
of Section 31-15 of this Act if the applicant is not |
required to obtain a fingerprint vendor agency license |
pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 31-15 of this Act. |
(b) Each applicant for a fingerprint vendor license shall |
have the applicant's his or her fingerprints submitted to the |
Illinois State Police in an electronic format that complies |
with the form and manner for requesting and furnishing |
criminal history record information as prescribed by the |
Illinois State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked |
against the Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of |
Investigation criminal history record databases now and |
hereafter filed. The Illinois State Police shall charge |
applicants a fee for conducting the criminal history records |
check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services |
Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check. |
The Illinois State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive |
identification, records of Illinois convictions to the |
Department. The Department may require applicants to pay a |
separate fingerprinting fee, either to the Department or |
directly to the vendor. The Department, in its discretion, may |
allow an applicant who does not have reasonable access to a |
designated vendor to provide the applicant's his or her |
fingerprints in an alternative manner. The Department, in its |
discretion, may also use other procedures in performing or |
obtaining criminal background checks of applicants. Instead of |
submitting the applicant's his or her fingerprints, an |
|
individual may submit proof that is satisfactory to the |
Department that an equivalent security clearance has been |
conducted. Also, an individual who has retired as a peace |
officer within 12 months of application may submit |
verification, on forms provided by the Department and signed |
by the applicant's his or her employer, of the applicant's his |
or her previous full-time employment as a peace officer.
|
(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.) |
(225 ILCS 447/31-15) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 31-15. Qualifications for licensure as a fingerprint |
vendor agency.
|
(a) Upon receipt of the required fee, compliance with |
subsection (e) of this Section, and proof that the applicant |
has a full-time Illinois licensed fingerprint vendor |
licensee-in-charge, which is a continuing requirement for |
agency licensure, the Department may issue a license as a |
fingerprint vendor agency to any of the following: |
(1) An individual who submits an application and is a |
licensed fingerprint vendor under this Act. |
(2) A firm that submits an application and all of the |
members of the firm are licensed fingerprint vendors under |
this Act. |
(3) A corporation or limited liability company doing |
business in Illinois that is authorized to engage in the |
|
business of conducting a fingerprint vendor agency if at |
least one officer or executive employee is a licensed |
fingerprint vendor under this Act and all unlicensed |
officers and directors of the corporation or limited |
liability company are determined by the Department to be |
persons of good moral character. |
(b) An individual licensed as a fingerprint vendor |
operating under a business name other than the licensed |
fingerprint vendor's own name shall not be required to obtain |
a fingerprint vendor agency license if that licensed |
fingerprint vendor does not employ any persons to provide |
fingerprinting services. However, in either circumstance, the |
individual shall comply with the requirements of subsection |
(e) of this Section as a requirement for licensure. |
(c) No fingerprint vendor may be the licensee-in-charge |
for more than one fingerprint vendor agency. Upon written |
request by a representative of the agency, within 10 days |
after the loss of a licensee-in-charge of an agency because of |
the death of that individual or because of the termination of |
the employment of that individual, the Department shall issue |
a temporary certificate of authority allowing the continuing |
operation of the licensed agency. No temporary certificate of |
authority shall be valid for more than 90 days. An extension of |
an additional 90 days may be granted upon written request by |
the representative of the agency. Not more than 2 extensions |
may be granted to any agency. No temporary permit shall be |
|
issued for loss of the licensee-in-charge because of |
disciplinary action by the Department related to the |
licensee-in-charge's his or her conduct on behalf of the |
agency.
|
(d) Upon issuance of the temporary certificate of |
authority
as provided for in subsection (c) of this Section |
and at any
time thereafter while the temporary certificate of |
authority
is in effect, the Department may request in writing |
additional
information from the agency regarding the loss of |
its
licensee-in-charge, the selection of a new |
licensee-in-charge,
and the management of the agency. Failure |
of the agency to
respond or respond to the satisfaction of the |
Department shall
cause the Department to deny any extension of |
the temporary
certificate of authority. While the temporary |
certificate of
authority is in effect, the Department may |
disapprove the
selection of a new licensee-in-charge by the |
agency if the
person's license is not operative or the |
Department has good
cause to believe that the person selected |
will not fully
exercise the responsibilities of a |
licensee-in-charge. If the
Department has disapproved the |
selection of a new licensee-in-charge
and the temporary |
certificate of authority expires or
is about to expire without |
the agency selecting another new
licensee-in-charge, the |
Department shall grant an extension of
the temporary |
certificate of authority for an additional 90
days, except as |
otherwise prohibited in subsection (c) or this
subsection (d). |
|
(e) An applicant shall submit certification issued by the |
Illinois State Police that the applicant's fingerprinting |
equipment and software meets all specifications required by |
the Illinois State Police. Compliance with Illinois State |
Police fingerprinting equipment and software specifications is |
a continuing requirement for licensure. |
(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.) |
(225 ILCS 447/31-20) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 31-20. Training; fingerprint vendor and employees.
|
(a) Registered employees of a licensed fingerprint vendor |
agency shall complete a minimum of 20 hours of training |
provided by a qualified instructor within 30 days of their |
employment. The substance of the training shall be prescribed |
by rule. |
(b) It is the responsibility of the employer to certify, |
on a form provided by the Department, that the employee has |
successfully completed the training. The form shall be a |
permanent record of training completed by the employee and |
shall be placed in the employee's file with the employer for |
the period the employee remains with the employer. An agency |
may place a notarized copy of the Department form, in lieu of |
the original, into the permanent employee registration card |
file. The original form or a copy shall be given to the |
employee when the employee's his or her employment is |
|
terminated. Failure to return the original form or a copy to |
the employee is grounds for disciplinary action. The employee |
shall not be required to repeat the required training once the |
employee has been issued the form. An employer may provide or |
require additional training. |
(c) Any certification of completion of the 20-hour basic |
training issued under this Act the Private Detective, Private |
Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004 or any |
prior Act shall be accepted as proof of training under this |
Act . |
(d) No registered employee of a licensed fingerprint |
vendor agency may operate live scan fingerprint equipment or |
other equipment designed to obtain fingerprint images for the |
purpose of providing fingerprint images and associated |
demographic data to the Illinois State Police.
|
(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/35-5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 35-5. Display of license. Each licensee shall
|
prominently display the licensee's his or her individual, |
agency, or branch
office license at each place where business |
is being
conducted, as required under this Act. A |
licensee-in-charge
is required to post the licensee's his or |
her license only at the agency
office.
|
(Source: P.A. 93-438, eff. 8-5-03 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 447/35-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 35-10. Inspection of facilities. Each licensee or |
registrant shall
permit the licensee's or registrant's his or |
her office facilities, business premises, canine training |
facilities, firearm training facilities, and registered |
employee
files to be audited or inspected at reasonable times |
and in a
reasonable manner by the Department.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/35-15)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 35-15. Advertisements; penalties.
|
(a) No licensee providing services regulated by this Act
|
may knowingly advertise those services without including the |
licensee's his
or her license number in the advertisement. The |
publisher of
the advertising, however, is not required to |
verify the
accuracy of the advertisement or the license |
number.
|
(b) A licensee who advertises services regulated by this
|
Act who knowingly (i) fails to display the licensee's his or |
her license at
the licensee's his or her place of business, |
(ii) fails to provide the
publisher with the current license |
number, or (iii) provides
the publisher with a false license |
number or a license number
other than that of the person or |
|
agency doing the advertising
or a licensee who knowingly |
allows the licensee's his or her license number
to be |
displayed or used by another person or agency to
circumvent |
any provision of this subsection, is guilty of a
Class A |
misdemeanor. Each day an advertisement is published
or a |
licensee allows the licensee's his or her license to be used in
|
violation of this Section constitutes a separate offense. In
|
addition to the penalties and remedies provided in this
|
Section, a licensee who violates any provision of this Section
|
shall be subject to the disciplinary action, fines, and civil
|
penalty provisions of this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 93-438, eff. 8-5-03 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/35-25)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 35-25. Duplicate licenses. If a license, permanent
|
employee registration card, or firearm control
card is
lost, a |
duplicate shall be issued upon proof of such loss
together |
with the payment of the required fee. If a licensee
decides to |
change the licensee's his or her name, the Department shall |
issue
a license in the new name upon proof that the change was |
done
pursuant to law and payment of the required fee. |
Notification
of a name change shall be made to the Department |
within 30
days after the change.
|
(Source: P.A. 95-613, eff. 9-11-07 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 447/35-30)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 35-30. Employee requirements. All employees of a
|
licensed agency, other than those exempted, shall apply for a
|
permanent employee registration card. The holder of an agency
|
license issued under this Act, known in this Section as
|
"employer", may employ in the conduct of the employer's his or |
her business
employees under the following provisions:
|
(a) No person shall be issued a permanent employee
|
registration card who:
|
(1) Is younger than 18 years of age.
|
(2) Is younger than 21 years of age if the
services |
will include being armed.
|
(3) Has been determined by the Department to
be unfit |
by reason of conviction of an offense in this or
another |
state, including registration as a sex offender, but not |
including a traffic offense. Persons convicted of felonies |
involving bodily harm, weapons, violence, or theft within |
the previous 10 years shall be presumed to be unfit for |
registration. The Department
shall adopt rules for making |
those determinations that shall
afford the applicant due |
process of law.
|
(4) Has had a license or permanent employee
|
registration card denied, suspended, or revoked under this |
Act (i) within one
year before the date the
person's |
application for permanent employee registration card
is |
|
received by the Department; and (ii) that refusal, denial,
|
suspension, or revocation was based on any provision of |
this
Act other than Section 40-50,
item (6) or (8) of |
subsection (a) of Section 15-10, subsection (b) of Section
|
15-10, item (6) or (8) of subsection (a) of Section 20-10, |
subsection (b) of
Section 20-10, item (6) or (8) of |
subsection (a) of Section 25-10, subsection
(b) of Section |
25-10, item (7) of subsection (a) of Section 30-10,
|
subsection (b) of Section 30-10, or Section 10-40.
|
(5) Has been declared incompetent by any court
of |
competent jurisdiction by reason of mental disease or
|
defect and has not been restored.
|
(6) Has been dishonorably discharged from the
armed |
services of the United States.
|
(b) No person may be employed by a private
detective |
agency, private security contractor agency, private
alarm |
contractor agency, fingerprint vendor agency, or locksmith |
agency under this
Section until the person he or she has |
executed and furnished to the
employer, on forms furnished by |
the Department, a verified
statement to be known as |
"Employee's Statement" setting forth:
|
(1) The person's full name, age, and residence
|
address.
|
(2) The business or occupation engaged in for
the 5 |
years immediately before the date of the execution of
the |
statement, the place where the business or occupation was
|
|
engaged in, and the names of employers, if any.
|
(3) That the person has not had a license or
employee |
registration denied, revoked, or suspended under this
Act |
(i) within one year before the date the person's |
application
for permanent employee registration card is |
received by the
Department; and (ii) that refusal, denial, |
suspension, or
revocation was based on any provision of |
this Act other than
Section 40-50,
item (6) or (8) of |
subsection (a) of Section 15-10, subsection (b) of Section
|
15-10, item (6) or (8) of subsection (a) of Section 20-10, |
subsection (b) of
Section 20-10, item (6) or (8) of |
subsection (a) of Section 25-10, subsection
(b) of Section |
25-10, item (7) of subsection (a) of Section 30-10,
|
subsection (b) of Section 30-10, or Section 10-40.
|
(4) Any conviction of a felony or misdemeanor.
|
(5) Any declaration of incompetence by a court
of |
competent jurisdiction that has not been restored.
|
(6) Any dishonorable discharge from the armed
services |
of the United States.
|
(7) Any other information as may be required by
any |
rule of the Department to show the good character,
|
competency, and integrity of the person executing the
|
statement.
|
(c) Each applicant for a permanent employee registration
|
card shall have the applicant's his or her fingerprints |
submitted to the
Illinois State Police in an electronic format |
|
that
complies with the form and manner for requesting and
|
furnishing criminal history record information as prescribed
|
by the Illinois State Police. These fingerprints shall
be |
checked against the Illinois State Police and Federal
Bureau |
of Investigation criminal history record databases now
and |
hereafter filed. The Illinois State Police shall
charge |
applicants a fee for conducting the criminal history
records |
check, which shall be deposited in the State Police
Services |
Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the
records check. |
The Illinois State Police shall furnish,
pursuant to positive |
identification, records of Illinois
convictions to the |
Department. The Department may require
applicants to pay a |
separate fingerprinting fee, either to the
Department or |
directly to the vendor. The Department, in
its discretion, may |
allow an applicant who does not have
reasonable access to a |
designated vendor to provide the applicant's his or her
|
fingerprints in an alternative manner. The
Department, in its |
discretion, may also use other
procedures in performing or |
obtaining criminal background
checks of applicants. Instead of |
submitting the applicant's his or her
fingerprints, an |
individual may submit proof that is
satisfactory to the |
Department that an equivalent security
clearance has been |
conducted. Also, an individual who has
retired as a peace |
officer within 12 months of application may
submit |
verification, on forms provided by the Department and
signed |
by the applicant's his or her employer, of the applicant's his |
|
or her previous full-time employment as a
peace officer.
|
(d) The Department shall issue a permanent employee
|
registration card, in a form the Department prescribes, to all
|
qualified applicants.
The holder of a permanent employee |
registration card shall
carry the card at all times while |
actually engaged in the
performance of the duties of the |
employee's his or her employment.
Expiration and requirements |
for renewal of permanent employee
registration cards shall be |
established by rule of the
Department. Possession of a |
permanent employee registration
card does not in any way imply |
that the holder of the card is
employed by an agency unless the |
permanent employee
registration card is accompanied by the |
employee
identification card required by subsection (f) of |
this
Section.
|
(e) Each employer shall maintain a record of each
employee |
that is accessible to the duly authorized
representatives of |
the Department. The record shall contain
the following |
information:
|
(1) A photograph taken within 10 days of the date
that |
the employee begins employment with the employer. The
|
photograph shall be replaced with a current photograph |
every 3
calendar years.
|
(2) The Employee's Statement specified in
subsection |
(b) of this Section.
|
(3) All correspondence or documents relating to the
|
character and integrity of the employee received by the
|
|
employer from any official source or law enforcement |
agency.
|
(4) In the case of former employees, the employee
|
identification card of that person issued under subsection |
(f)
of this Section. Each employee record shall duly note |
if the
employee is employed in an armed capacity. Armed |
employee
files shall contain a copy of an active firearm |
owner's
identification card and a copy of an active |
firearm
control card. Each employer shall maintain a |
record for
each armed employee of each instance in which |
the employee's
weapon was discharged during the course of |
the employee's his or her
professional duties or |
activities. The record shall be
maintained on forms |
provided by the Department, a copy of
which must be filed |
with the Department within 15 days of an
instance. The |
record shall include the date and time of the
occurrence, |
the circumstances involved in the occurrence, and
any |
other information as the Department may require. Failure
|
to provide this information to the Department or failure |
to
maintain the record as a part of each armed employee's
|
permanent file is grounds for disciplinary action. The
|
Department, upon receipt of a report, shall have the |
authority
to make any investigation it considers |
appropriate into any
occurrence in which an employee's |
weapon was discharged and to
take disciplinary action as |
may be appropriate.
|
|
(5) A copy of the employee's permanent employee |
registration card or a copy of the Department's "License |
Lookup" Webpage showing that the employee has been issued |
a valid permanent employee registration card by the |
Department.
|
The Department may, by rule, prescribe further
record |
requirements.
|
(f) Every employer shall furnish an employee
|
identification card to each of the employer's his or her |
employees. This
employee identification card shall contain a |
recent photograph
of the employee, the employee's name, the |
name and agency
license number of the employer, the employee's |
personal
description, the signature of the employer, the |
signature of
that employee, the date of issuance, and an |
employee
identification card number.
|
(g) No employer may issue an employee identification
card |
to any person who is not employed by the employer in
accordance |
with this Section or falsely state or represent
that a person |
is or has been in the employer's his or her employ. It is
|
unlawful for an applicant for registered employment to file
|
with the Department the fingerprints of a person other than
|
himself or herself.
|
(h) Every employer shall obtain the identification card
of |
every employee who terminates employment with the employer him |
or her .
|
(i) Every employer shall maintain a separate roster of
the |
|
names of all employees currently working in an armed
capacity |
and submit the roster to the Department on request.
|
(j) No agency may employ any person to perform a
licensed |
activity under this Act unless the person possesses a
valid |
permanent employee registration card or a valid license
under |
this Act, or is exempt pursuant to subsection (n).
|
(k) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (j), an
|
agency may employ a person in a temporary capacity if all of
|
the following conditions are met:
|
(1) The agency completes in its entirety and
submits |
to the Department an application for a permanent
employee |
registration card, including the required fingerprint
|
receipt and fees.
|
(2) The agency has verification from the Department
|
that the applicant has no record of any criminal |
conviction
pursuant to the criminal history check |
conducted by the
Illinois State Police. The agency shall |
maintain the
verification of the results of the Illinois |
State Police
criminal history check as part of the |
employee record as
required under subsection (e) of this |
Section.
|
(3) The agency exercises due diligence to ensure
that |
the person is qualified under the requirements of this the |
Act
to be issued a permanent employee registration card.
|
(4) The agency maintains a separate roster of the
|
names of all employees whose applications are currently
|
|
pending with the Department and submits the roster to the
|
Department on a monthly basis. Rosters are to be |
maintained
by the agency for a period of at least 24 |
months.
|
An agency may employ only a permanent employee applicant
|
for which it either submitted a permanent employee application
|
and all required forms and fees or it confirms with the
|
Department that a permanent employee application and all
|
required forms and fees have been submitted by another agency,
|
licensee or the permanent employee and all other requirements
|
of this Section are met.
|
The Department shall have the authority to revoke,
without |
a hearing, the temporary authority of an individual to
work |
upon receipt of Federal Bureau of Investigation
fingerprint |
data or a report of another official authority
indicating a |
criminal conviction. If the Department has not
received a |
temporary employee's Federal Bureau of
Investigation |
fingerprint data within 120 days of the date the
Department |
received the Illinois State Police fingerprint
data, the |
Department may, at its discretion, revoke the
employee's |
temporary authority to work with 15 days written
notice to the |
individual and the employing agency.
|
An agency may not employ a person in a temporary capacity
|
if it knows or reasonably should have known that the person
has |
been convicted of a crime under the laws of this State,
has |
been convicted in another state of any crime that is a
crime |
|
under the laws of this State, has been convicted of any
crime |
in a federal court, or has been posted as an unapproved
|
applicant by the Department. Notice by the Department to the
|
agency, via certified mail, personal delivery, electronic
|
mail, or posting on the Department's Internet site accessible
|
to the agency that the person has been convicted of a crime
|
shall be deemed constructive knowledge of the conviction on
|
the part of the agency. The Department may adopt rules to
|
implement this
subsection (k).
|
(l) No person may be employed under this Section in any
|
capacity if:
|
(1) the person, while so employed, is being paid by
|
the United States or any political subdivision for the |
time so
employed in addition to any payments the person he |
or she may receive
from the employer; or
|
(2) the person wears any portion of the person's his |
or her
official uniform, emblem of authority, or equipment |
while so
employed.
|
(m) If information is discovered affecting the
|
registration of a person whose fingerprints were submitted
|
under this Section, the Department shall so notify the agency
|
that submitted the fingerprints on behalf of that person.
|
(n) Peace officers shall be exempt from the requirements
|
of this Section relating to permanent employee registration
|
cards. The agency shall remain responsible for any peace
|
officer employed under this exemption, regardless of whether
|
|
the peace officer is compensated as an employee or as an
|
independent contractor and as further defined by rule.
|
(o) Persons who have no access to confidential or
security |
information, who do not go to a client's or prospective |
client's residence or place of business, and who otherwise do |
not provide
traditional security services are exempt from |
employee
registration. Examples of exempt employees include, |
but are
not limited to, employees working in the capacity of |
ushers,
directors, ticket takers, cashiers, drivers, and |
reception
personnel. Confidential or security information is |
that which
pertains to employee files, scheduling, client |
contracts, or
technical security and alarm data.
|
(p) An applicant who is 21 years of age or older seeking a |
religious exemption to the photograph requirement of this |
Section shall furnish with the application an approved copy of |
United States Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue |
Service Form 4029. Regardless of age, an applicant seeking a |
religious exemption to this photograph requirement shall |
submit fingerprints in a form and manner prescribed by the |
Department with the applicant's his or her application in lieu |
of a photograph. |
(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/35-35)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 35-35. Requirement of a firearm control
card.
|
|
(a) No person shall perform duties that include the use,
|
carrying, or possession of a firearm in the performance of
|
those duties without complying with the provisions of this
|
Section and having been issued a valid firearm control
card by |
the Department.
|
(b) No employer shall employ any person to perform the
|
duties for which licensure or employee registration is |
required and allow
that person to carry a firearm unless that |
person has complied
with all the firearm training requirements |
of this Section and
has been issued a firearm control card. |
This Act
permits only the following to carry firearms while |
actually
engaged in the performance of their duties or while |
commuting
directly to or from their places of employment: |
persons
licensed as private detectives and their registered |
employees;
persons licensed as private security contractors |
and their
registered employees; persons licensed as private |
alarm
contractors and their registered employees; and |
employees of a
registered armed proprietary security force.
|
(c) Possession of a valid firearm control
card
allows a |
licensee or employee to carry a firearm not otherwise |
prohibited
by law while the licensee or employee is engaged in |
the performance of the licensee's or employee's his
or her |
duties or while the licensee or employee is commuting directly |
to
or from the licensee's or employee's place or places of |
employment.
|
(d) The Department shall issue a firearm control
card to a |
|
person who has passed an approved firearm training
course, who |
is currently licensed or employed by an agency licensed by
|
this Act and has met all the requirements of this Act, and who
|
possesses a valid firearm owner identification card.
|
Application for the firearm control card shall be made
by the |
employer to the Department on forms provided by the
|
Department. The Department shall forward the card to the
|
employer who shall be responsible for its issuance to the |
licensee or
employee. The firearm control card shall be issued |
by
the Department and shall identify the person holding it and
|
the name of the course where the licensee or employee received |
firearm
instruction and shall specify the type of weapon or |
weapons
the person is authorized by the Department to carry |
and for
which the person has been trained.
|
(e) Expiration and requirements for renewal of firearm |
control cards shall be determined by rule.
|
(f) The Department may, in addition to any other
|
disciplinary action permitted by this Act, refuse to issue,
|
suspend, or revoke a firearm control card if the
applicant or |
holder has been convicted of any felony or crime
involving the |
illegal use, carrying, or possession of a deadly
weapon or for |
a violation of this Act or rules promulgated
under this Act. |
The Department shall refuse to issue or shall
revoke a firearm |
control card if the applicant or holder
fails to possess a |
valid firearm owners identification card without hearing.
The |
Secretary shall summarily suspend a firearm control
card if |
|
the Secretary finds that its continued use would
constitute an |
imminent danger to the public. A hearing shall
be held before |
the Board within 30 days if the Secretary
summarily suspends a |
firearm control card.
|
(g) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the
|
contrary, all requirements relating to firearms control
cards |
do not apply to a peace officer. If an individual ceases to be |
employed as a peace officer and continues to perform services |
in an armed capacity under this Act that are licensed |
activities, then the individual is required to obtain a |
permanent employee registration card pursuant to Section 35-30 |
of this Act and must possess a valid Firearm Owner's |
Identification Card, but is not required to obtain a firearm |
control card if the individual is otherwise in continuing |
compliance with the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety |
Act of 2004. If an individual elects to carry a firearm |
pursuant to the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of |
2004, then the agency employing the officer shall is required |
to submit an application a notice of that election to the |
Department for issuance of a waiver card along with a fee |
specified by rule.
|
(h) The Department may issue a temporary firearm control |
card pending issuance of a new firearm control card upon an |
agency's acquiring of an established armed account. An agency |
that has acquired armed employees as a result of acquiring an |
established armed account may, on forms supplied by the |
|
Department, request the issuance of a temporary firearm |
control card for each acquired employee who held a valid |
firearm control card under the employer's his or her |
employment with the newly acquired established armed account |
immediately preceding the acquiring of the account and who |
continues to meet all of the qualifications for issuance of a |
firearm control card set forth in this Act and any rules |
adopted under this Act. The Department shall, by rule, set the |
fee for issuance of a temporary firearm control card.
|
(i) The Department shall not issue a firearm control card |
to a licensed fingerprint vendor or a licensed locksmith or |
employees of a licensed fingerprint vendor agency or a |
licensed locksmith agency.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-712, eff. 8-3-18.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/35-43) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 35-43. Requirement of a canine trainer authorization |
card; qualifications. |
(a) No person may perform duties that include the training |
of canine handlers and canines to
protect persons or property |
or to conduct investigations without having been issued a |
valid canine trainer authorization card by the
Department. |
(b) No employer shall employ any person to perform the |
duties for which employee registration
is required under this |
Act and allow that person to train canine handlers and canines |
|
unless that person has been issued a canine
trainer |
authorization card. |
(c) The Department shall issue a canine trainer |
authorization card to a person who (i) has passed an
approved |
canine trainer training course, (ii) is currently employed by |
an agency licensed under this
Act, and (iii) has met all of the |
applicable requirements of this Act. Application for the |
canine trainer authorization
card shall be made by the |
employer to the Department on forms provided by the |
Department.
The Department shall forward the card to the |
employer who shall be responsible for its issuance
to the |
employee. |
(d) The Department may, in addition to any other |
disciplinary action permitted by this Act, refuse
to issue, |
suspend, or revoke a canine trainer authorization card if the |
applicant or holder has been
convicted of any felony or |
misdemeanor involving cruelty to animals or for a violation of |
this
Act or rules promulgated under this Act. |
(e) Qualifications for canine trainers shall be set by the |
Department by rule. Any person who has been engaged in the |
provision of canine trainer services prior to January 1, 2005, |
shall be granted a canine trainer authorization card upon the |
submission of a completed application, the payment of |
applicable fees, and the demonstration satisfactory to the |
Department of the provision of such services.
|
(Source: P.A. 95-613, eff. 9-11-07 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 447/35-45)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 35-45. Armed proprietary security force.
|
(a) All financial institutions or commercial or industrial |
operations that employ one or more
armed employees shall |
register their security forces
with the Department on forms |
provided by the Department. Registration subjects the security |
force to all of the requirements of Section 35-40. For the |
purposes of this Section,
"financial institution" includes a |
bank, savings and loan
association, credit union, currency |
exchange, or company
providing armored car services.
|
(b) All armed employees of the registered
proprietary |
security force must complete a 20-hour basic
training course |
and all the firearm training requirements of Section 35-40.
|
(c) Every proprietary security force is required to
apply |
to the Department, on forms supplied by the Department,
for a |
firearm control card for each armed employee. Each armed
|
employee shall have the employee's his or her fingerprints |
submitted to the
Department of State Police in an electronic |
format that
complies with the form and manner for requesting |
and
furnishing criminal history record information as |
prescribed
by the Department of State Police. These |
fingerprints shall be
checked against the Department of State |
Police and Federal
Bureau of Investigation criminal history |
record databases. The Department of State Police shall
charge |
|
the armed employee a fee for conducting the criminal
history |
records check, which shall be deposited in the State
Police |
Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of
the |
records check. The Department of State Police shall
furnish, |
pursuant to positive identification, records of
Illinois |
convictions to the Department. The Department may
require |
armed employees to pay a separate fingerprinting fee,
either |
to the Department or directly to the vendor. The
Department, |
in its discretion, may allow an armed employee who
does not |
have reasonable access to a designated vendor to
provide the |
employee's his or her fingerprints in an alternative manner. |
The
Department, in its discretion, may also use other |
procedures
in performing or obtaining criminal background |
checks of armed
employees. Instead of submitting the |
employee's his or her fingerprints, an
individual may submit |
proof that is satisfactory to the
Department that an |
equivalent security clearance has been
conducted. Also, an |
individual who has retired as a peace
officer within 12 months |
before application may submit
verification, on forms provided |
by the Department and signed
by the employee's his or her |
employer, of the employee's his or her previous full-time
|
employment as a peace officer.
|
(d) The Department may provide rules for the
|
administration of this Section.
|
(Source: P.A. 102-152, eff. 1-1-22 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 447/40-5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 40-5. Injunctive relief. |
(a) The practice of a private
detective, private security |
contractor, private alarm
contractor, fingerprint vendor, |
locksmith, private detective agency, private
security |
contractor agency, private alarm contractor agency,
|
fingerprint vendor agency, or locksmith agency by any person, |
firm, corporation, or other
legal entity that has not been |
issued a license by the
Department or whose license has been |
suspended, revoked, or
not renewed is hereby declared to be |
inimical to the public
safety and welfare and to constitute a |
public nuisance. The
Secretary may, in the name of the People |
of the State of Illinois through the Attorney General of the |
State of Illinois or the State's Attorney
of any county in |
which the violation is alleged to have occurred in the State of |
Illinois, petition for an order enjoining the violation or for |
an order enforcing compliance with this Act. Upon the
filing |
of a verified petition in court, if satisfied by
affidavit or |
otherwise that the person, firm, corporation, or
other legal |
entity is or has been conducting activities in
violation of |
this Act, the court may enter a temporary
restraining order or |
preliminary injunction, without bond,
enjoining the defendant |
from further activity. A copy of the
verified complaint shall |
be served upon the defendant and the
proceedings shall be |
conducted as in civil cases. If it is
established the |
|
defendant has been or is conducting activities
in violation of |
this Act, the court may enter a judgment
enjoining the |
defendant from that activity. In case of
violation of any |
injunctive order or judgment entered under
this Section, the |
court may punish the offender for contempt
of court. |
Injunctive proceedings shall be in addition to all
other |
penalties under this Act.
|
(b) If any person practices as a private detective, |
private security contractor, private alarm contractor, |
fingerprint vendor, locksmith, private detective agency, |
private security contractor agency, private alarm contractor |
agency, fingerprint vendor agency, or locksmith agency or |
holds himself or herself out as such without having a valid |
license under this Act, then any licensee, any interested |
party, or any person injured thereby may, in addition to the |
Secretary, petition for relief as provided in subsection (a) |
of this Section. Reasonable attorney's fees and costs may be |
awarded to the licensee, interested party, or person injured |
if the licensee, interested party, or person injured he or she |
successfully obtains injunctive relief, whether by consent or |
otherwise. |
(Source: P.A. 102-418, eff. 8-20-21.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/40-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 40-10. Disciplinary sanctions.
|
|
(a) The Department may deny issuance, refuse to renew,
or |
restore or may reprimand, place on probation, suspend,
revoke, |
or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against |
any license, registration, permanent employee
registration |
card, canine handler authorization card, canine trainer |
authorization card, or firearm control
card, may
impose a fine |
not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, and may assess costs |
as provided for under Section 45-60, for
any of the following:
|
(1) Fraud, deception, or misrepresentation in |
obtaining or renewing of
a license or registration.
|
(2) Professional incompetence as manifested by poor
|
standards of service.
|
(3) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
|
unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
|
defraud, or harm the public.
|
(4) Conviction of or plea of guilty or plea of nolo |
contendere to a felony or misdemeanor in this State or any |
other jurisdiction or the entry of an administrative |
sanction by a government agency in this State or any other |
jurisdiction; action taken under this paragraph (4) for a |
misdemeanor or an administrative sanction is limited to a |
misdemeanor or administrative sanction that has as an |
essential element of dishonesty or fraud or involves |
larceny, embezzlement, or obtaining money, property, or |
credit by false pretenses or by means of a confidence |
game.
|
|
(5) Performing any services in a grossly negligent
|
manner or permitting any of a licensee's employees to |
perform
services in a grossly negligent manner, regardless |
of whether
actual damage to the public is established.
|
(6) Continued practice, although the person
has become |
unfit to practice due to any of the
following:
|
(A) Physical illness, mental illness, or other |
impairment, including, but not
limited to, |
deterioration through the aging process or loss of
|
motor skills that results in the inability to serve |
the public
with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.
|
(B) (Blank).
|
(C) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs |
defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or |
any other substance that results in the inability to |
practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.
|
(7) Receiving, directly or indirectly, compensation
|
for any services not rendered.
|
(8) Willfully deceiving or defrauding the public on
a |
material matter.
|
(9) Failing to account for or remit any moneys or
|
documents coming into the licensee's possession that
|
belong to another person or entity.
|
(10) Discipline by another United States
jurisdiction, |
foreign nation, or governmental agency, if at least one of |
the grounds
for the discipline is the same or |
|
substantially equivalent to
those set forth in this Act.
|
(11) Giving differential treatment to a person that
is |
to that person's detriment because of race, color, creed,
|
sex, religion, or national origin.
|
(12) Engaging in false or misleading advertising.
|
(13) Aiding, assisting, or willingly permitting
|
another person to violate this Act or rules promulgated |
under
it.
|
(14) Performing and charging for services without
|
authorization to do so from the person or entity serviced.
|
(15) Directly or indirectly offering or accepting
any |
benefit to or from any employee, agent, or fiduciary
|
without the consent of the latter's employer or principal |
with
intent to or the understanding that this action will |
influence
the person's his or her conduct in relation to |
the person's his or her employer's or
principal's affairs.
|
(16) Violation of any disciplinary order imposed on
a |
licensee by the Department.
|
(17) Performing any act or practice that is a |
violation of this Act or the rules for the administration |
of this Act, or having a conviction or administrative |
finding of guilty as a result of violating any federal or |
State laws, rules, or regulations that apply exclusively |
to the practices of private detectives, private alarm |
contractors, private security contractors, fingerprint |
vendors, or locksmiths.
|
|
(18) Owning, operating, or managing Conducting an |
agency without a valid license.
|
(19) Revealing confidential information, except as
|
required by law, including but not limited to information
|
available under Section 2-123 of the Illinois Vehicle |
Code.
|
(20) Failing to make available to the Department,
upon |
request, any books, records, or forms required by this
|
Act.
|
(21) Failing, within 30 days, to respond to a
written |
request for information from the Department.
|
(22) Failing to provide employment information or
|
experience information required by the Department |
regarding an
applicant for licensure.
|
(23) Failing to make available to the Department at
|
the time of the request any indicia of licensure or
|
registration issued under this Act.
|
(24) Purporting to be a licensee-in-charge of an
|
agency without active participation in the agency.
|
(25) A finding by the Department that the licensee, |
after having the licensee's his or her license placed on |
probationary status, has violated the terms of probation. |
(26) Violating subsection (f) of Section 30-30. |
(27) A firearm control card holder having more |
firearms in the holder's his or her immediate possession |
than the holder he or she can reasonably exercise control |
|
over. |
(28) Failure to report in writing to the Department, |
within 60 days of an entry of a settlement or a verdict in |
excess of $10,000, any legal action in which the quality |
of the licensee's or registrant's professional services |
was the subject of the legal action. |
(b) All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid |
within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing |
the fine.
|
(c) The Department shall adopt rules that set forth |
standards of service for the following:
(i) acceptable error |
rate in the transmission of fingerprint images and other data |
to the Illinois State Police;
(ii) acceptable error rate in |
the collection and documentation of information used to |
generate
fingerprint work orders;
and (iii) any other standard |
of service that affects fingerprinting services as determined |
by the
Department.
|
The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is |
subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as |
provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities |
Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will |
end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no |
longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission |
and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the |
patient. |
(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
|
|
(225 ILCS 447/40-20)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 40-20. Confidential information; violation. Any
|
person who is or has been an employee of a licensee shall not
|
divulge to anyone, other than to the person's his or her |
employer, except
as required by law or at the his employer's |
direction, any
confidential or proprietary information |
acquired during the person's his or
her employment. Any |
individual who violates this Section or
who files false papers |
or reports to the person's his or her employer may
be |
disciplined under Section 40-10 of this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 93-438, eff. 8-5-03 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/40-25)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 40-25. Submission to physical or mental examination. |
(a) The Department or Board upon a showing of a possible |
violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under |
this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to |
submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, which may
|
include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as |
required by and at the expense of the Department. The
|
Department or Board shall specifically designate the examining
|
physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches
|
or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in
|
|
providing the mental or physical examination, evaluation,
or |
both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a
physician |
licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches
and may |
consist of one or more or a combination of physicians
licensed |
to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed
|
chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists,
|
licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical
|
professional counselors, and other professional and
|
administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the
|
multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to
|
submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this
|
Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing
|
deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation
|
process, including, but not limited to, blood testing,
|
urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological
|
testing. The Department or the Board may order the examining
|
physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to
|
provide to the Department any and all records, including
|
business records, that relate to the examination and
|
evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The
|
Department or the Board may order the examining physician or
|
any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony
|
concerning this examination and evaluation of the licensee or
|
applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental
|
testing or documents relating to the examination and
|
evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents
|
|
in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be
|
excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege
|
relating to communication between the licensee or applicant
|
and the examining physician or any member of the
|
multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the
|
licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and
|
examination for the examining physician or any member of the
|
multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports,
|
records, or other documents or to provide any testimony
|
regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be |
examined may have, at the individual's his or her own expense, |
another physician of the individual's his or her choice |
present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an |
individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, or |
both, when directed, shall result in automatic suspension |
without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to |
the examination. |
(b) In instances in which the Secretary immediately |
suspends a person's license for the person's his or her |
failure to submit to a mental or physical examination when |
directed, a hearing on that person's license must be convened |
by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and |
completed without appreciable delay. |
(c) In instances in which the Secretary otherwise suspends |
a person's license pursuant to the results of a compelled |
mental or physical examination, a hearing on that person's |
|
license must be convened by the Department within 15 days |
after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. |
The Department and Board shall have the authority to review |
the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling |
regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable |
federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the |
confidentiality of medical records. |
(d) An individual licensed under this Act and affected |
under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to |
demonstrate to the Department or Board that the individual he |
or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and |
prevailing standards under the provisions of the individual's |
his or her license.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/40-30)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 40-30. Insufficient funds; checks. A person who
|
delivers a check or other payment to the Department that is
|
returned to the Department unpaid by the financial institution
|
upon which it was drawn shall pay to the Department, in
|
addition to the amount already owed, a penalty of $50. The
|
Department shall notify the person by first class mail
that |
the person's his or her check
or payment was returned and that |
the person shall pay to the
Department by certified check or |
money order the amount of the
returned check plus a $50 penalty |
|
within 30 calendar days
after the date of the notification. |
If, after the expiration
of 30 calendar days of the |
notification, the person has failed
to remit the necessary |
funds and penalty, the Department shall
automatically |
terminate the license or deny the application
without a |
hearing. If the returned check or other payment was
for |
issuance of a license under this Act and that person
practices |
as a licensee, that person may be subject to
discipline for |
unlicensed practice as provided in this Act.
If, after |
termination or denial, the person seeks a license,
the person |
he or she shall petition the Department for restoration and |
the person he
or she may be subject to additional discipline or |
fines. The Secretary
may waive the penalties or fines due |
under this
Section in individual cases where the Secretary |
finds that the
penalties or fines would be unreasonable or |
unnecessarily
burdensome.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/45-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 45-10. Complaints; investigations; hearings.
|
(a) The Department may investigate the actions of
any |
applicant or of any person or persons holding or claiming
to |
hold a license or registration under this Act.
|
(b) The Department shall,
before disciplining a
licensee |
under Section 40-10 or refusing to issue or license, at least |
|
30 days before the date
set for the hearing, (i) notify the |
accused in writing of the
charges made and the time and place |
for the hearing on the
charges, (ii) direct the accused him or |
her to file a written answer to
the charges under oath within |
20 days after service, and (iii)
inform the applicant or |
licensee that failure to answer will
result in a default being |
entered against the applicant or
licensee.
|
(c) At the time and place fixed in the notice, the Board
or |
the hearing officer appointed by the Secretary shall
proceed |
to hear the charges, and the parties or their counsel
shall be |
accorded ample opportunity to present any pertinent
|
statements, testimony, evidence, and arguments. The Board or
|
hearing officer may continue the hearing from time to time. In
|
case the person, after receiving the notice, fails to file an
|
answer, the person's his or her license may, in the discretion |
of the
Secretary, having first received the recommendation of |
the
Board, be suspended, revoked, or placed on probationary
|
status, or be subject to whatever disciplinary action the
|
Secretary considers proper, including limiting the scope,
|
nature, or extent of the person's practice or the imposition
|
of a fine, without hearing, if the act or acts charged
|
constitute sufficient grounds for that action under this Act.
|
(d) The written notice and any notice in the subsequent
|
proceeding may be served by regular or certified mail to the
|
licensee's address of record or electronically to the |
licensee's email address of record, or, if in
the course of the |
|
administrative proceeding the party has
previously designated |
a specific email address at which to
accept electronic service |
for that specific proceeding, by
sending a copy by email to the |
party's email address on
record .
|
(e) The Secretary has the authority to appoint any
|
attorney licensed to practice law in the State of Illinois
to |
serve as the hearing officer in any action for refusal
to |
issue, restore, or renew a license or to discipline a
|
licensee. The hearing officer has full authority to
conduct |
the hearing.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/45-15)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 45-15. Hearing; rehearing.
|
(a) The Board or the hearing officer authorized by the
|
Department shall hear evidence in support of the formal
|
charges and evidence produced by the licensee. At the
|
conclusion of the hearing, the Board shall present to the |
Secretary a written report of its findings of
fact, |
conclusions of law, and recommendations. The
report shall |
contain a finding of whether the accused
person violated this |
Act or failed to comply with the
conditions required in this |
Act. The Board shall specify
the nature of the violation or |
failure to comply and shall
make its recommendation to the |
Secretary.
|
|
(b) At the conclusion of the hearing, a copy of the Board |
or hearing officer's report shall be served upon the
applicant |
or licensee by the Department, either personally
or as |
provided in this Act for the service of a notice of
hearing. |
Within 20 calendar days after service, the
applicant or |
licensee may present to the Secretary Department a
motion in |
writing for a rehearing, which shall specify the
particular |
grounds for rehearing. The Department may
respond to the |
motion for rehearing within 20 calendar
days after its service |
on the Department. If no motion for
rehearing is filed, then |
upon the expiration of the time
specified for filing such a |
motion, or upon denial of a motion for rehearing, the |
Secretary may
enter an order in accordance with the |
recommendations of
the Board or hearing officer. If the |
applicant or licensee
orders from the reporting service and |
pays for a
transcript of the record within the time for filing |
a
motion for rehearing, the 20-day period within which a
|
motion may be filed shall commence upon the delivery of
the |
transcript to the applicant or licensee.
|
(c) If the Secretary disagrees in any regard with the
|
report of the Board or the hearing officer , the Secretary may |
issue an order contrary to the report. The finding is not |
admissible
in evidence against the person in a criminal |
prosecution
brought for the violation of this Act, but the |
hearing and
findings are not a bar to a criminal prosecution |
for the
violation of this Act. |
|
(d) Whenever
the Secretary is not satisfied that |
substantial justice has been done, the Secretary
may order a |
rehearing by
the same or another hearing officer.
|
(e) All proceedings under this Section are matters of
|
public record and shall be preserved.
|
(f) Upon the suspension or revocation of a license, the
|
licensee shall surrender the license to the Department and,
|
upon failure to do so, the Department shall seize the same.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/45-40)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 45-40. Administrative review. All final
|
administrative decisions of the Department
are subject to |
judicial review under
Article III of the Code of Civil |
Procedure. The term
"administrative decision" is defined as in |
Section 3-101 of
the Code of Civil Procedure. The proceedings |
for judicial
review shall be commenced in the circuit court of |
the county
in which the party applying for review resides; but |
if
the party is not a resident of Illinois, the venue shall be |
in
Sangamon County. The Department shall not be required to
|
certify any record to the court or file any answer in court
or |
otherwise appear in any court in a judicial review
proceeding, |
unless and until the Department has received from the |
plaintiff payment of the costs of furnishing and certifying |
the record, which costs shall be determined by the Department.
|
|
Exhibits shall be certified without cost. Failure on the part
|
of the applicant or licensee to file a receipt in court is |
grounds for
dismissal of the action. During all judicial |
proceedings
incident to a disciplinary action, the sanctions
|
imposed upon a licensee by the Department shall remain in
|
effect, unless the court determines justice requires a stay of
|
the order.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-1445, eff. 8-20-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/45-55)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 45-55. Subpoenas.
|
(a) The Department may subpoena and bring before it any
|
person to take the oral or written testimony or compel the |
production of any books, papers, records, or any other |
documents that the Secretary or the Secretary's his or her |
designee deems relevant or material to any such investigation |
or hearing conducted by the Department
with the same fees and |
in the
same manner as prescribed in civil cases in the courts |
of this State.
|
(b) Any circuit court, upon the application of the |
applicant,
licensee, or Department, may order
the
attendance |
and testimony of witnesses and the production of relevant |
documents, files, records, books
and papers in connection with |
any hearing or investigation.
The
circuit court may compel |
obedience to its order by proceedings
for contempt.
|
|
(c) The Secretary, the hearing officer, any member of the |
Board, or a certified
shorthand court reporter may administer |
oaths at any hearing
the Department conducts. Notwithstanding |
any other statute or
Department rule to the contrary, all |
requests for testimony,
production of documents or records |
shall be in
accordance with this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/50-5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 50-5. Personnel; investigators. The Secretary shall
|
employ, pursuant to the Personnel Code, personnel, on a |
full-time or part-time
basis, for the enforcement of this
Act. |
Each investigator shall have a minimum of 2 years
|
investigative experience out of the immediately preceding 5
|
years. No investigator may hold an active license issued
|
pursuant to this Act, nor may an investigator have a financial
|
interest in a business licensed under this Act. This
|
prohibition, however, does not apply to an investigator
|
holding stock in a business licensed under this Act, provided
|
the investigator does not hold more than 5% of the stock in
the |
business. Any person licensed under this Act who is
employed |
by the Department shall surrender the person's his or her |
license
to the Department for the duration of that employment. |
The
licensee shall be exempt from all renewal fees while |
employed.
While employed by the Department, the licensee is |
|
not required
to maintain the general liability insurance |
coverage required
by this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/50-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 50-10. The Private Detective,
Private Alarm, Private |
Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Board. |
(a) The Private Detective, Private
Alarm, Private |
Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Board shall |
consist of
13 members appointed by the Secretary and comprised |
of 2
licensed private detectives, 3 licensed private security
|
contractors, one licensed private detective or licensed |
private security contractor who provides canine odor detection |
services, 2 licensed private alarm contractors, one licensed |
fingerprint vendor except for the initial appointment who |
shall be required to have experience in the fingerprint vendor |
industry that is acceptable to the Department , 2 licensed
|
locksmiths, one public member who is not licensed or
|
registered under this Act and who has no connection with a
|
business licensed under this Act, and one member representing
|
the employees registered under this Act. Each member shall be
|
a resident of Illinois. Each Except for the initial |
appointment of a licensed fingerprint vendor after the |
effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General |
Assembly, each licensed member shall have at
least 5 years |
|
experience as a licensee in the professional
area in which the |
person is licensed and be in good standing
and actively |
engaged in that profession. In making
appointments, the |
Secretary shall consider the recommendations
of the |
professionals and the professional organizations
representing |
the licensees. The membership shall reasonably
reflect the |
different geographic areas in Illinois.
|
(b) Members shall serve 4-year 4 year terms and may serve |
until
their successors are appointed. No member shall serve |
for
more than 2 successive terms. Appointments to fill |
vacancies
shall be made in the same manner as the original |
appointments
for the unexpired portion of the vacated term.
|
(c) A member of the Board may be removed for cause. A
|
member subject to formal disciplinary proceedings shall
|
disqualify oneself himself or herself from all Board business |
until
the charge is resolved. A member also shall disqualify
|
oneself himself or herself from any matter on which the member |
cannot
act objectively.
|
(d) Members shall receive compensation as set by law.
Each |
member shall receive reimbursement as set by the
Governor's |
Travel Control Board for expenses incurred in
carrying out the |
duties as a Board member.
|
(e) A majority of Board members constitutes a quorum. A
|
majority vote of the quorum is required for a decision.
|
(f) The Board shall elect a chairperson and vice
|
chairperson annually .
|
|
(g) Board members are not liable for their acts,
|
omissions, decisions, or other conduct in connection with
|
their duties on the Board, except those determined to be
|
willful, wanton, or intentional misconduct.
|
(h) The Board may recommend policies, procedures, and
|
rules relevant to the administration and enforcement of this
|
Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/50-15)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 50-15. Powers and duties of the Department. Subject |
to the provisions of this Act, the Department may exercise the |
following powers and duties:
|
(1) Prescribe forms to be issued for
the |
administration and enforcement of this Act.
|
(2) Authorize examinations to ascertain the |
qualifications and fitness of applicants for licensing as |
a locksmith, private alarm contractor, private detective, |
or private security contractor and pass upon the |
qualifications of applicants for licensure. |
(3) Examine the records of licensees or investigate |
any other aspect of fingerprint vending, locksmithing, |
private alarm contracting, private security contracting, |
or practicing as a private detective that is relevant to |
the Department's investigation or hearing. |
|
(4) Conduct hearings on proceedings to refuse to issue |
or renew licenses or to revoke, suspend, place on |
probation, reprimand, or otherwise discipline a license |
under this Act or take other non-disciplinary action. |
(5) Adopt rules required for the administration of |
this Act. |
(6) (Blank). Maintain rosters of the names and |
addresses of all licensees and all persons whose licenses |
have been suspended, revoked, denied renewal, or otherwise |
disciplined within the previous calendar year. These |
rosters shall be available upon written request and |
payment of the required fee as established by rule. |
(Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 447/50-20)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 50-20. Rules. The Department may promulgate rules
for |
the administration and enforcement of this Act. The rules
|
shall include standards for registration, licensure,
|
professional conduct, and discipline. The Department shall
|
consult with the Board prior to promulgating any rule.
|
Proposed rules shall be transmitted, prior to publication in
|
the Illinois Register, to the Board and the Department shall
|
review the Board's recommendations and shall notify the Board
|
with an explanation of any deviations from the Board's
|
recommendations .
|
|
(Source: P.A. 93-438, eff. 8-5-03 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/50-45) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 50-45. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act; |
application. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is |
expressly adopted and incorporated in this Act as if all of the |
provisions of that Act were included in this Act, except that |
the provision of paragraph (d) of Section 10-65 of the |
Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, which provides that at |
hearings the registrant or licensee has the right to show |
compliance with all lawful requirements for retention or |
continuation or renewal of the license, is specifically |
excluded. For the purpose of this Act, the notice required |
under Section 10-25 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure |
Act is considered sufficient when mailed to the address of |
record or sent electronically to the email address of record |
or, if in the course of the administrative
proceeding the |
party has previously designated a specific
email address at |
which to accept electronic service for that
specific |
proceeding, by sending a copy by email to the party's
email |
address on record last known address of a party .
|
(Source: P.A. 96-1445, eff. 8-20-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 447/50-35 rep.)
|
Section 35. The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private |
|
Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and
Locksmith Act of 2004 is |
amended by repealing Section 50-35.
|
Section 40. The Illinois Public Accounting Act is amended |
by changing Sections 0.02, 0.03, 1, 2, 2.05, 2.1, 3, 4, 5.2, |
6.1, 8, 9.3, 13, 13.5, 14.2, 14.5, 16, 17, 17.1, 17.2, 20.01, |
20.1, 20.2, 20.6, 20.7, 21, 27, and 30 and by adding Section |
0.04 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 450/0.02) (from Ch. 111, par. 5500.02)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 0.02. Declaration of public policy. It is the policy |
of this State and the purpose of this Act:
|
(a) to promote the dependability of information which |
is used for guidance
in financial transactions or for |
accounting for or assessing the status
or performance of |
commercial and noncommercial enterprises, whether public,
|
private, or governmental; and
|
(b) to protect the public interest by requiring that |
persons engaged in
the practice of public accounting be |
qualified; that a public authority
competent to prescribe |
and assess the qualifications of public accountants
be |
established; and
|
(c) that preparing, auditing, or examining financial |
statements and issuing
a report expressing or disclaiming |
an opinion on such statements or expressing
assurance on |
|
such statements be reserved to persons who demonstrate the |
their
ability and fitness to observe and apply the |
standards of the accounting
profession; and that the use |
of accounting titles likely to confuse the
public be |
prohibited.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/0.03) (from Ch. 111, par. 5500.03)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 0.03. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
context
otherwise requires:
|
"Accountancy activities" means the services as set forth |
in Section 8.05 of this the Act. |
"Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
by the Department in the applicant's, licensee's, or |
registrant's application file or license file maintained by |
the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of |
the applicant, licensee, or registrant to inform the |
Department of any change of address, and those changes must be |
made either through the Department's website or by directly |
contacting the Department. |
"Certification" means certification by the Board or |
University or similar jurisdictions specifying an individual |
has successfully passed all sections and requirements of the |
Uniform Certified Public Accountant Examination and |
verification of completion of 150 credit hours. Certification |
|
by the Board or University or similar jurisdiction does not |
confer the ability to use the CPA title and is not equivalent |
to a registration or license under this Act. |
"Compilation" means providing a service to be performed in |
accordance with Statements on Standards for Accounting and |
Review Services that is presented in the form of financial |
statements or information that is the representation of |
management or owners without undertaking to express any |
assurance on the statements. |
"Coordinator" means the CPA Coordinator. |
"CPA" or "C.P.A." means a certified public accountant who |
holds a license or registration issued by the Department or an |
individual authorized to use the CPA title under Section 5.2 |
of this Act. |
"CPA firm" means a sole proprietorship, a corporation, |
registered limited liability partnership, limited liability |
company, partnership, professional service corporation, or any |
other form of organization issued a license in accordance with |
this Act or a CPA firm authorized to use the CPA firm title |
under Section 5.2 of this Act. |
"CPA (inactive)" means a licensed certified public |
accountant who elects to have the Department place the |
licensee's his or her license on inactive status pursuant to |
Section 17.2 of this Act. |
"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
|
application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained |
by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. |
"Exam certificate" means an exam certificate issued by the |
Board, the University, or a similar jurisdiction specifying |
that an individual has successfully passed all sections and |
requirements of the Uniform Certified Public Accountant |
Examination. An exam certificate issued by the Board, the |
University, or a similar jurisdiction does not confer the |
ability to use the CPA title and is not equivalent to a |
registration or license under this
Act. |
"Financial statement" means a structured presentation of |
historical financial information, including, but not limited |
to, related notes intended to communicate an entity's economic |
resources and obligations at a point in time or the changes |
therein for a period of time in accordance with generally |
accepted accounting principles (GAAP) or other comprehensive |
basis of accounting (OCBOA). |
"Other attestation engagements" means an engagement |
performed in accordance with the Statements on Standards for |
Attestation Engagements. |
"Registered Certified Public Accountant" or "registered |
CPA" means any person who has been issued
a registration under |
this Act as a Registered Certified Public Accountant.
|
"Report", when used with reference to financial |
statements, means an opinion, report, or other form of |
language that states or implies assurance as to the |
|
reliability of any financial statements and that also includes |
or is accompanied by any statement or implication that the |
person or firm issuing it has special knowledge or competence |
in accounting or auditing. Such a statement or implication of |
special knowledge or competence may arise from use by the |
issuer of the report of names or titles indicating that the |
person or firm is an accountant or auditor, or from the |
language of the report itself. "Report" includes any form of |
language that disclaims an opinion when the form of language |
is conventionally understood to imply any positive assurance |
as to the reliability of the financial statements referred to |
or special competence on the part of the person or firm issuing |
such language; it includes any other form of language that is |
conventionally understood to imply such assurance or such |
special knowledge or competence. |
"Licensed Certified Public Accountant" or "licensed CPA" |
means any person licensed
under this Act as a Licensed |
Certified Public Accountant.
|
"Committee" means the Public Accountant Registration and |
Licensure Committee appointed by the Secretary.
|
"Department" means the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation.
|
"License", "licensee", and "licensure" refer to the |
authorization
to practice under the provisions of this Act.
|
"Peer review" means a study, appraisal, or review of one |
or
more aspects of a CPA firm's or sole practitioner's |
|
compliance with applicable accounting, auditing, and other |
attestation standards adopted by generally recognized |
standard-setting bodies.
|
"Principal place of business" means the office location |
designated by the licensee from which the person directs, |
controls, and coordinates one's his or her professional |
services. |
"Review committee" means any person or persons conducting, |
reviewing,
administering, or supervising a peer review |
program.
|
"Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department of |
Financial and Professional Regulation. |
"University" means the University of Illinois.
|
"Board" means the Board of Examiners established under |
Section 2.
|
"Registration", "registrant", and "registered" refer to |
the authorization to hold oneself out as or use the title |
"Registered Certified Public Accountant" or "Certified Public |
Accountant", unless the context otherwise requires.
|
"Peer Review Administrator" means an organization |
designated by the Department that meets the requirements of |
subsection (f) of Section 16 of this Act and other rules that |
the Department may adopt.
|
(Source: P.A. 102-222, eff. 1-1-22 .)
|
(225 ILCS 450/0.04 new) |
|
Sec. 0.04. Address of record; email address of record. |
All applicants and registrants shall: |
(1) provide a valid address and email address to the |
Department, which shall serve as the address of record and |
email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
application for registration or renewal of a registration; |
and |
(2) inform the Department of any change of address
of |
record or email address of record within 14 days after |
such change either through the Department's website or by |
contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.
|
(225 ILCS 450/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 5501)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 1. No person shall hold oneself himself or herself |
out to the public in this State in any manner by using the |
title "Certified Public Accountant", "Licensed Certified |
Public Accountant", "Registered Certified Public Accountant", |
"Public Accountant", or use the abbreviation "C.P.A.",
"CPA", |
"LCPA", "RCPA", "PA", or any words or letters to indicate that |
the person using the same
is a licensed CPA or registered CPA, |
unless the person he or she has been issued a license or |
registration by the Department under this Act or is exercising |
the practice privilege afforded under Section 5.2 of this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
|
(225 ILCS 450/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 5502)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 2. Board of Examiners. The Governor shall appoint a |
Board
of
Examiners that shall determine the qualifications of |
persons applying for certification
and shall make rules for |
and conduct examinations for determining
the qualifications. |
The Board shall consist of
11 examiners,
including 2 |
public
members. The
remainder shall be
certified
public |
accountants in this State who have been residents of this |
State for at
least 5 years immediately preceding their |
appointment to the Board , except that one shall be either
a |
certified public accountant of the grade herein described or |
an
attorney licensed and
residing in this State and one shall |
be a certified public accountant who is an
active or retired |
educator residing in this State. The term of office of each
|
examiner shall be 3 years. As the term of
each examiner |
expires, the appointment shall be filled for a term of 3 years
|
from the date of expiration. Any Board member who has served as |
a member for 6
consecutive years shall not be eligible for |
reappointment until 2 years after
the end of the term in which |
the sixth consecutive year of service occurred,
except that |
members of the
Board serving on the effective date of this |
Section shall be eligible
for appointment to one additional |
3-year term. Where the expiration of
any member's term shall |
result in less than 11 members then serving on
the Board, the |
member shall continue to serve until a his or her successor is
|
|
appointed and has qualified. Except as otherwise provided in |
this Section, no Board member shall serve more than 2 full |
consecutive terms. Anyone appointed to the Board shall be |
ineligible to be appointed to the Illinois Public Accountants |
Registration and Licensure Committee appointed by the |
Secretary.
Appointments to fill vacancies shall be made in the |
same manner as original appointments for the unexpired portion |
of the vacated term. The membership of the Board shall |
reasonably reflect representation from the geographic areas in |
this State. The members of the Board appointed by the Governor |
shall receive reasonable compensation for the member's their |
necessary, legitimate, and authorized expenses in accordance |
with the Governor's Travel Control Board rules and the Travel |
Regulation Rules. The Governor may terminate the term of any
|
member of the Board at any time for cause.
|
Information regarding educational requirements, the |
application process,
the
examination, and fees shall be |
available on the Board's Internet web site as
well as in
|
printed documents available from the Board's office.
|
The Board shall adopt all necessary and reasonable rules |
and regulations
for the effective administration of this Act. |
Without limiting the foregoing,
the Board
shall adopt and |
prescribe rules and regulations for a fair and
impartial |
method of determining the qualifications of applicants for
|
examination and for a fair and impartial method of examination |
of
persons under Section 2 and may establish rules for |
|
subjects conditioned and
for the transfer of credits from |
other jurisdictions with respect to subjects
passed. The Board |
shall verify completion of educational requirements for |
certification as required under this Act. |
The Board shall make an annual report of its activities to |
the Governor and the Secretary. This report shall include a |
complete operating and financial statement covering its |
operations during the year, the number of examinations given, |
the pass/fail ratio for examinations, and any other |
information deemed appropriate. The Board shall have an audit |
of its books and accounts every 2 years by the Auditor General.
|
(Source: P.A. 102-222, eff. 1-1-22 .) |
(225 ILCS 450/2.05)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 2.05. Public Accountant Registration and Licensure |
Committee. The Secretary shall appoint a Public Accountant |
Registration and Licensure Committee consisting of 7 persons, |
who shall be appointed by and shall serve in an advisory |
capacity to the Secretary. A majority of the members must be |
licensed CPAs in good standing and must be actively engaged in |
the practice of public accounting in this State. The remaining |
members must include registered CPAs in good standing in this |
State and one member of the public who is not licensed or |
registered under this Act or a similar Act of another |
jurisdiction and who has no connection with the accounting or |
|
public accounting profession. Four members of the Committee |
shall constitute a quorum. A quorum is required for all |
Committee decisions. Members shall serve 4-year terms and |
until the member's their successors are appointed and |
qualified. No member shall be reappointed to the Committee for |
more than 2 full consecutive terms. Appointments to fill |
vacancies shall be made in the same manner as original |
appointments for the unexpired portion of the vacated term.
|
The members of the Committee appointed by the Secretary shall |
receive reasonable compensation, as determined by the |
Department, for the necessary, legitimate, and authorized |
expenses approved by the Department. All expenses shall be |
paid from the Registered Certified Public Accountants' |
Administration and Disciplinary Fund.
The Secretary may |
terminate the appointment of any member for cause.
The |
Secretary shall consider the advice and recommendations of the |
Committee on questions involving standards of professional |
conduct, discipline, and qualifications of applicants and |
licensees under this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/2.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 5503)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 2.1. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The |
Illinois Administrative Procedure
Act is hereby expressly |
adopted and incorporated herein as if all of the
provisions of |
|
that Act were included in this Act, except that the provision |
of
subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois |
Administrative Procedure Act
that provides that at hearings |
the licensee has the right to show compliance
with all lawful |
requirements for retention, continuation or renewal of the
|
license is specifically excluded. For the purposes of this Act |
the notice
required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois |
Administrative Procedure Act is deemed
sufficient when mailed |
to the licensee's address of record or email address of |
record .
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 5504)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 3. Qualifications of applicants. The Board shall |
certify applicants who successfully complete all portions of |
the examination and verify completion of 150 semester credit |
hours. |
(a) To be admitted to take the examination
after the
year |
2000 and before January 1, 2023, for the purpose of |
determining the qualifications of applicants
for certificates |
as certified public accountants under this Act, the
applicants |
shall be required to present proof of the successful |
completion
of 150 college or university semester hours of |
study or the applicant's their quarter-hour or other academic |
credit unit equivalent,
to include a baccalaureate or higher |
|
degree conferred by a college or
university acceptable to the
|
Board, the total educational
program to include an accounting |
concentration or equivalent as determined
by Board rule. In |
adopting those rules, the
Board shall
consider, among other |
things, any impediments to the interstate practice of
public |
accounting that may result from differences in the |
requirements in
other states.
|
(b) Beginning January 1, 2023, an applicant for the |
examination shall be required to present proof of 120 college |
or university semester hours of study or the applicant's their |
quarter-hour or other academic credit unit equivalent, to |
include a baccalaureate or higher degree conferred by a |
college or university acceptable to the Board, the total |
education program to include an accounting concentration or |
equivalent as determined by Board rule. Applicants shall |
receive certification by the Board upon successful passage of |
all sections and requirements of the Uniform Certified Public |
Accountant Examination and verification of completion of |
educational requirements as determined by rule. |
(c) In adopting rules, the Board shall consider, among |
other things, any impediments to the interstate practice of |
public accounting that may result from differences in the |
requirements in other states.
|
(Source: P.A. 102-222, eff. 1-1-22 .)
|
(225 ILCS 450/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 5505)
|
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 4. Transitional language. |
(a) The provisions of this Act shall not be construed to |
invalidate any
certificates as certified public accountants |
issued by the University under
"An Act to regulate the |
profession of public accountants", approved May 15,
1903, as |
amended, or any certificates as Certified Public Accountants
|
issued by the University or the Board under Section 4 of "An |
Act to regulate the
practice of public accounting and to |
repeal certain acts therein named",
approved July 22, 1943, as |
amended, which certificates shall be valid and
in force as |
though issued under the provisions of this Act. |
(b) Before July 1, 2012, persons who have received a |
Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Certificate issued by the |
Board or University or holding similar certifications from |
other jurisdictions with equivalent educational requirements |
and examination standards may apply to the Department on forms |
supplied by the Department for and may be granted a |
registration as a registered CPA from the Department upon |
payment of the required fee. |
(c) Beginning with the 2006 renewal, the Department shall |
cease to issue a license as a Public Accountant. Any person |
holding a valid license as a Public Accountant prior to |
September 30, 2006 who meets the conditions for renewal of a |
license under this Act, shall be issued a license as a licensed |
CPA under this Act and shall be subject to continued |
|
regulation by the Department under this Act. The Department |
may adopt rules to implement this Section. |
(d) The Department shall not issue any new registrations |
as a registered CPA on or after July 1, 2012. After that date, |
any applicant for licensure under this Act shall apply for a |
license as a licensed CPA and shall meet the requirements set |
forth in this Act. Any person who has been issued a |
registration as a registered CPA may renew the registration |
under the provisions of this Act and that person may continue |
to renew or restore the registration during the registrant's |
his or her lifetime, subject only to the renewal or |
restoration requirements for the registration under this Act. |
Such registration shall be subject to the disciplinary |
provisions of this Act. |
(e) (Blank).
|
(f) The changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd |
General Assembly do not invalidate any certificate issued |
before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd |
General Assembly. |
(Source: P.A. 102-222, eff. 1-1-22 .)
|
(225 ILCS 450/5.2)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 5.2. Substantial equivalency. |
(a) An individual whose principal place of business is not |
in this State shall have all the privileges of a person |
|
licensed under this Act as a licensed CPA without the need to |
obtain a license from the Department or to file notice with the |
Department, if the individual: |
(1) holds a valid license as a certified public |
accountant issued by another state that the National |
Qualification Appraisal Service of the National |
Association of State Boards of Accountancy has verified to |
be in substantial equivalence with the CPA licensure |
requirements of the Uniform Accountancy Act of the |
American Institute of Certified Public Accountants and the |
National Association of State Boards of Accountancy; or |
(2) holds a valid license as a certified public |
accountant issued by another state and obtains from the |
National Qualification Appraisal Service of the National |
Association of State Boards of Accountancy verification |
that the individual's CPA qualifications are substantially |
equivalent to the CPA licensure requirements of the |
Uniform Accountancy Act of the American Institute of |
Certified Public Accountants and the National Association |
of State Boards of Accountancy; however, any individual |
who has passed the Uniform CPA Examination and holds a |
valid license issued by any other state prior to January |
1, 2012 shall be exempt from the education requirements of |
Section 3 of this Act for the purposes of this item (2). |
(a-5) A CPA firm whose principal place of business is not |
in this State shall have all the privileges of a CPA firm |
|
licensed under this Act without the need to obtain a license |
from the Department or to file notice with the Department if |
the CPA firm complies with the requirements outlined in |
Sections 14.4 and 16 through substantial equivalency of the |
firm's their licensed state. |
(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, an |
individual or CPA firm who offers or renders professional |
services under this Section, whether in person or by mail, |
telephone, or electronic means, shall be granted practice |
privileges in this State and no notice or other submission |
must be provided by any such individual or CPA firm. |
(c) An individual licensee or CPA firm of another state |
exercising the privilege afforded under this Section and the |
CPA firm that employs such individual licensee, if any, as a |
condition of the grant of this privilege, hereby |
simultaneously consents: |
(1) to the personal and subject matter jurisdiction |
and disciplinary authority of the Department; |
(2) to comply with this Act and the Department's rules |
adopted under this Act; |
(3) that in the event that the license from the state |
of the individual's or CPA firm's principal place of |
business is no longer valid, the individual or CPA firm |
shall cease offering or rendering accountancy activities |
as outlined in paragraphs (1) and (2) of Section 8.05 in |
this State individually or on behalf of a CPA firm; and |
|
(4) to the appointment of the state board that issued |
the individual's or the CPA firm's license as the agent |
upon which process may be served in any action or |
proceeding by the Department against the individual or CPA |
firm. |
(d) An individual licensee who qualifies for practice |
privileges under this Section who, for any entity |
headquartered in this State, performs (i) a financial |
statement audit or other engagement in accordance with |
Statements on Auditing Standards; (ii) an examination of |
prospective financial information in accordance with |
Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements; or (iii) |
an engagement in accordance with Public Company Accounting |
Oversight Board Auditing Standards may only do so through a |
CPA firm licensed under this Act or a CPA firm with practice |
privileges under this Section.
|
(e) A CPA firm that qualifies for practice privileges |
under this Section and, for any entity headquartered in this |
State, performs the following may only do so through an |
individual or individuals licensed under this Act or an |
individual or individuals with practice privileges under this |
Section: |
(1) a financial statement audit or other engagement in |
accordance with Statements on Auditing Standards; |
(2) an examination of prospective financial |
information in accordance with Statements on Standards for |
|
Attestation Engagements; or |
(3) an engagement in accordance with Public Company |
Accounting Oversight Board auditing standards. |
(Source: P.A. 100-419, eff. 8-25-17.) |
(225 ILCS 450/6.1) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 6.1. Examinations. |
(a) The examination shall test the applicant's knowledge |
of accounting, auditing, and other related subjects, if any, |
as the Board may deem advisable. A candidate shall be required |
to pass all sections of the examination in order to qualify for |
certification. A candidate may take the required test sections |
individually and in any order, as long as the examination is |
taken within a timeframe established by Board rule. |
(b) On and after January 1, 2005, applicants shall also be |
required to pass an examination on the rules of professional |
conduct for certification by the Board. |
(c) Pursuant to compliance with the Americans with |
Disabilities Act, the Board may provide alternative test |
administration arrangements that are reasonable in the context |
of the Certified Public Accountant examination for applicants |
who are unable to take the examination under standard |
conditions upon an applicant's submission of evidence as the |
Board may require, which may include a signed statement from a |
medical or other licensed medical professional, identifying |
|
the applicant's disabilities and the specific alternative |
accommodations the applicant may need. Any alteration in test |
administration arrangements does not waive the requirement of |
sitting for and passing the examination. |
(d) Any application, document, or other information filed |
by or concerning an applicant and any examination grades of an |
applicant shall be deemed confidential and shall not be |
disclosed to anyone without the prior written permission of |
the applicant, except that the names and addresses only of all |
applicants shall be a public record and be released as public |
information. Nothing in this subsection shall prevent the |
Board from making public announcement of the names of persons |
receiving certificates under this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 102-222, eff. 1-1-22 .)
|
(225 ILCS 450/8) (from Ch. 111, par. 5509)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 8. Practicing as a licensed CPA. Persons,
either |
individually, as
members of a partnership or limited liability |
company, or as officers of a
corporation, who sign, affix , or |
associate their names or any trade or assumed
names used by the |
persons them in a profession or business to any report |
expressing or
disclaiming an opinion on a financial statement |
based on an audit or
examination of that statement, or |
expressing assurance on a financial
statement, shall be deemed |
to be in practice as licensed CPAs and are performing |
|
accountancy activities as outlined in paragraph (1) of |
subsection (a) of Section 8.05.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/9.3)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 9.3. Sharing of information. Notwithstanding any |
other provision of this Act, for the purpose of carrying out |
the their respective duties and responsibilities of the Board |
and the Department under this Act and to effectuate the |
purpose of this Act, both the Board and the Department are |
authorized and directed to share information with each other |
regarding those individuals and entities licensed or certified |
or applying for licensure or certification under this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/13) (from Ch. 111, par. 5514)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 13. Application for licensure.
|
(a) A person or CPA firm that wishes to perform |
accountancy activities in this State, as defined in paragraph |
(1) of subsection (a) of Section 8.05 of this Act, or use the |
CPA title
shall make application to the Department
and shall |
pay the fee required by rule.
|
Applicants have 3 years from the date of application to |
complete the
application process. If the process has not been |
|
completed in 3 years,
the application shall be denied, the fee |
forfeited and the applicant must
reapply and meet the |
requirements in effect at the time of reapplication.
|
(b) Any CPA firm that (i) has an office in this State that |
uses the title "CPA" or "CPA firm"; (ii) has an office in this |
State that performs accountancy activities, as defined in |
paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 8.05 of this Act; or |
(iii) does not have an office in this State and does not meet |
the practice privilege requirements as defined in Section 5.2 |
of this Act, but offers or renders services, as set forth in |
subsection (e) of Section 5.2 of this Act, for a client that is |
headquartered in this State must hold a license as a CPA firm |
issued under this Act. |
(c) (Blank). |
(d) A CPA firm that is not subject to the requirements of |
subsection (b) of this Section may perform professional |
services that are not regulated under subsection (b) of this |
Section while using the title "CPA" or "CPA firm" in this State |
without obtaining a license as a CPA firm under this Act if the |
firm (i) performs such services through individuals with |
practice privileges under Section 5.2 of this Act and (ii) may |
lawfully perform such services in the state where those |
individuals with practice privileges under Section 5.2 of this |
Act have a their principal place of business. |
(Source: P.A. 100-419, eff. 8-25-17.)
|
|
(225 ILCS 450/13.5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 13.5. Social Security Number or individual taxpayer |
identification number on license application. In addition
to |
any other information required to be contained in the |
application, every
application for an original license under |
this Act shall
include the applicant's Social Security Number |
or individual taxpayer identification number , which shall be |
retained in the agency's records pertaining to the license. As |
soon as practical, the Department shall assign a customer's |
identification number to each applicant for a license. |
Every application for a renewal or restored license shall |
require the applicant's customer identification number.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-400, eff. 1-1-12 .)
|
(225 ILCS 450/14.2)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 14.2. Licensure by endorsement.
|
(a) The Department shall issue a
license as a licensed CPA |
to any applicant
who holds a current, valid, and unrevoked |
license as a certified public accountant issued from another |
state with equivalent educational requirements and examination |
standards, applies to the Department on forms supplied by the |
Department, and pays the required fee,
provided:
|
(1) the individual applicant is determined by the |
Department
to possess
qualifications substantially |
|
equivalent to this State's current
licensing requirements;
|
(2) at the time the applicant became licensed received |
his or her license , the applicant possessed qualifications
|
substantially equivalent to the qualifications for |
licensure then in effect in
this State; or
|
(3) the applicant has, after passing the examination |
upon which licensure his or her
license to practice was |
based, not less than 4 years of
experience as outlined in |
Section 14 of this Act within the 10 years immediately
|
before the application.
|
(b) In determining the substantial equivalency of any
|
state's requirements to Illinois' requirements, the
Department |
may rely on the determinations of the National
Qualification |
Appraisal Service of the National Association
of State Boards |
of Accountancy or such other qualification
appraisal service |
as it deems appropriate.
|
(c) Applicants have 3 years from the date of application |
to complete the application process. If the process has not |
been completed in 3 years, the application shall be denied, |
the fee shall be forfeited, and the applicant must reapply and |
meet the requirements in effect at the time of reapplication.
|
(d) Any individual who is the holder of a current, valid, |
and not previously disciplined license as a certified public |
accountant of any state and has applied in writing to the |
Department in form and substance satisfactory to the |
Department for a license as a licensed CPA may perform |
|
accountancy activities as set forth in Section 8.05 until the |
earlier of the following dates: |
(1) the expiration of 6 months after filing the |
written application; or |
(2) the denial of the application by the Department. |
Any individual performing accountancy activities under |
this subsection (d) shall be subject to discipline in the same |
manner as an individual licensed under this Act. |
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; 98-730, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
(225 ILCS 450/14.5) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 14.5. CPA Coordinator; duties. The Secretary shall |
appoint a full-time CPA Coordinator, who shall hold a |
currently valid CPA license or registration. The Coordinator |
shall not practice during the term of the Coordinator's his or |
her appointment. The Coordinator shall be exempt from all fees |
related to the his or her CPA license or registration that come |
due during the Coordinator's his or her employment. In |
appointing the Coordinator, the Secretary shall give due |
consideration to recommendations made by members, |
organizations, and associations of the CPA and accounting |
profession , if possible . The Coordinator shall: |
(1) act as Chairperson of the Committee, ex officio, |
without a vote; |
(2) be the direct liaison between the Department, the |
|
profession, and CPA and accounting organizations and |
associations; |
(3) prepare and circulate to licensees any educational |
and informational material that the Department deems |
necessary for providing guidance or assistance to |
licensees; |
(4) appoint any necessary committees to assist in the |
performance of the functions and duties of the Department |
under this Act; and |
(5) subject to the administrative approval of the |
Secretary, supervise all activities relating to the |
regulation of the CPA profession.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-419, eff. 8-25-17.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/16) (from Ch. 111, par. 5517)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 16. Expiration and renewal of licenses; renewal of |
registration;
continuing education; peer review. |
(a) The expiration date and renewal period for each |
license or registration
issued under this Act shall be set by |
rule.
|
(b) Every holder of a license or registration under this |
Act may renew such license or registration before the |
expiration date upon payment of the required renewal fee as |
set by rule.
|
(c) Every application for renewal of a license by a |
|
licensed CPA who has been licensed under this Act for 3 years |
or more shall be accompanied or supported by any evidence the |
Department shall prescribe, in satisfaction of completing |
continuing professional education as prescribed by Department |
rules. All continuing education sponsors applying to the |
Department for registration shall be required to submit an |
initial nonrefundable application fee set by Department rule. |
Each registered continuing education sponsor shall be required |
to pay an annual renewal fee set by Department rule. Publicly |
supported colleges, universities, and governmental agencies |
located in Illinois are exempt from payment of any fees |
required for continuing education sponsor registration. |
Failure by a continuing education sponsor to be licensed or |
pay the fees prescribed in this Act, or to comply with the |
rules and regulations established by the Department under this |
Section regarding requirements for continuing education |
courses or sponsors, shall constitute grounds for revocation |
or denial of renewal of the sponsor's registration. |
(d) Licensed CPAs are exempt from the continuing |
professional education requirement for the first renewal |
period following the original issuance of the license. |
Failure by an applicant for renewal of a license as a |
licensed CPA to furnish the evidence shall constitute grounds |
for disciplinary action, unless the Department in its |
discretion shall determine the failure to have been due to |
reasonable cause. The Department, in its discretion, may renew |
|
a license despite failure to furnish evidence of satisfaction |
of requirements of continuing education upon condition that |
the applicant follow a particular program or schedule of |
continuing education. In issuing rules and individual orders |
in respect of requirements of continuing education, the |
Department in its discretion may, among other things, use and |
rely upon guidelines and pronouncements of recognized |
educational and professional associations; may prescribe rules |
for the content, duration, and organization of courses; shall |
take into account the accessibility to applicants of such |
continuing education as it may require, and any impediments to |
interstate practice of public accounting that may result from |
differences in requirements in other states; and may provide |
for relaxation or suspension of requirements in regard to |
applicants who certify that they do not intend to engage in the |
performance of accountancy activities, and for instances of |
individual hardship. |
The Department shall establish by rule a means for the |
verification of completion of the continuing education |
required by this Section. This verification may be |
accomplished through audits of records maintained by |
licensees; by requiring the filing of continuing education |
certificates with the Department; or by other means |
established by the Department. |
The Department may establish, by rule, guidelines for |
acceptance of continuing education on behalf of licensed CPAs |
|
taking continuing education courses in other jurisdictions.
|
(e) For renewals on and after July 1, 2012, as a condition |
for granting a renewal license to CPA firms and sole |
practitioners who perform accountancy activities outlined in |
paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 8.05 under this |
Act, the Department shall require that the CPA firm or sole |
practitioner satisfactorily complete a peer review during the |
immediately preceding 3-year period, accepted by a Peer Review |
Administrator in accordance with established standards for |
performing and reporting on peer reviews, unless the CPA firm |
or sole practitioner is exempted under the provisions of |
subsection (i) of this Section. All CPA firms or sole |
practitioners required to undergo a peer review under this |
Section shall submit to the Department peer review reports; |
letters of response, if applicable; acceptance letters; |
letters signed by the reviewed CPA firm accepting the peer |
review documents with the understanding that the CPA firm |
agrees to take certain actions, if applicable; and letters |
notifying the reviewed CPA firm that certain required actions |
have been completed, if applicable. CPA firms and sole |
practitioners shall satisfy this document submission |
requirement by allowing the Peer Review Administrator to |
provide the Department access to the documents through the |
Association of International Certified Public Accountants' |
Facilitated State Board Access within 45 days after the peer |
review has been conducted. Nothing in this subsection shall |
|
prevent the Department from requesting this documentation or |
any other documentation from the licensee. A CPA firm or sole |
practitioner shall, at the request of the Department, submit |
to the Department a letter from the Peer Review Administrator |
stating the date on which the peer review was satisfactorily |
completed. |
A new CPA firm or sole practitioner shall not be required |
to comply with the peer review requirements for the first |
license renewal. A CPA firm or sole practitioner shall comply |
with the Department's rules adopted under this Act and agree |
to notify the Peer Review Administrator by the report date of |
the initial within 30 days after accepting an engagement for |
services requiring a license under this Act and to undergo a |
peer review within 18 months of the report date for the initial |
after the end of the period covered by the engagement.
|
The requirements of this subsection (e) shall not apply to |
any person providing services requiring a license under this |
Act to the extent that such services are provided in the |
capacity of an employee of the Office of the Auditor General or |
to a nonprofit cooperative association engaged in the |
rendering of licensed service to its members only under |
paragraph (3) of Section 14.4 of this Act or any of its |
employees to the extent that such services are provided in the |
capacity of an employee of the association. |
(f) The Department shall approve only Peer Review |
Administrators that the Department finds comply with |
|
established standards for performing and reporting on peer |
reviews. The Department may adopt rules establishing |
guidelines for peer reviews, which shall do all of the |
following:
|
(1) Require that a peer review be conducted by a |
reviewer that is independent of the CPA firm or sole |
practitioner reviewed and approved by the Peer Review |
Administrator under established standards. |
(2) Other than in the peer review process, prohibit |
the use or public disclosure of information obtained by |
the reviewer, the Peer Review Administrator, or the |
Department during or in connection with the peer review |
process. The requirement that information not be publicly |
disclosed shall not apply to a hearing before the |
Department that the CPA firm or sole practitioner requests |
be public or to the information described in paragraph (3) |
of subsection (i) of this Section. |
(g) If a CPA firm or sole practitioner fails to |
satisfactorily complete a peer review as required by |
subsection (e) of this Section or does not comply with any |
remedial actions determined necessary by the Peer Review |
Administrator, the Peer Review Administrator shall notify the |
Department of the failure and shall submit a record with |
specific references to the rule, statutory provision, |
professional standards, or other applicable authority upon |
which the Peer Review Administrator made its determination and |
|
the specific actions taken or failed to be taken by the |
licensee that in the opinion of the Peer Review Administrator |
constitutes a failure to comply. The Department may at its |
discretion or shall upon submission of a written application |
by the CPA firm or sole practitioner hold a hearing under |
Section 20.1 of this Act to determine whether the CPA firm or |
sole practitioner has complied with subsection (e) of this |
Section. The hearing shall be confidential and shall not be |
open to the public unless requested by the CPA firm or sole |
practitioner. |
(h) The CPA firm or sole practitioner reviewed shall pay |
for any peer review performed. The Peer Review Administrator |
may charge a fee to each firm and sole practitioner sufficient |
to cover costs of administering the peer review program. |
(i) A CPA firm or sole practitioner shall not be required |
to comply with the peer review requirements if any one or more |
of the following conditions are met : |
(1) Within 3 years before the date of application for |
renewal licensure, the sole practitioner or CPA firm has |
undergone a peer review conducted in another state or |
foreign jurisdiction that meets the requirements of |
paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (f) of this Section. |
The sole practitioner or CPA firm shall submit to the |
Department peer review reports; letters of response, if |
applicable; acceptance letters; letters signed by the |
reviewed CPA firm accepting the peer review documents with |
|
the understanding that the CPA firm agrees to take certain |
actions, if applicable; and letters notifying the reviewed |
CPA firm that certain required actions have been |
completed, if applicable. CPA firms and sole practitioners |
shall satisfy this document submission requirement by |
allowing the Peer Review Administrator to provide the |
Department access to the documents through the Association |
of International Certified Public Accountants' Facilitated |
State Board Access within 45 days after the peer review |
has been conducted. Nothing in this subsection shall |
prevent the Department from requesting this documentation |
or any other documentation from the licensee. , at the |
request of the Department, submit to the Department a |
letter from the organization administering the most recent |
peer review stating the date on which the peer review was |
completed; or |
(2) Within 2 years before the date of application for |
renewal licensure, the sole practitioner or CPA firm |
satisfies all of the following conditions: |
(A) has not accepted or performed any accountancy |
activities outlined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) |
of Section 8.05 of this Act; and |
(B) the firm or sole practitioner agrees to notify |
the Peer Review Administrator by the date of the |
initial within 30 days of accepting an engagement for |
services requiring a license under this Act and to |
|
undergo a peer review within 18 months of the report |
date for the initial after the end of the period |
covered by the engagement . ; or |
(3) For reasons of personal health, military service, |
or other good cause, the Department determines that the |
sole practitioner or firm is entitled to an exemption, |
which may be granted for a period of time not to exceed 12 |
months. |
(j) If a peer review report indicates that a CPA firm or |
sole practitioner complies with the appropriate professional |
standards and practices set forth in the rules of the |
Department and no further remedial action is required, the |
Peer Review Administrator shall, after issuance of the final |
letter of acceptance, destroy all working papers and documents |
related to the peer review, other than report-related |
documents and documents evidencing completion of remedial |
actions, if any, in accordance with rules established by the |
Department. |
(k) (Blank). |
(Source: P.A. 100-419, eff. 8-25-17.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 5518)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 17. Fees; returned checks; fines. The fees for the |
administration and enforcement of this Act, including, but not |
limited to, original licensure, registration, renewal, and |
|
restoration fees, shall be set by the Department by rule. The |
fees shall be nonrefundable.
|
Any person who delivers a check or other payment to the |
Department that is
returned to the Department
unpaid by the |
financial institution upon which it is
drawn shall pay to the |
Department, in addition to the amount already owed to the
|
Department, a fine of $50.
The fines imposed by this Section |
are in addition to any other discipline
provided under this |
Act for unlicensed practice or practice on a nonrenewed
|
license or registration. The Department shall notify the |
person that payment of fees and fines
shall be paid to the |
Department by certified check or money order within 30 |
calendar
days of the notification. If, after the expiration of |
30 days from the date
of the notification, the person has |
failed to submit the necessary remittance,
the Department
|
shall automatically terminate the license or registration or |
deny the
application, without a hearing. If, after termination |
or denial, the person
seeks a license or registration, the |
person he or she shall apply to the Department for
restoration |
or issuance of the license or registration and pay all fees and
|
fines due to the Department. The Department may establish
a |
fee for the processing of an application for restoration of a |
license or
registration to pay all expenses of processing this |
application. The Department
may waive the fines due under this |
Section in individual cases where the
Department
finds that |
the fines would be unreasonable or unnecessarily burdensome.
|
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/17.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 5518.1)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 17.1. Restoration. |
(a) Any registered CPA who has permitted the registrant's |
his or her registration to expire or who has had the |
registrant's his or her registration on inactive status may |
have the his or her registration restored by making |
application to the Department and filing proof acceptable to |
the Department as defined by rule of the registrant's his or |
her fitness to have the his or her registration restored, |
which may include sworn evidence certifying to active practice |
in another jurisdiction satisfactory to the Department and by |
paying the required restoration fee.
|
(b) Any licensed CPA who has permitted
the licensee's his |
or her license to expire
or who has had the licensee's his or |
her license on inactive status may have the his or her license |
restored
by (1) making application to the Department and |
filing proof
acceptable to the
Department as defined by rule |
of the licensee's his or her fitness to have the his or her |
license restored, including
sworn
evidence certifying to |
active practice in another jurisdiction satisfactory
to the |
Department, (2) paying the required restoration fee, (3)
|
submitting proof of the
required continuing education and (4) |
in the case of a sole practitioner, satisfactory completion of |
|
peer review outlined in subsection (e) of Section 16, unless |
exempt from peer review under subsection (i) of Section 16. |
(c) Any firm that has permitted its license to expire may |
have its license restored by (1) making application to the |
Department and filing proof acceptable to the Department as |
defined by rule of its fitness to have its license restored, |
including sworn evidence certifying to active practice in |
another jurisdiction satisfactory to the Department, (2) |
paying the required restoration fee, and (3) satisfactory |
completion of peer review outlined in subsection (e) of |
Section 16, unless exempt from peer review under subsection |
(i) of Section 16. |
(d) If the licensed CPA or registered CPA has not |
maintained an active
practice in another
jurisdiction |
satisfactory to the Department, the Department shall |
determine,
by an evaluation program established by rule, the |
licensee or registrant's fitness to resume active status
and |
may require the applicant to complete a period of supervised
|
experience.
|
Any licensed CPA or registered CPA whose license or |
registration expired
while he or she was (1) in
Federal |
Service on active duty with the Armed Forces of the United |
States,
or the State Militia called into service or training, |
or (2) in training
or education under the supervision of the |
United States preliminary to
induction
into the military |
service, may have the his or her license or registration |
|
renewed reinstated or restored
without
paying any lapsed |
renewal and restoration fees if within 2 years after
honorable |
termination
of such service, training or education except |
under conditions other than
honorable, the Department is |
furnished with satisfactory evidence to the effect that the |
licensee or registrant has been so engaged and that the |
service, training, or education has been terminated he or she |
furnished
the Department with satisfactory evidence to the |
effect that he or she
has been
so engaged and that his or her |
service, training, or education has been so terminated .
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; 98-730, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
(225 ILCS 450/17.2) (from Ch. 111, par. 5518.2)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 17.2. Inactive status. |
(a) Any licensed or registered CPA with an active, |
unencumbered license or registration who notifies the
|
Department in writing
on forms prescribed by the Department, |
may elect to place the his or her
license or registration on
an |
inactive status and shall, subject to rules of the Department,
|
be excused
from payment of renewal fees and completion of |
continuing education hours until he or she notifies the |
Department is notified in
writing
of the licensee or |
registrant's his or her desire to resume active status.
|
(b) Any licensed CPA requesting restoration from
inactive |
status shall
be required to pay the current renewal fee, shall |
|
be required to submit
proof of the required continuing |
education,
and shall be required to comply with any |
requirements established by rule.
|
(c) Any registered CPA requesting restoration from |
inactive status shall be required to pay the current renewal |
fee and shall be required to comply with any requirements |
established by rule.
|
(d) Any licensed CPA or registered CPA whose license is in |
an inactive
status shall not perform accountancy activities |
outlined in Section 8.05 of this Act.
|
(e) Any licensed CPA or registered CPA whose license or |
registration is in an inactive status shall not in any manner |
hold oneself himself or herself out to the public as a CPA, |
except in accordance with subsection (f) of this Section.
|
(f) Any licensed CPA whose license is in inactive status |
may use the title "CPA (inactive)" if: |
(1) the licensee he or she is not performing |
accountancy activities outlined in Section 8.05; or |
(2) the licensee he or she is performing governance |
functions on a non-profit volunteer board using the |
licensee's his or her accountancy skills and competencies |
and complies with the following requirements: |
(A) the licensee he or she discloses to the |
non-profit volunteer board and respective committees |
that the his or her license is on inactive status; and |
(B) the licensee he or she is not serving as an |
|
audit committee financial expert as defined in Section |
407 of the federal Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/20.01) (from Ch. 111, par. 5521.01)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 20.01. Grounds for discipline; license or |
registration.
|
(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may |
revoke, suspend, or
reprimand any registration or registrant,
|
any license or licensee, place a licensee or registrant on |
probation for a period
of time subject to any conditions the |
Department may specify including requiring
the licensee or |
registrant to attend continuing education courses or to work |
under the
supervision of another licensee or registrant, |
impose a fine not to exceed $10,000 for each
violation, |
restrict the authorized scope of practice, require a licensee
|
or registrant to undergo a peer review program, assess costs |
as provided for under Section 20.4, or take other disciplinary |
or non-disciplinary action for any one or more of the |
following:
|
(1) Violation of any provision of this Act or rule |
adopted by the Department under this Act or violation of |
professional standards.
|
(2) Dishonesty, fraud, or deceit in obtaining, |
reinstating, or restoring a license or registration.
|
|
(3) Cancellation, revocation, suspension, denial of |
licensure or registration, or refusal to renew a license |
or privileges under Section 5.2 for disciplinary reasons |
in any other U.S. jurisdiction, unit of government, or |
government agency for any cause.
|
(4) Failure, on the part of a licensee under Section |
13 or registrant under Section 16, to maintain compliance |
with the requirements for issuance or renewal of a license |
or registration or to report changes to the Department.
|
(5) Revocation or suspension of the right to practice |
by or before any state or federal regulatory authority or |
by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board.
|
(6) Dishonesty, fraud, deceit, or gross negligence in |
the performance of services as a licensee or registrant or |
individual granted privileges under Section 5.2.
|
(7) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, |
finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or |
sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, |
preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, |
or first offender probation, under the laws of any |
jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or |
(ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is |
dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of |
public accounting.
|
(8) Performance of any fraudulent act while holding a |
license or privilege issued under this Act or prior law.
|
|
(9) Practicing on a revoked, suspended, or inactive |
license or registration.
|
(10) Making or filing a report or record that the |
registrant or licensee knows to be false, willfully |
failing to file a report or record required by State or |
federal law, willfully impeding or obstructing the filing |
or inducing another person to impede or obstruct only |
those that are signed in the capacity of a licensed CPA or |
a registered CPA.
|
(11) Aiding or assisting another person in violating |
any provision of
this Act or rules promulgated hereunder.
|
(12) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or |
unprofessional conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
defraud, or harm the public.
|
(13) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs, |
alcohol, narcotics,
stimulants, or any other substance |
that results in the inability
to practice with reasonable |
skill, judgment, or safety.
|
(14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving |
from any person, firm,
corporation, partnership, or |
association any fee, commission, rebate, or other
form of |
compensation for any professional service not actually |
rendered.
|
(15) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, |
deterioration through the
aging process or loss of motor |
skill that results in the licensee or registrant's |
|
inability to
practice under this Act with reasonable |
judgment, skill, or safety.
|
(16) Solicitation of professional services by using |
false or misleading
advertising.
|
(17) Any conduct reflecting adversely upon the |
licensee's fitness to perform services while a licensee or |
individual granted privileges under Section 5.2.
|
(18) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name |
other than the
full name as shown on the license or |
registration or any other legally authorized name.
|
(19) A finding by the Department that a licensee or |
registrant has not complied with a
provision of any lawful |
order issued by the Department.
|
(20) Making a false statement to the Department
|
regarding compliance with
continuing professional |
education or peer review requirements.
|
(21) Failing to make a substantive response to a |
request for information
by the Department within 30 days |
of the request.
|
(b) (Blank).
|
(b-5) All fines or costs imposed under this Section shall |
be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order |
imposing the fine or costs or in accordance with the terms set |
forth in the order imposing the fine or cost. |
(c) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family |
Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential |
|
licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of |
child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency |
to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew |
or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take |
other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against that |
person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made |
by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in |
accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 |
of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil |
Administrative Code of Illinois.
|
(d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend |
without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil |
Procedure, the license or registration of any person who fails |
to file a return, to pay a tax, penalty, or interest shown in a |
filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, |
or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the |
Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the |
requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance |
with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of |
Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code |
of Illinois.
|
(e) (Blank).
|
(f) The determination by a court that a licensee or |
registrant is subject to involuntary
admission or judicial |
admission as provided in the Mental Health and
Developmental |
Disabilities Code will result in the automatic suspension of |
|
the his
or her license or registration. The licensee or |
registrant shall be responsible for notifying the Department |
of the determination by the court that the licensee or |
registrant is subject to involuntary admission or judicial |
admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental |
Disabilities Code. The suspension shall end only upon a |
finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to |
involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of |
an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the |
filing of a petition for restoration demonstrating fitness to |
practice.
|
(g) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a |
showing of a possible violation, may compel, any licensee or |
registrant or any individual who has applied for licensure |
under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination |
and evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse |
or sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the |
Department. The Department shall specifically designate the |
examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of |
its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team |
involved in providing the mental or physical examination and |
evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led |
by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its |
branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of |
physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its |
branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical |
|
psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed |
clinical professional counselors, and other professional and |
administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the |
multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to |
submit to an examination and evaluation under this Section to |
submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary |
to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, |
but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological |
testing, or neuropsychological testing. The Department may |
order the examining physician or any member of the |
multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and |
all records, including business records, that relate to the |
examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing |
performed. The Department may order the examining physician or |
any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony |
concerning this examination and evaluation of the licensee, |
registrant, or applicant, including testimony concerning any |
supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination |
and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other |
documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation |
shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory |
privilege relating to communication between the licensee, |
registrant, or applicant and the examining physician or any |
member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is |
necessary from the individual ordered to undergo an evaluation |
and examination for the examining physician or any member of |
|
the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, |
records, or other documents or to provide any testimony |
regarding the examination and evaluation. |
The individual to be examined may have, at the |
individual's his or her own expense, another physician of the |
individual's his or her choice present during all aspects of |
the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental |
or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when |
directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without |
hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the |
examination. If the Department finds a licensee, registrant, |
or applicant unable to practice because of the reasons set |
forth in this Section, the Department shall require such |
licensee, registrant, or applicant to submit to care, |
counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated |
by the Department, as a condition for continued, reinstated, |
or renewed licensure to practice. |
When the Secretary immediately suspends a license or |
registration under this Section, a hearing upon such person's |
license or registration must be convened by the Department |
within 15 days after such suspension and completed without |
appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to |
review the subject's record of treatment and counseling |
regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by |
applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the |
confidentiality of medical records. |
|
Individuals licensed or registered under this Act, |
affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity |
to demonstrate to the Department that they can resume practice |
in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under |
the provisions of the individual's their license or |
registration. |
(Source: P.A. 100-872, eff. 8-14-18.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/20.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 5522)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 20.1. Investigations; notice; hearing. |
(a) The Department
may investigate the actions of an |
applicant,
person, or entity holding or claiming to hold a |
license. |
(b) The Department shall, before revoking, suspending, |
placing on probation, reprimanding, or taking any other |
disciplinary or non-disciplinary action under Section 20.01 of |
this Act, at least 30 days before the date set for the hearing, |
(i) notify the accused in writing of the charges made and the |
time and place for the hearing on the charges, (ii) direct the |
accused him or her to file a written answer to the charges with |
the Department under oath within 20 days after the service on |
him or her of the notice is made , and (iii) inform the accused |
that, if the Department he or she fails to receive an answer, |
default shall be taken against the accused him or her or the |
accused's that his or her license or registration may be |
|
suspended, revoked, placed on probationary status, or other |
disciplinary action taken with regard to the licensee, |
including limiting the scope, nature, or extent of the |
accused's his or her practice, as the Department may consider |
proper. |
(c) With respect to determinations by a Peer Review |
Administrator duly appointed by the Department under |
subsection (f) of Section 16 of this Act that a licensee has |
failed to satisfactorily complete a peer review as required |
under subsection (e) of Section 16, the Department may |
consider the Peer Review Administrator's findings of fact as |
prima facie evidence, and upon request by a licensee for a |
hearing the Department shall review the record presented and |
hear arguments by the licensee or the licensee's counsel but |
need not conduct a trial or hearing de novo or accept |
additional evidence. |
(d) At the time and place fixed in the notice, the |
Department shall proceed to hear the charges and the parties |
or the parties' their counsel shall be accorded ample |
opportunity to present any pertinent statements, testimony, |
evidence, and arguments. The Department may continue the |
hearing from time to time. |
(e) In case the person, after receiving the notice, fails |
to file an answer, the his or her license or registration may, |
in the discretion of the Department, be suspended, revoked, |
placed on probationary status, or the Department may take |
|
whatever disciplinary action considered proper, including |
limiting the scope, nature, or extent of the person's practice |
or the imposition of a fine, without a hearing, if the act or |
acts charged constitute sufficient grounds for that action |
under this Act. The written notice may be served by registered |
or certified mail to the licensee or registrant's address of |
record or, if in the course of the administrative proceeding |
the party has previously designated a specific email address |
at which to accept electronic service for that specific |
proceeding, by sending a copy by email to an email address on |
record .
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/20.2) (from Ch. 111, par. 5523)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 20.2. Subpoenas; depositions; oaths. |
(a) The Department may subpoena and bring before it any
|
person to take the oral or written testimony or compel the |
production of any books, papers, records, or any other |
documents that the Secretary or the Secretary's his or her |
designee deems relevant or material to any investigation or |
hearing conducted by the Department with the same fees and |
mileage as prescribed in
civil cases in circuit
courts of this |
State and in the same manner as prescribed by this Act and its |
rules.
|
(b) The Secretary, any member of the Committee designated |
|
by the Secretary, a certified shorthand reporter, or any |
hearing officer appointed may administer oaths at any hearing |
which the Department conducts. Notwithstanding any statute or |
Department rule to the contrary, all requests for testimony, |
production of documents, or records shall be in accordance |
with this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/20.6) (from Ch. 111, par. 5526.6)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 20.6. Hearing officer. Notwithstanding the provisions |
of Section 20.2 of this Act,
the Secretary shall have the |
authority to appoint any attorney
duly licensed
to practice |
law in the State of Illinois to serve as the hearing officer
in |
any disciplinary action.
|
The hearing officer shall have full authority to conduct |
the hearing.
The hearing officer shall report the hearing |
officer's his findings of fact, conclusions of law ,
and |
recommendations to the Committee and the Secretary .
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/20.7) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
Sec. 20.7. Findings and recommendations. |
(a) The Committee shall review the report of the hearing |
officer and present its findings of fact, conclusions of law, |
|
and recommendations to the Secretary. The report of the |
findings and recommendations of the Committee shall be the |
basis for the Secretary's order for refusing to issue, |
restore, or renew a license or registration, or otherwise |
discipline a licensee or registrant. |
(b) If the Secretary disagrees in any regard with the |
report of the Committee or hearing officer, the Secretary he |
or she may issue an order contrary to the report. |
(c) The findings are not admissible in evidence against |
the person in a criminal prosecution brought for the violation |
of this Act, but the hearing and findings are not a bar to a |
criminal prosecution brought for the violation of this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/21) (from Ch. 111, par. 5527)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
Sec. 21. Administrative review; certification of record; |
order as prima facie proof.
|
(a) All final administrative decisions of the
Department
|
hereunder shall
be subject to judicial review pursuant to the |
provisions of the Administrative
Review Law, and all |
amendments and modifications thereof, and the rules adopted
|
pursuant thereto. The term "administrative decision" is |
defined as in Section
3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
|
Proceedings for judicial review shall be commenced in the |
Circuit
Court of the county in which the party applying for |
|
review resides; provided,
that if such party is not a resident |
of this State, the venue shall be in
Sangamon, Champaign, or |
Cook County.
|
(b) The Department shall not be required to certify any |
record
to the
court or file any answer in court or otherwise |
appear in any court in a
judicial review proceeding, unless |
and until the Department has received from the plaintiff |
payment of
the costs of
furnishing and certifying the record, |
which costs shall be established
by the Department. Exhibits |
shall be certified without cost.
Failure on the part of the |
plaintiff to file such receipt in court shall be
grounds for |
dismissal of the action.
|
(c) An order of disciplinary action or a certified copy |
thereof, over
the seal of the Department and purporting to be |
signed by the Secretary
or authorized agent of the Secretary, |
shall be prima
facie
proof, subject to being rebutted, that:
|
(1) the signature is the genuine signature of the |
Secretary
or authorized agent of the Secretary;
|
(2) the Secretary or authorized agent of the Secretary |
is duly
appointed and qualified;
and
|
(3) the Committee and the members thereof are |
qualified
to act.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/27) (from Ch. 111, par. 5533)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024) |
|
Sec. 27. Confidentiality of licensee's and registrant's |
records. A licensed or registered CPA shall not be required by
|
any court to divulge
information or evidence which has been |
obtained by him in the licensee or registrant's his |
confidential
capacity as a licensed or registered CPA. This |
Section shall not apply to any
investigation or hearing |
undertaken pursuant to this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
(225 ILCS 450/30) (from Ch. 111, par. 5535)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
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Sec. 30. Injunctions; cease and desist. |
(a) If any person or entity violates any provision of this |
Act, the Secretary may, in the name of the people of the State
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of Illinois by the Attorney General of the State of Illinois or |
the
State's Attorney of any county in which the violation is |
alleged to have occurred, petition for an order enjoining the |
violation or for an order enforcing compliance with this Act. |
Upon the filing of a verified petition in court, the court may |
issue a temporary restraining order, without notice or bond, |
and may preliminarily and permanently enjoin the violation. If |
it is established that the person has violated or is violating |
the injunction, the court may punish the offender for contempt |
of court. The injunction proceeding
shall be
in addition to |
and not in lieu of any penalties or other remedies provided
by |
this Act. No injunction shall issue under this section against |
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any
person for any act exempted under Section 11 of this Act.
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(b) If any person shall practice as a licensed CPA or
a |
registered CPA or hold oneself himself or herself out
as a |
licensed CPA or registered CPA without being licensed or |
registered under the
provisions provision of this
Act then any |
licensed CPA or registered CPA, any interested party, or
any |
person
injured thereby may, in addition to the Department, |
petition for
relief
as provided in subsection (a) of this |
Section .
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(c) Whenever in the opinion of the Department any person |
violates
any provision
of this Act, the Department may issue a |
rule to show cause why an
order
to cease and desist should not |
be entered against the person him . The rule shall clearly
set
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forth the grounds relied upon by the Department and shall |
provide
a period
of 7 days from the date of the rule to file an |
answer to the satisfaction
of the Department. Failure to |
answer to the satisfaction of the
Department
shall cause an |
order to cease and desist to be issued forthwith.
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(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13.)
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Section 99. Effective date. This Section and Section 5 |
take effect upon becoming law. |