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Public Act 103-0425 | ||||
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AN ACT concerning regulation.
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Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
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represented in the General Assembly:
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Section 5. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by | ||||
changing Sections 4, 11, 16.1, 17, 19, 23, and 50 and by adding | ||||
Section 50.1 as follows:
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(225 ILCS 25/4)
(from Ch. 111, par. 2304)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
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Sec. 4. Definitions. As used in this Act:
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"Address of record" means the designated address recorded | ||||
by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application | ||||
file or license file as maintained by the Department's | ||||
licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or | ||||
licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and | ||||
those changes must be made either through the Department's | ||||
website or by contacting the Department. | ||||
"Department" means the Department of Financial and | ||||
Professional Regulation.
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"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and | ||||
Professional Regulation.
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"Board" means the Board of Dentistry.
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"Dentist" means a person who has received a general | ||||
license pursuant
to paragraph (a) of Section 11 of this Act and |
who may perform any intraoral
and extraoral procedure required | ||
in the practice of dentistry and to whom is
reserved the | ||
responsibilities specified in Section 17.
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"Dental hygienist" means a person who holds a license | ||
under this Act to
perform dental services as authorized by | ||
Section 18.
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"Dental assistant" means an appropriately trained person
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who, under the supervision of a dentist, provides dental | ||
services
as authorized by Section 17.
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"Expanded function dental assistant" means a dental | ||
assistant who has completed the training required by Section | ||
17.1 of this Act. | ||
"Dental laboratory" means a person, firm , or corporation | ||
which:
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(i) engages in making, providing, repairing , or | ||
altering dental
prosthetic appliances and other artificial | ||
materials and devices which are
returned to a dentist for | ||
insertion into the human oral cavity or which
come in | ||
contact with its adjacent structures and tissues; and
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(ii) utilizes or employs a dental technician to | ||
provide such services; and
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(iii) performs such functions only for a dentist or | ||
dentists.
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"Supervision" means supervision of a dental hygienist or a | ||
dental
assistant requiring that a dentist authorize the | ||
procedure, remain in the
dental facility while the procedure |
is performed, and approve the work
performed by the dental | ||
hygienist or dental assistant before dismissal of
the patient, | ||
but does not mean that the dentist must be present at all
times | ||
in the treatment room.
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"General supervision" means supervision of a dental | ||
hygienist
requiring that the patient be a patient of record,
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that the dentist
examine the patient in accordance with | ||
Section 18 prior to treatment by the
dental hygienist, and | ||
that the
dentist authorize the procedures which
are being | ||
carried
out by a notation in the patient's record, but not | ||
requiring that a dentist
be present when the authorized
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procedures are being performed. The
issuance of a prescription | ||
to a dental laboratory by a
dentist does not constitute | ||
general supervision.
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"Public member" means a person who is not a health | ||
professional.
For purposes of board membership, any person | ||
with a significant financial
interest in a health service or | ||
profession is not a public member.
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"Dentistry" means the healing art which is concerned with | ||
the
examination, diagnosis, treatment planning , and care of | ||
conditions within
the human oral cavity and its adjacent | ||
tissues and structures, as further
specified in Section 17.
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"Branches of dentistry" means the various specialties of | ||
dentistry
which, for purposes of this Act, shall be limited to | ||
the following:
endodontics, oral and maxillofacial surgery, | ||
orthodontics and dentofacial
orthopedics, pediatric dentistry,
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periodontics, prosthodontics, oral and maxillofacial
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radiology, and dental anesthesiology.
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"Specialist" means a dentist who has received a specialty | ||
license
pursuant to Section 11(b).
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"Dental technician" means a person who owns, operates , or | ||
is
employed by a dental laboratory and engages in making, | ||
providing, repairing ,
or altering dental prosthetic appliances | ||
and other artificial materials and
devices which are returned | ||
to a dentist for insertion into the human oral
cavity or which | ||
come in contact with its adjacent structures and tissues.
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"Impaired dentist" or "impaired dental hygienist" means a | ||
dentist
or dental hygienist who is unable to practice with
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reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental | ||
disability as
evidenced by a written determination or written | ||
consent based on clinical
evidence, including deterioration | ||
through the aging process, loss of motor
skills, abuse of | ||
drugs or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient
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degree to diminish the person's ability to deliver competent | ||
patient care.
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"Nurse" means a registered professional nurse, a certified | ||
registered
nurse anesthetist licensed as an advanced practice
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registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under | ||
the Nurse Practice Act.
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"Patient of record" means a patient for whom the patient's | ||
most recent
dentist has obtained
a
relevant medical and dental | ||
history and on whom the dentist has performed an
examination |
and evaluated the condition to be treated.
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"Dental responder" means a dentist or dental hygienist who | ||
is appropriately certified in disaster preparedness, | ||
immunizations, and dental humanitarian medical response | ||
consistent with the Society of Disaster Medicine and Public | ||
Health and training certified by the National Incident | ||
Management System or the National Disaster Life Support | ||
Foundation.
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"Mobile dental van or portable dental unit" means any | ||
self-contained or portable dental unit in which dentistry is | ||
practiced that can be moved, towed, or transported from one | ||
location to another in order to establish a location where | ||
dental services can be provided. | ||
"Public health dental hygienist" means a hygienist who | ||
holds a valid license to practice in the State, has 2 years of | ||
full-time clinical experience or an equivalent of 4,000 hours | ||
of clinical experience , and has completed at least 42 clock | ||
hours of additional structured courses in dental education in | ||
advanced areas specific to public health dentistry. | ||
"Public health setting" means a federally qualified health | ||
center; a federal, State, or local public health facility; | ||
Head Start; a special supplemental nutrition program for | ||
Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) facility; a certified | ||
school-based health center or school-based oral health | ||
program; a prison; or a long-term care facility. | ||
"Public health supervision" means the supervision of a |
public health dental hygienist by a licensed dentist who has a | ||
written public health supervision agreement with that public | ||
health dental hygienist while working in an approved facility | ||
or program that allows the public health dental hygienist to | ||
treat patients, without a dentist first examining the patient | ||
and being present in the facility during treatment, (1) who | ||
are eligible for Medicaid or (2) who are uninsured and whose | ||
household income is not greater than 300% 200% of the federal | ||
poverty level. | ||
"Teledentistry" means the use of telehealth systems and | ||
methodologies in dentistry and includes patient care and | ||
education delivery using synchronous and asynchronous | ||
communications under a dentist's authority as provided under | ||
this Act. | ||
(Source: P.A. 101-64, eff. 7-12-19; 101-162, eff. 7-26-19; | ||
102-93, eff. 1-1-22; 102-588, eff. 8-20-21; 102-936, eff. | ||
1-1-23 .)
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(225 ILCS 25/11) (from Ch. 111, par. 2311)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
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Sec. 11. Types of dental licenses. The Department shall | ||
have the
authority to issue the following types of licenses:
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(a) General licenses. The Department shall issue a license | ||
authorizing
practice as a dentist to any person who qualifies | ||
for a license under this Act.
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(b) Specialty licenses. The Department shall issue a
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license authorizing practice as a specialist in any particular
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branch of dentistry to any dentist who has complied with the
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requirements established for that particular branch of | ||
dentistry at the
time of making application. The Department | ||
shall establish additional
requirements of any dentist who | ||
announces or holds himself or herself out
to the public as a | ||
specialist or as being specially qualified in any
particular | ||
branch of dentistry.
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No dentist shall announce or hold himself or herself out | ||
to the public as
a specialist or as being specially qualified | ||
in any particular branch of
dentistry unless he or she is | ||
licensed to practice in that specialty of
dentistry.
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The fact that any dentist shall announce by card, | ||
letterhead , or any
other form of communication using terms as | ||
"Specialist ", ," "Practice
Limited To" , or "Limited to | ||
Specialty of" with the name of the branch of
dentistry | ||
practiced as a specialty, or shall use equivalent words or
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phrases to announce the same, shall be prima facie evidence | ||
that the
dentist is holding himself or herself out to the | ||
public as a specialist.
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(c) Temporary training licenses. Persons who wish to | ||
pursue
specialty or other advanced clinical educational | ||
programs
in an approved dental school or a hospital situated
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in this State, or persons who wish to pursue programs of | ||
specialty
training in dental public health in public agencies | ||
in this State, may
receive without examination, in the |
discretion of the Department, a
temporary training license. In | ||
order to receive a temporary
training license under this | ||
subsection, an applicant shall furnish
satisfactory proof to | ||
the Department that:
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(1) The applicant is at least 21 years of age and is of | ||
good moral
character. In determining moral character under | ||
this Section, the
Department may take into consideration | ||
any felony conviction of the
applicant, but such a | ||
conviction shall not operate as bar to licensure;
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(2) The applicant has been accepted or appointed for | ||
specialty or
residency training by an approved hospital | ||
situated in this State, by an
approved dental school | ||
situated in this State, or by a public health agency
in | ||
this State the training programs of which are recognized | ||
and approved by
the Department. The applicant shall | ||
indicate the beginning and ending
dates of the period for | ||
which he or she has been accepted or appointed;
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(3) The applicant is a graduate of a dental school or | ||
college approved
and in good standing in the judgment of | ||
the Department.
The Department may consider diplomas or | ||
certifications of education, or both,
accompanied by | ||
transcripts of course work and credits awarded to | ||
determine
if an applicant has graduated from a dental | ||
school or college approved and
in good standing. The | ||
Department may also consider diplomas or
certifications of | ||
education, or both, accompanied by transcripts of course
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work and credits awarded in determining whether a dental | ||
school or college
is approved and in good standing.
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Temporary training licenses issued under this
Section | ||
shall be valid only for the duration of the period of residency | ||
or
specialty training and may be extended or renewed as | ||
prescribed by rule.
The holder of a valid temporary training | ||
license shall be entitled thereby to
perform acts as may be | ||
prescribed by and incidental to his or her program of
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residency or specialty training; but he or she shall not be | ||
entitled to
engage in the practice of dentistry in this State.
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A temporary training license may be revoked by the
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Department upon proof that the holder has engaged in the
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practice of dentistry in this State outside of his or her | ||
program of residency
or specialty training, or if the holder | ||
shall fail to supply the
Department, within 10 days of its | ||
request, with information as to his
or her current status and | ||
activities in his or her specialty training program.
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(d) Faculty limited licenses.
Persons who have received | ||
full-time appointments to
teach dentistry at an approved | ||
dental school or hospital situated in this
State may receive | ||
without examination, in the discretion of the Department,
a | ||
faculty limited license. In order to
receive a faculty limited | ||
license an applicant shall furnish satisfactory
proof to the | ||
Department that:
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(1) The applicant is at least 21 years of age, is of | ||
good moral
character , and is licensed to
practice |
dentistry in another state or country; and
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(2) The applicant has a full-time appointment to teach
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dentistry at an approved
dental school or hospital | ||
situated in this State.
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Faculty limited licenses issued under
this Section shall | ||
be
valid for a period of 3 years and may be extended or
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renewed. The
holder of a valid faculty limited license
may | ||
perform acts as may
be required by his or her teaching of | ||
dentistry.
The In addition, the holder of a faculty limited | ||
license may practice general
dentistry or in his or her area of | ||
specialty, but only in a clinic or office
affiliated with the | ||
dental school. The holder of a faculty limited license may | ||
advertise a specialty degree as part of the licensee's ability | ||
to practice in a faculty practice. Any faculty limited license | ||
issued to a
faculty member under this Section shall terminate | ||
immediately and
automatically,
without any further action by | ||
the Department, if the holder ceases to be a
faculty member at | ||
an approved dental school or hospital in this State.
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The Department may revoke a faculty limited license for a | ||
violation of
this Act or its rules, or if the holder fails to
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supply the Department, within 10 days of its request, with | ||
information as
to his or her current status and activities in | ||
his or her teaching program.
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(e) Inactive status. Any person who holds one of the | ||
licenses
under subsection (a) or (b) of Section 11 or under | ||
Section 12 of this Act may
elect, upon payment of
the required |
fee, to place his or her license on an inactive status and | ||
shall,
subject to the rules of the
Department, be excused from | ||
the payment of renewal fees until he or she
notifies the | ||
Department in writing of his or her desire to resume active
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status.
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Any licensee requesting restoration from inactive status | ||
shall be
required to pay the current renewal fee and upon | ||
payment the Department
shall be required to restore his or her | ||
license, as provided in Section 16 of
this Act.
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Any licensee whose license is in an
inactive status shall | ||
not practice in the State of Illinois.
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(f) Certificates of Identification. In addition to the | ||
licenses
authorized by this Section, the Department shall | ||
deliver to each dentist a
certificate of identification in a | ||
form specified by the Department.
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(Source: P.A. 100-976, eff. 1-1-19 .)
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(225 ILCS 25/16.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 2316.1)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
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Sec. 16.1. Continuing education. The Department shall | ||
promulgate
rules of continuing education for persons licensed | ||
under
this Act. In establishing rules, the Department shall | ||
require a minimum of
48 hours of study in approved courses for | ||
dentists during each 3-year
licensing period and a minimum of | ||
36 hours of study in approved courses for
dental hygienists | ||
during each 3-year licensing period.
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The Department shall approve only courses that are | ||
relevant to the
treatment and care of patients, including, but | ||
not limited to, clinical
courses in dentistry and dental | ||
hygiene and nonclinical courses such as
patient management, | ||
legal and ethical responsibilities, and stress
management. The | ||
Department shall allow up to 4 hours of continuing education | ||
credit hours per license renewal period for volunteer hours | ||
spent providing clinical services at, or sponsored by, a | ||
nonprofit community clinic, local or state health department, | ||
or a charity event. Courses shall not be approved in such | ||
subjects as estate and
personal financial planning, personal | ||
investments, or personal health. Approved courses may
include, | ||
but shall not be limited to, courses that are offered or | ||
sponsored
by approved colleges, universities, and hospitals | ||
and by recognized
national, State, and local dental and dental | ||
hygiene organizations. When offering a continuing education | ||
course, whether at no cost or for a fee, the course provider | ||
shall explicitly disclose that the course is an approved | ||
course for continuing education in the State of Illinois, as | ||
provided in this Section or by the rules adopted by the | ||
Department.
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No license shall be renewed unless the
renewal application | ||
is accompanied by an affidavit indicating that the
applicant | ||
has completed the required minimum number of hours of | ||
continuing
education in approved courses as required by this | ||
Section.
The affidavit shall not require a listing of courses. |
The affidavit
shall be a prima facie evidence that the | ||
applicant has obtained the minimum
number of required | ||
continuing education hours in approved courses. The
Department | ||
shall not be obligated to conduct random
audits or otherwise | ||
independently verify that an applicant has met the
continuing | ||
education requirement.
The Department, however, may not | ||
conduct random audits
of more than 10% of the licensed
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dentists and dental hygienists in any one licensing cycle
to | ||
verify compliance
with continuing education requirements.
If | ||
the Department, however, receives a
complaint that a licensee | ||
has not completed the required continuing
education or if the | ||
Department is investigating another alleged violation
of this | ||
Act by a licensee, the Department may demand and shall be | ||
entitled
to receive evidence from any licensee of completion | ||
of required
continuing education courses for the most recently | ||
completed 3-year
licensing period.
Evidence of continuing | ||
education may include, but is not limited to, canceled
checks, | ||
official verification forms of attendance, and continuing | ||
education
recording forms, that demonstrate a reasonable | ||
record of attendance. The
Board shall determine, in accordance | ||
with rules adopted by the
Department,
whether a licensee or | ||
applicant has met the continuing education
requirements.
Any | ||
dentist who holds more than one license under this
Act shall be | ||
required to complete
only the minimum number of hours of | ||
continuing education required for
renewal of a single license. | ||
The Department may provide exemptions from
continuing |
education requirements.
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(Source: P.A. 99-492, eff. 12-31-15.)
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(225 ILCS 25/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 2317)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
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Sec. 17. Acts constituting the practice of dentistry. A | ||
person
practices dentistry, within the meaning of this Act:
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(1) Who represents himself or herself as being able to | ||
diagnose or diagnoses,
treats, prescribes, or operates for | ||
any disease, pain, deformity, deficiency,
injury, or | ||
physical condition of the human tooth, teeth, alveolar | ||
process,
gums , or jaw; or
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(2) Who is a manager, proprietor, operator , or | ||
conductor of a
business where
dental operations are | ||
performed; or
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(3) Who performs dental operations of any kind; or
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(4) Who uses an X-Ray machine or X-Ray films for
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dental diagnostic purposes; or
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(5) Who extracts a human tooth or teeth, or corrects | ||
or attempts to
correct
malpositions of the human teeth or | ||
jaws; or
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(6) Who offers or undertakes, by any means or method, | ||
to diagnose, treat ,
or remove stains, calculus, and | ||
bonding materials from human teeth or jaws; or
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(7) Who uses or administers local or general | ||
anesthetics in the treatment
of dental or oral diseases or |
in any preparation incident to a dental operation
of any | ||
kind or character; or
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(8) Who takes material or digital scans for final | ||
impressions of the human tooth, teeth, or jaws or performs
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any phase of any operation incident to the replacement of | ||
a part of a tooth,
a tooth, teeth , or associated tissues by | ||
means of a filling, crown, a bridge,
a denture , or other | ||
appliance; or
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(9) Who offers to furnish, supply, construct, | ||
reproduce , or repair, or
who furnishes, supplies, | ||
constructs, reproduces , or repairs, prosthetic
dentures, | ||
bridges , or other substitutes for natural teeth, to the | ||
user or
prospective user thereof; or
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(10) Who instructs students on clinical matters or | ||
performs any clinical
operation included in the curricula | ||
of recognized dental schools and colleges; or
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(11) Who takes material or digital scans for final | ||
impressions of human teeth or places his or her hands in | ||
the mouth of any person for the purpose of applying teeth | ||
whitening materials, or who takes impressions of human | ||
teeth or places his or her hands in the mouth of any person | ||
for the purpose of assisting in the application of teeth | ||
whitening materials. A person does not practice dentistry | ||
when he or she discloses to the consumer that he or she is | ||
not licensed as a dentist under this Act and (i) discusses | ||
the use of teeth whitening materials with a consumer |
purchasing these materials; (ii) provides instruction on | ||
the use of teeth whitening materials with a consumer | ||
purchasing these materials; or (iii) provides appropriate | ||
equipment on-site to the consumer for the consumer to | ||
self-apply teeth whitening materials. | ||
The fact that any person engages in or performs, or offers | ||
to engage in
or perform, any of the practices, acts, or | ||
operations set forth in this
Section, shall be prima facie | ||
evidence that such person is engaged in the
practice of | ||
dentistry.
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The following practices, acts, and operations, however, | ||
are exempt from
the operation of this Act:
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(a) The rendering of dental relief in emergency cases | ||
in the practice
of his or her profession by a physician or | ||
surgeon, licensed as such
under the laws of this State, | ||
unless he or she undertakes to reproduce or reproduces
| ||
lost parts of the human teeth in the mouth or to restore or | ||
replace lost
or missing teeth in the mouth; or
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(b) The practice of dentistry in the discharge of | ||
their official duties
by dentists in any branch of the | ||
Armed Services of the United States, the
United States | ||
Public Health Service, or the United States Veterans
| ||
Administration; or
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(c) The practice of dentistry by students in their | ||
course of study
in dental schools or colleges approved by | ||
the Department, when acting under the
direction and |
supervision of dentists acting as instructors; or
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(d) The practice of dentistry by clinical instructors | ||
in the course of
their teaching duties in dental schools | ||
or colleges approved by the
Department:
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(i) when acting under the direction and | ||
supervision of dentists,
provided that such clinical | ||
instructors have instructed continuously in
this State | ||
since January 1, 1986; or
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(ii) when holding the rank of full professor at | ||
such approved dental
school or college and possessing | ||
a current valid license or authorization
to practice | ||
dentistry in another country; or
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(e) The practice of dentistry by licensed dentists of | ||
other states or
countries at meetings of the Illinois | ||
State Dental Society or component
parts thereof, alumni | ||
meetings of dental colleges, or any other like dental
| ||
organizations, while appearing as clinicians; or
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(f) The use of X-Ray machines for exposing X-Ray films | ||
of dental or oral
tissues by dental hygienists or dental | ||
assistants; or
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(g) The performance of any dental service by a dental | ||
assistant, if such
service is performed under the | ||
supervision and full responsibility of a
dentist. In | ||
addition, after being authorized by a dentist, a dental | ||
assistant may, for the purpose of eliminating pain or | ||
discomfort, remove loose, broken, or irritating |
orthodontic appliances on a patient of record.
| ||
For purposes of this paragraph (g), "dental service" | ||
is defined to mean
any intraoral procedure or act which | ||
shall be prescribed by rule or
regulation of the | ||
Department. " Dental service " , however, shall not include:
| ||
(1) Any and all diagnosis of or prescription for | ||
treatment of disease,
pain, deformity, deficiency, | ||
injury , or physical condition of the human teeth
or | ||
jaws, or adjacent structures.
| ||
(2) Removal of, or restoration of, or addition
to | ||
the hard or soft tissues of the oral cavity, except for | ||
the placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam | ||
restorations and placing, packing, and finishing | ||
composite restorations by dental assistants who have | ||
had additional formal education and certification. | ||
A dental assistant may place, carve, and finish | ||
amalgam restorations, place, pack, and finish | ||
composite restorations, and place interim restorations | ||
if he or she (A) has successfully completed a | ||
structured training program as described in item (2) | ||
of subsection (g) provided by an educational | ||
institution accredited by the Commission on Dental | ||
Accreditation, such as a dental school or dental | ||
hygiene or dental assistant program, or (B) has at | ||
least 4,000 hours of direct clinical patient care | ||
experience and has successfully completed a structured |
training program as described in item (2) of | ||
subsection (g) provided by a statewide dental | ||
association, approved by the Department to provide | ||
continuing education, that has developed and conducted | ||
training programs for expanded functions for dental | ||
assistants or hygienists. The training program must: | ||
(i) include a minimum of 16 hours of didactic study and | ||
14 hours of clinical manikin instruction; all training | ||
programs shall include areas of study in nomenclature, | ||
caries classifications, oral anatomy, periodontium, | ||
basic occlusion, instrumentations, pulp protection | ||
liners and bases, dental materials, matrix and wedge | ||
techniques, amalgam placement and carving, rubber dam | ||
clamp placement, and rubber dam placement and removal; | ||
(ii) include an outcome assessment examination that | ||
demonstrates competency; (iii) require the supervising | ||
dentist to observe and approve the completion of 8 | ||
amalgam or composite restorations; and (iv) issue a | ||
certificate of completion of the training program, | ||
which must be kept on file at the dental office and be | ||
made available to the Department upon request. A | ||
dental assistant must have successfully completed an | ||
approved coronal polishing and dental sealant course | ||
prior to taking the amalgam and composite restoration | ||
course. | ||
A dentist utilizing dental assistants shall not |
supervise more than 4 dental assistants at any one | ||
time for placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam | ||
restorations or for placing, packing, and finishing | ||
composite restorations.
| ||
(3) Any and all correction of malformation of | ||
teeth or of the jaws.
| ||
(4) Administration of anesthetics, except for | ||
monitoring of
nitrous oxide, conscious sedation, deep | ||
sedation, and general anesthetic as provided in | ||
Section 8.1 of this Act, that may be performed only | ||
after successful completion of a training
program | ||
approved by the Department. A dentist utilizing dental | ||
assistants shall not supervise more than 4 dental | ||
assistants at any one time for the monitoring of | ||
nitrous oxide.
| ||
(5) Removal of calculus from human teeth.
| ||
(6) Taking of material or digital scans for final | ||
impressions for the fabrication of prosthetic
| ||
appliances,
crowns,
bridges, inlays, onlays, or other | ||
restorative or replacement
dentistry.
| ||
(7) The operative procedure of dental hygiene | ||
consisting of oral
prophylactic procedures, except for | ||
coronal polishing and pit and fissure sealants,
which | ||
may be
performed by a
dental assistant who has | ||
successfully completed a training program approved by
| ||
the Department. Dental assistants may perform coronal |
polishing under the
following circumstances: (i) the | ||
coronal polishing shall be limited to
polishing the
| ||
clinical crown of the tooth and existing restorations, | ||
supragingivally; (ii)
the
dental assistant performing | ||
the coronal polishing shall be limited to the use
of
| ||
rotary instruments using a rubber cup or brush | ||
polishing method (air polishing
is
not permitted); and | ||
(iii) the supervising dentist shall not supervise more
| ||
than 4
dental assistants at any one time for the task | ||
of coronal polishing or pit and fissure sealants.
| ||
In addition to coronal polishing and pit and | ||
fissure sealants as described in this item (7), a | ||
dental assistant who has at least 2,000 hours of | ||
direct clinical patient care experience and who has | ||
successfully completed a structured training program | ||
provided by (1) an educational institution including, | ||
but not limited to, a dental school or dental hygiene | ||
or dental assistant program, or (2) a continuing | ||
education provider approved by the Department, or (3) | ||
a statewide dental or dental hygienist association , | ||
approved by the Department on or before January 1, | ||
2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-680), that | ||
has developed and conducted a training program for | ||
expanded functions for dental assistants or hygienists | ||
may perform: (A) coronal scaling above the gum line, | ||
supragingivally, on the clinical crown of the tooth |
only on patients 17 years of age or younger who have an | ||
absence of periodontal disease and who are not | ||
medically compromised or individuals with special | ||
needs and (B) intracoronal temporization of a tooth. | ||
The training program must: (I) include a minimum of 32 | ||
hours of instruction in both didactic and clinical | ||
manikin or human subject instruction; all training | ||
programs shall include areas of study in dental | ||
anatomy, public health dentistry, medical history, | ||
dental emergencies, and managing the pediatric | ||
patient; (II) include an outcome assessment | ||
examination that demonstrates competency; (III) | ||
require the supervising dentist to observe and approve | ||
the completion of 6 full mouth supragingival scaling | ||
procedures unless the training was received as part of | ||
a Commission on Dental Accreditation approved dental | ||
assistant program; and (IV) issue a certificate of | ||
completion of the training program, which must be kept | ||
on file at the dental office and be made available to | ||
the Department upon request. A dental assistant must | ||
have successfully completed an approved coronal | ||
polishing course prior to taking the coronal scaling | ||
course. A dental assistant performing these functions | ||
shall be limited to the use of hand instruments only. | ||
In addition, coronal scaling as described in this | ||
paragraph shall only be utilized on patients who are |
eligible for Medicaid, who are uninsured, or whose | ||
household income is not greater than 300% of the | ||
federal poverty level. A dentist may not supervise | ||
more than 2 dental assistants at any one time for the | ||
task of coronal scaling. This paragraph is inoperative | ||
on and after January 1, 2026. | ||
The limitations on the number of dental assistants a | ||
dentist may supervise contained in items (2), (4), and (7) | ||
of this paragraph (g) mean a limit of 4 total dental | ||
assistants or dental hygienists doing expanded functions | ||
covered by these Sections being supervised by one dentist; | ||
or | ||
(h) The practice of dentistry by an individual who:
| ||
(i) has applied in writing to the Department, in | ||
form and substance
satisfactory to the Department, for | ||
a general dental license and has
complied with all | ||
provisions of Section 9 of this Act, except for the
| ||
passage of the examination specified in subsection (e) | ||
of Section 9 of this
Act; or
| ||
(ii) has applied in writing to the Department, in | ||
form and substance
satisfactory to the Department, for | ||
a temporary dental license and has
complied with all | ||
provisions of subsection (c) of Section 11 of this | ||
Act; and
| ||
(iii) has been accepted or appointed for specialty | ||
or residency training
by a hospital situated in this |
State; or
| ||
(iv) has been accepted or appointed for specialty | ||
training in an
approved dental program situated in | ||
this State; or
| ||
(v) has been accepted or appointed for specialty | ||
training in a dental
public health agency situated in | ||
this State.
| ||
The applicant shall be permitted to practice dentistry | ||
for a period of 3
months from the starting date of the | ||
program, unless authorized in writing
by the Department to | ||
continue such practice for a period specified in
writing | ||
by the Department.
| ||
The applicant shall only be entitled to perform such | ||
acts as may be
prescribed by and incidental to his or her | ||
program of residency or specialty
training and shall not | ||
otherwise engage in the practice of dentistry in this
| ||
State.
| ||
The authority to practice shall terminate immediately | ||
upon:
| ||
(1) the decision of the Department that the | ||
applicant has failed the
examination; or
| ||
(2) denial of licensure by the Department; or
| ||
(3) withdrawal of the application.
| ||
(Source: P.A. 101-162, eff. 7-26-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; | ||
102-936, eff. 1-1-23 .)
|
(225 ILCS 25/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 2319)
| ||
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
| ||
Sec. 19. Licensing applicants from other states. Any | ||
person who has
been lawfully licensed to practice dentistry, | ||
including the practice of a licensed dental specialty, or | ||
dental hygiene in
another state or territory
or as a member of | ||
the military service which has and maintains a standard for | ||
the practice of dentistry, a dental specialty, or dental
| ||
hygiene at least equal to that now maintained in this State, or | ||
if the
requirements for licensure in such state or territory | ||
in which the
applicant was licensed were, at the date of his or | ||
her licensure, substantially
equivalent to the requirements | ||
then in force in this State, and who has
been lawfully engaged | ||
in
the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene for at least 2 3 | ||
of the 5 years
immediately preceding the filing of his or her | ||
application
to practice in this State
and who shall deposit | ||
with the Department a duly attested certificate from
the Board | ||
of the state or territory in which he or she is licensed,
| ||
certifying to the fact of his or her licensing and of his or | ||
her being a
person of good moral character may, upon payment of | ||
the required fee, be
granted a license to practice dentistry, | ||
a dental specialty, or dental hygiene in this State, as the | ||
case may be.
| ||
For the purposes of this Section, "substantially | ||
equivalent" means that the applicant has presented evidence of | ||
completion and graduation from an American Dental Association |
accredited dental college or school in the United States or | ||
Canada, presented evidence that the applicant has passed both | ||
parts of the National Board Dental Examination, and | ||
successfully completed an examination conducted by a regional | ||
testing service. In computing 3 of the immediately
preceding 5 | ||
years of
practice in another state or territory, any person | ||
who left the practice
of dentistry to enter the military | ||
service and who practiced dentistry
while in the military | ||
service may count as a part of such period the
time spent by | ||
him or her in such service.
| ||
Applicants have 3 years from the date of application to | ||
complete the
application process. If the process has not been | ||
completed in 3 years,
the application shall be denied, the fee | ||
forfeited and the
applicant must reapply and meet the | ||
requirements in effect at the time of
reapplication.
| ||
(Source: P.A. 97-526, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1013, eff. 8-17-12 .)
| ||
(225 ILCS 25/23) (from Ch. 111, par. 2323)
| ||
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
| ||
Sec. 23. Refusal, revocation or suspension of dental | ||
licenses. The
Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may | ||
revoke, suspend, place on
probation, reprimand or take other | ||
disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department
may | ||
deem proper, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 | ||
per violation, with
regard to any license for any one or any | ||
combination of
the following causes:
|
1. Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for or | ||
procuring a license under this Act, or in connection with | ||
applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
| ||
2. Inability to practice with reasonable judgment, | ||
skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use | ||
or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any | ||
other chemical agent or drug.
| ||
3. Willful or repeated violations of the rules of the | ||
Department of
Public Health or Department of Nuclear | ||
Safety.
| ||
4. Acceptance of a fee for service as a witness, | ||
without the
knowledge of the court, in addition to the fee | ||
allowed by the court.
| ||
5. Division of fees or agreeing to split or divide the | ||
fees received
for dental services with any person for | ||
bringing or referring a patient,
except in regard to | ||
referral services as provided for under Section 45,
or | ||
assisting in the care or treatment of a patient,
without | ||
the
knowledge of the patient or his or her legal | ||
representative. Nothing in this item 5 affects any bona | ||
fide independent contractor or employment arrangements | ||
among health care professionals, health facilities, health | ||
care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise | ||
prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include | ||
provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or | ||
other employment benefits for the provision of services |
within the scope of the licensee's practice under this | ||
Act. Nothing in this item 5 shall be construed to require | ||
an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for | ||
services rendered.
| ||
6. Employing, procuring, inducing, aiding or abetting | ||
a person not
licensed or registered as a dentist or dental | ||
hygienist to engage in the practice of
dentistry or dental | ||
hygiene. The person practiced upon is not an accomplice, | ||
employer,
procurer, inducer, aider, or abetter within the | ||
meaning of this Act.
| ||
7. Making any misrepresentations or false promises, | ||
directly or
indirectly, to influence, persuade or induce | ||
dental patronage.
| ||
8. Professional connection or association with or | ||
lending his or her name
to another for the illegal | ||
practice of dentistry by another, or
professional | ||
connection or association with any person, firm or
| ||
corporation holding himself, herself, themselves, or | ||
itself out in any manner
contrary to this Act.
| ||
9. Obtaining or seeking to obtain practice, money, or | ||
any other
things of value by false or fraudulent | ||
representations, but
not limited to, engaging in such | ||
fraudulent practice to defraud the
medical assistance | ||
program of the Department of Healthcare and Family | ||
Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the | ||
Illinois Public Aid Code.
|
10. Practicing under a false or, except as provided by | ||
law, an assumed name.
| ||
11. Engaging in dishonorable,
unethical, or | ||
unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
| ||
defraud, or harm the public.
| ||
12. Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, | ||
finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by | ||
sentencing for any crime, including, but not limited to, | ||
convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, | ||
conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under | ||
the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that (i) | ||
is a felony under the laws of this State or (ii) is a | ||
misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, | ||
or that is directly related to the practice of dentistry.
| ||
13. Permitting a dental hygienist, dental assistant or | ||
other person
under his or her supervision to perform
any | ||
operation not authorized by this Act.
| ||
14. Permitting more than 4 dental hygienists to be | ||
employed under
his or her supervision at any one time.
| ||
15. A violation of any provision of this
Act or any | ||
rules promulgated under this Act.
| ||
16. Taking impressions for or using the services of | ||
any person, firm
or corporation violating this Act.
| ||
17. Violating any provision of Section 45 relating to | ||
advertising.
| ||
18. Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign |
nation,
if at least one of the grounds for the discipline | ||
is the
same or substantially equivalent to those set forth | ||
within this Act.
| ||
19. Willfully failing to report an instance of | ||
suspected child abuse or
neglect as required by the Abused | ||
and Neglected Child Reporting
Act.
| ||
20. Gross negligence in practice under this Act.
| ||
21. The use or prescription for use of narcotics or | ||
controlled substances
or designated products as listed in | ||
the Illinois Controlled Substances
Act, in any way other | ||
than for therapeutic purposes.
| ||
22. Willfully making or filing false records or | ||
reports in his or her practice
as a dentist, including, | ||
but not limited to, false records to support claims
| ||
against the dental assistance program of the Department of | ||
Healthcare and Family Services (formerly
Illinois | ||
Department of Public
Aid).
| ||
23. Professional incompetence as manifested by poor | ||
standards of care.
| ||
24. Physical or mental illness, including, but not | ||
limited to,
deterioration
through
the aging process, or | ||
loss of motor skills which results in a dentist's
| ||
inability to practice dentistry with reasonable judgment, | ||
skill or safety. In
enforcing this paragraph, the | ||
Department may compel a person licensed to
practice under | ||
this Act to submit to a mental or physical examination |
pursuant
to the terms and conditions of Section 23b.
| ||
25. Gross or repeated irregularities in billing for | ||
services rendered
to a patient. For purposes of this | ||
paragraph 25, "irregularities in billing"
shall include:
| ||
(a) Reporting excessive charges for the purpose of | ||
obtaining a total
payment
in excess of that usually | ||
received by the dentist for the services rendered.
| ||
(b) Reporting charges for services not rendered.
| ||
(c) Incorrectly reporting services rendered for | ||
the purpose of obtaining
payment not earned.
| ||
26. Continuing the active practice of dentistry while | ||
knowingly having
any infectious, communicable, or | ||
contagious disease proscribed by rule or
regulation of the | ||
Department.
| ||
27. Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated | ||
report by the
Department of Children and Family Services | ||
pursuant to the Abused and
Neglected Child Reporting Act, | ||
and upon
proof by clear and convincing evidence that the | ||
licensee has
caused a child to be an abused child or | ||
neglected child as defined in the
Abused and Neglected | ||
Child Reporting Act.
| ||
28. Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral | ||
Act.
| ||
29. Abandonment of a patient.
| ||
30. Mental incompetency as declared by a court of | ||
competent
jurisdiction.
|
31. A finding by the Department that the licensee, | ||
after having his or her license placed on probationary | ||
status, has violated the terms of probation. | ||
32. Material misstatement in furnishing information to | ||
the Department. | ||
33. Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in | ||
response to a written request by the Department in the | ||
course of an investigation. | ||
34. Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, | ||
including, but not limited to, commission of an act of | ||
sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice. | ||
35. Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing | ||
examination administered under this Act. | ||
36. A pattern of practice or other behavior that | ||
demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under | ||
this Act. | ||
37. Failure to establish and maintain records of | ||
patient care and treatment as required under this Act. | ||
38. Failure to provide copies of dental records as | ||
required by law. | ||
39. Failure of a licensed dentist who owns or is | ||
employed at a dental office to give notice of an office | ||
closure to his or her patients at least 30 days prior to | ||
the office closure pursuant to Section 50.1. | ||
40. Failure to maintain a sanitary work environment. | ||
All proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary |
status, or
take any other disciplinary action as the | ||
Department may deem proper, with
regard to a license on any of | ||
the foregoing grounds, must be commenced
within 5 years after | ||
receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the
| ||
commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the | ||
acts
described herein. Except for fraud in procuring a | ||
license, no
action shall be commenced more than 7 years after | ||
the date of the incident
or act alleged to have violated this | ||
Section. The time during which the
holder of the license was | ||
outside the State of Illinois shall not be
included within any | ||
period of time limiting the commencement of
disciplinary | ||
action by the Department.
| ||
All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within | ||
60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine | ||
or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing | ||
the fine. | ||
The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the | ||
license of any
person who fails to file a return, or to pay the | ||
tax, penalty or interest
shown in a filed return, or to pay any | ||
final assessment of tax, penalty or
interest, as required by | ||
any tax Act administered by the Illinois
Department of | ||
Revenue, until such time as the requirements of
any such tax | ||
Act are satisfied.
| ||
Any dentist who has had his or her license suspended or | ||
revoked for more than 5 years must comply with the | ||
requirements for restoration set forth in Section 16 prior to |
being eligible for reinstatement from the suspension or | ||
revocation. | ||
(Source: P.A. 99-492, eff. 12-31-15.)
| ||
(225 ILCS 25/50) (from Ch. 111, par. 2350)
| ||
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
| ||
Sec. 50. Patient records. Every dentist shall make
a | ||
record of all dental work performed for each patient. The | ||
record shall
be made in a manner and in sufficient detail that | ||
it may be used for
identification purposes. Dental records are | ||
the property of the office in which dentistry is practiced.
| ||
Dental records required by this Section shall be | ||
maintained for 10 years.
Dental records required to be | ||
maintained under this Section, or copies
of those dental | ||
records, shall be made available upon request to the
patient | ||
or the patient's guardian. A dentist shall be entitled to | ||
reasonable reimbursement for the cost of reproducing these | ||
records, which shall not exceed the cost allowed under Section | ||
8-2001 of the Code of Civil Procedure. A dentist providing | ||
services through a mobile dental van or portable dental unit | ||
shall provide to the patient or the patient's parent or | ||
guardian, in writing, the dentist's name, license number, | ||
address, and information on how the patient or the patient's | ||
parent or guardian may obtain the patient's dental records, as | ||
provided by law.
| ||
(Source: P.A. 99-492, eff. 12-31-15.)
|
(225 ILCS 25/50.1 new) | ||
Sec. 50.1. Closing a dental office. A dental office that | ||
is closing and will not continue to offer dentistry services | ||
must provide notice to its patients at least 30 days prior to | ||
the closure. The notice to patients shall include an | ||
explanation of how copies of the patient's records may be | ||
accessed or obtained by the patient. The notice may be given by | ||
publication in a newspaper of general circulation in the area | ||
in which the dental office is located or in an electronic | ||
format accessible by patients.
| ||
Section 10. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is | ||
amended by changing Sections 309 and 311.6 as follows:
| ||
(720 ILCS 570/309) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1309)
| ||
Sec. 309. On or after April 1, 2000, no person shall issue | ||
a
prescription for a Schedule II
controlled substance, which | ||
is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of
this Act; or which | ||
contains any quantity of amphetamine or
methamphetamine, their | ||
salts, optical isomers or salts of optical
isomers; | ||
phenmetrazine and its salts; gluthethimide; and pentazocine, | ||
other than on a written
prescription; provided
that in the | ||
case of an emergency, epidemic or a
sudden or unforeseen | ||
accident or calamity, the prescriber may issue a
lawful oral | ||
prescription where failure to
issue such a prescription might |
result in
loss of life or intense suffering, but such oral | ||
prescription shall
include a statement by the prescriber | ||
concerning the accident
or calamity, or circumstances | ||
constituting the emergency, the cause for
which an oral | ||
prescription was used. Within
7 days after issuing an
| ||
emergency prescription, the prescriber shall cause a written | ||
prescription for
the emergency quantity prescribed to be | ||
delivered to
the dispensing pharmacist. The prescription shall | ||
have written on its face
"Authorization for Emergency | ||
Dispensing", and the date of the emergency
prescription. The | ||
written prescription
may be delivered to the pharmacist in | ||
person, or by mail, but if delivered
by mail it must be | ||
postmarked within the 7-day period. Upon
receipt, the
| ||
dispensing pharmacist shall attach this prescription to the | ||
emergency oral
prescription earlier received and
reduced to | ||
writing. The dispensing pharmacist shall notify the Department | ||
of Financial and Professional Regulation
if the prescriber
| ||
fails to deliver the authorization for emergency dispensing on | ||
the
prescription to him or her. Failure of the dispensing | ||
pharmacist to do so
shall void the authority conferred by this | ||
paragraph to dispense without a
written prescription of a
| ||
prescriber. All prescriptions issued for Schedule II
| ||
controlled substances shall include the quantity prescribed. | ||
All nonelectronic prescriptions issued for Schedule II | ||
controlled substances
shall include both a written and | ||
numerical notation of quantity on the face
of the |
prescription. No prescription for a Schedule II controlled | ||
substance
may
be refilled. The Department shall provide, at no | ||
cost, audit reviews and necessary information to the | ||
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in | ||
conjunction with ongoing investigations being conducted in | ||
whole or part by the Department of Financial and Professional | ||
Regulation.
| ||
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
| ||
(720 ILCS 570/311.6) | ||
(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a | ||
delayed effective date ) | ||
Sec. 311.6. Opioid prescriptions. | ||
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a | ||
prescription for a substance classified in Schedule II, III, | ||
IV, or V must be sent electronically, in accordance with | ||
Section 316. Prescriptions sent in accordance with this | ||
subsection (a) must be accepted by the dispenser in electronic | ||
format. | ||
(b) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act | ||
of the 103rd General Assembly until December 31, 2028, | ||
notwithstanding Notwithstanding any other provision of this | ||
Section or any other provision of law, a prescriber shall not | ||
be required to issue prescriptions electronically if he or she | ||
certifies to the Department of Financial and Professional | ||
Regulation that he or she will not issue more than 150 25 |
prescriptions during a 12-month period. Prescriptions in both | ||
oral and written form for controlled substances shall be | ||
included in determining whether the prescriber will reach the | ||
limit of 150 25 prescriptions. Beginning January 1, 2029, | ||
notwithstanding any other provision of this Section or any | ||
other provision of law, a prescriber shall not be required to | ||
issue prescriptions electronically if he or she certifies to | ||
the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that | ||
he or she will not issue more than 50 prescriptions during a | ||
12-month period. Prescriptions in both oral and written form | ||
for controlled substances shall be included in determining | ||
whether the prescriber will reach the limit of 50 | ||
prescriptions. | ||
(b-5) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section | ||
or any other provision of law, a prescriber shall not be | ||
required to issue prescriptions
electronically under the | ||
following circumstances: | ||
(1) prior to January 1, 2026, the prescriber | ||
demonstrates financial difficulties in buying or managing | ||
an electronic prescription option, whether it is an | ||
electronic health record or some other electronic | ||
prescribing product; | ||
(2) on and after January 1, 2026, the prescriber | ||
provides proof of a waiver from the Centers for Medicare | ||
and Medicaid Services for the Electronic Prescribing for | ||
Controlled Substances Program due to demonstrated economic |
hardship for the previous compliance year; | ||
(3) there is a temporary technological or electrical | ||
failure that prevents an electronic prescription from | ||
being issued; | ||
(4) the prescription is for a drug that the | ||
practitioner reasonably determines would be impractical | ||
for the patient to obtain in a timely manner if prescribed | ||
by an electronic data transmission prescription and the | ||
delay would adversely impact the patient's medical | ||
condition; | ||
(5) the prescription is for an individual who: | ||
(A) resides in a nursing or assisted living | ||
facility; | ||
(B) is receiving hospice or palliative care; | ||
(C) is receiving care at an outpatient renal | ||
dialysis facility and the prescription is related to | ||
the
care provided; | ||
(D) is receiving care through the United States | ||
Department of Veterans Affairs; or | ||
(E) is incarcerated in a state, detained, or | ||
confined in a correctional facility; | ||
(6) the prescription prescribes a drug under a | ||
research protocol; | ||
(7) the prescription is a non-patient specific | ||
prescription dispensed under a standing order, approved | ||
protocol for drug therapy, collaborative drug management, |
or comprehensive medication management, or in response to | ||
a public health emergency or other circumstance in which | ||
the practitioner may issue a non-patient specific | ||
prescription; | ||
(8) the prescription is issued when the prescriber and | ||
dispenser are the same entity; or | ||
(9) the prescription is issued for a compound | ||
prescription containing 2 or more compounds. | ||
(c) The Department of Financial and Professional | ||
Regulation may shall adopt rules for the administration of | ||
this Section . These rules shall provide for the | ||
implementation of any such exemption to the requirements under | ||
this Section that the Department of Financial and Professional | ||
Regulation may deem appropriate , including the exemption | ||
provided for in subsection (b) .
| ||
(d) Any prescriber who makes a good faith effort to | ||
prescribe electronically, but for reasons not within the | ||
prescriber's control is unable to prescribe electronically, | ||
may be exempt from any disciplinary action. | ||
(e) Any pharmacist who dispenses in good faith based upon | ||
a valid prescription that is not prescribed electronically may | ||
be exempt from any disciplinary action. A pharmacist is not | ||
required to ensure or responsible for ensuring the | ||
prescriber's compliance under subsection (b), nor may any | ||
other entity or organization require a pharmacist to ensure | ||
the prescriber's compliance with that subsection. |
(f) It shall be a violation of this Section for any | ||
prescriber or dispenser to adopt a policy contrary to this | ||
Section. | ||
(Source: P.A. 102-490, eff. 1-1-24 (See Section 55 of P.A. | ||
102-1109 for effective date of P.A. 102-490).) |