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Public Act 102-0757 |
HB1091 Enrolled | LRB102 03105 RLC 13118 b |
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AN ACT concerning criminal law.
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Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, |
represented in the General Assembly:
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Article 1. |
Section 1-1. Short title. This Article may be cited as the |
Illinois Integrity, Notification, and Fairness in Online |
Retail Marketplaces for Consumers (INFORM Consumers) Act.
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References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article. |
Section 1-5. Definitions. In this Act: |
"Consumer product" means any tangible personal property |
that is distributed in commerce and that is normally used for |
personal, family, or household purposes (including any such |
property intended to be attached to or installed in any real |
property without regard to whether it is so attached or |
installed). |
"High-volume third-party seller" means a participant in an |
online marketplace who is a third-party seller and who, in any |
continuous 12-month period during the previous 24 months, has |
entered into 200 or more discrete sales or transactions of new |
or unused consumer products and has an aggregate total of |
$5,000 or more in gross revenue. For purposes of calculating |
the number of discrete sales or transactions or the aggregate |
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gross revenues under subsection (a) of Section 1-10, an online |
marketplace shall only be required to count sales or |
transactions made through the online marketplace and for which |
payment was processed by the online marketplace, either |
directly or through its payment processor. |
"Online marketplace" means any person or entity that: |
(1) operates a consumer-directed electronically based |
or accessed platform that includes features that allow |
for, facilitate, or enable online third-party sellers to |
engage in the sale, purchase, payment, storage, shipping, |
or delivery of consumer products in this State; |
(2) is used by one or more online third-party sellers |
for such purposes; and |
(3) has a contractual or similar relationship with |
consumers governing their use of the platform to purchase |
consumer product.
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"Seller" means a person who sells, offers to sell, or |
contracts to sell consumer products through an online |
marketplace's platform.
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"Third-party seller" means any seller, independent of an |
online marketplace, who sells, offers to sell, or contracts to |
sell a consumer product in this State through an online |
marketplace. "Third-party seller" does not include, with |
respect to an online marketplace: |
(1) a seller who operates the online marketplace's |
platform; or |
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(2) a business entity that has: |
(A) made available to the public the entity's |
name, business address, and working contact |
information; |
(B) an ongoing contractual relationship with the |
online marketplace to provide the online marketplace |
with the manufacture, distribution, wholesaling, or |
fulfillment of shipments of consumer products; and
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(C) provided to the online marketplace identifying |
information, as described in
subsection (a) of Section |
1-10, that has been verified in accordance with that |
subsection.
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"Verify" means to confirm information provided to an |
online marketplace, including, but not limited to, by the use |
of one or more methods that enable the online marketplace to |
reliably determine that any information and documents provided |
are valid, corresponding to the seller or an individual acting |
on the seller's behalf, not misappropriated, and not |
falsified.
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Section 1-10. Online marketplace verification.
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(a) Online marketplaces shall require that any high-volume |
third-party seller on the online marketplace's platform |
provide the online marketplace with the following information |
no later than 10 days after qualifying as a high-volume |
third-party seller on the platform: |
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(1) A bank account number, or, if the high-volume |
third-party seller does not have a bank account, the name |
of the payee for payments issued by the online marketplace |
to the high-volume third-party seller. The bank account or |
payee information required may be provided by the seller |
to the online marketplace or other third parties |
contracted by the online marketplace to maintain the |
information, so long as the online marketplace ensures |
that it can obtain the information on demand from the |
other third parties. |
(2) The contact information for the high-volume |
third-party seller.
If the high-volume third-party seller |
is an individual, the individual's name shall be provided.
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If the high-volume third-party seller is not an |
individual, a copy of a valid government-issued |
identification for an individual acting on behalf of the |
seller that includes the individual's name or a copy of a |
valid government-issued record or tax document that |
includes the business name and physical address of the |
seller shall be provided.
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(3) A business tax identification number or, if the |
high-volume third-party seller does not have a business |
tax identification number, a taxpayer identification |
number. |
(4) A current working email address and phone number |
for the high-volume third-party seller.
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(b) An online marketplace shall periodically, but not less |
than annually, notify any high-volume third-party seller on |
the online marketplace's platform of the requirement to keep |
any information collected under subsection (a) current and |
require any high-volume third-party seller on the online |
marketplace's platform to, not later than 10 days after |
receiving the notice, electronically certify that: |
(1) the high-volume third-party seller has provided |
any changes to the information to the online marketplace, |
if such changes have occurred; |
(2) there have been no changes to the high-volume |
third-party seller's information; or |
(3) the high-volume third-party seller has provided |
any changes to such information to the online marketplace. |
(c) If a high-volume third-party seller does not provide |
the information or certification required under this Section, |
the online marketplace, after providing the seller with |
written or electronic notice and an opportunity to provide the |
information or certification not later than 10 days after the |
issuance of the notice, shall suspend any future sales |
activity of the seller until the seller provides the |
information or certification.
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(d) An online marketplace shall verify the information |
collected under subsection (a) no later than 10 days after the |
collection and shall verify any change to the information not |
later than 10 days after being notified of the change by a |
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high-volume third-party seller under subsection (b). If a |
high-volume third-party seller provides a copy of a valid |
government-issued tax document, any information contained in |
the document shall be presumed to be verified as of the date of |
issuance of the document.
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(e) An online marketplace shall require any high-volume |
third-party seller with an aggregate total of $20,000 or more |
in annual gross revenues on the online marketplace, and that |
uses the online marketplace's platform, to provide information |
to the online marketplace that includes the identity of the |
high-volume third-party seller, including: |
(1) the full name of the seller or seller's company |
name, or the name by which the seller or company operates |
on the online marketplace; |
(2) the physical address of the seller; |
(3) the contact information of the seller including a |
current working phone number; a current working email |
address for the seller; or other means of direct |
electronic messaging that may be provided to the |
high-volume third-party seller by the online marketplace |
to allow for the direct, unhindered communication with |
high-volume third-party sellers by users of the online |
marketplace; and |
(4) whether the high-volume third-party seller used a |
different seller to supply consumer products to consumers |
upon purchase, and, upon the request of a consumer, the |
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information described in paragraph (1) of this subsection |
(e) relating to any such seller that supplied the consumer |
product to the consumer, if the seller is different from |
the high-volume third-party seller listed on the product |
listing prior to purchase.
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(f) An online marketplace shall provide to consumers the |
information in subsection (e) in a conspicuous manner: (i) in |
the order confirmation message or other document or |
communication made to a consumer after a purchase is |
finalized; and (ii) in the consumer's account transaction |
history.
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(g) Upon the request of a high-volume third-party seller, |
an online marketplace may provide for partial disclosure of |
the identity information required under subsection (e) as |
follows: |
(1) If the high-volume third-party seller certifies to |
the online marketplace that the seller does not have a |
business address and only has a residential street |
address, or has a combined business and residential |
address, the online marketplace may disclose only the |
country and, if applicable, the state in which the |
high-volume third-party seller resides; and inform |
consumers that there is no business address available for |
the seller and that consumer inquiries should be submitted |
to the seller by phone, email, or other means of |
electronic messaging provided to the seller by the online |
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marketplace. |
(2) If the high-volume third-party seller certifies to |
the online marketplace that the seller is a business that |
has a physical address for product returns, the online |
marketplace may disclose the seller's physical address for |
product returns. |
(3) If a high-volume third-party seller certifies to |
the online marketplace that the seller does not have a |
phone number other than a personal phone number, the |
online marketplace shall inform consumers that there is no |
phone number available for the seller and that consumer |
inquiries should be submitted to the seller's email |
address or other means of electronic messaging provided to |
the seller by the online marketplace.
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(h) If an online marketplace becomes aware that a |
high-volume third-party seller has made a false representation |
to the online marketplace in order to justify the provision of |
a partial disclosure under subsection (g) or that a |
high-volume third-party seller who has requested and received |
a provision for a partial disclosure under subsection (g) has |
not provided responsive answers within a reasonable time to |
consumer inquiries submitted to the seller by phone, email, or |
other means of electronic messaging provided to the seller by |
the online marketplace, the online marketplace shall, after |
providing the seller with written or electronic notice and an |
opportunity to respond not later than 10 days after the |
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issuance of the notice, suspend any future sales activity of |
the seller unless the seller consents to the disclosure of the |
identity information required under subsection (e).
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(i) If a high-volume third-party seller does not comply |
with the requirements to provide and disclose information |
under this Section, the online marketplace, after providing |
the seller with written or electronic notice and an |
opportunity to provide or disclose the information not later |
than 10 days after the issuance of the notice, shall suspend |
any future sales activity of the seller until the seller |
complies with the requirements.
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(j) An online marketplace shall disclose to consumers in a |
clear and conspicuous manner on the product listing of any |
high-volume third-party seller a reporting mechanism that |
allows for electronic and telephonic reporting of suspicious |
marketplace activity to the online marketplace.
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(k) Information collected solely to comply with the |
requirements of this Section may not be used for any other |
purpose unless required by law. An online marketplace shall |
implement and maintain reasonable security procedures and |
practices, including administrative, physical, and technical |
safeguards, appropriate to the nature of the data and the |
purposes for which the data will be used, to protect the data |
collected under this Section from unauthorized use, |
disclosure, access, destruction, or modification.
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Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this subsection, |
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the Attorney General may request, by subpoena or otherwise, |
and use any information collected to comply with the |
requirements of this Section to enforce the provisions of this |
Act as set forth in subsection (l). |
(l) If the Attorney General has reason to believe that any |
person has violated this Act, the Attorney General may bring |
an action in the name of the People of the State against the |
person to restrain by preliminary or permanent injunction the |
use of such a method, act, or practice. The court, in its |
discretion, may exercise all powers necessary, including, but |
not limited to: injunction; revocation, forfeiture, or |
suspension of any license, charter, franchise, certificate, or |
other evidence of authority of any person to do business in |
this State; appointment of a receiver; dissolution of domestic |
corporations or associations or suspension or termination of |
the right of foreign corporations or associations to do |
business in this State; and restitution.
In the administration |
of this Section, the Attorney General may accept an Assurance |
of Voluntary Compliance with respect to any method, act, or |
practice deemed to be violative of this Act from any person who |
has engaged in, is engaging in, or was ab to engage in such a |
method, act, or practice. Evidence of a violation of an |
Assurance of Voluntary Compliance shall be prima facie |
evidence of a violation of this Act in any subsequent |
proceeding brought by the Attorney General against the alleged |
violator.
The Attorney General shall be empowered to issue |
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subpoenas to or examine under oath any person alleged to have |
participated in or to have knowledge of the alleged method, |
act, or practice in violation of this Act. Nothing in this Act |
creates or is intended to create a private right of action |
against any high-volume third-party seller, online marketplace |
seller, or third-party seller based upon compliance or |
noncompliance with its provisions.
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(m) To the extent that a substantially similar federal law |
or regulation conflicts with this Act, the federal law or |
regulation controls.
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Section 1-15. Organized Retail Crime Enforcement Fund. |
(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund |
known as the Organized Retail Crime Enforcement Fund. |
(b) Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Organized |
Retail Crime Enforcement Fund shall be used by the Office of |
the Attorney General to award grants to State's Attorneys' |
offices and law enforcement agencies to investigate, indict, |
and prosecute violations of organized retail crime. |
(c) Moneys received for purposes of this Section, |
including, but not limited to, fee receipts, gifts, grants, |
and awards from any public or private entity, must be |
deposited into the Fund. |
(d) The Office of the Attorney General may use moneys in |
the Fund to investigate, indict, and prosecute violations of |
organized retail crime, for payment of awards and grants, and |
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for ordinary and contingent expenses and operational programs, |
including law enforcement purposes. |
(e) The Office of the Attorney General may set |
requirements for application and distribution of grant moneys. |
(f) As used in this Section, "organized retail crime" has |
the meaning provided in Section 16-25.1 of the Criminal Code |
of 2012. |
Section 1-20. The State Finance Act is amended by adding |
Section 5.970 as follows: |
(30 ILCS 105/5.970 new) |
Sec. 5.970. The Organized Retail Crime Enforcement Fund. |
Article 2. |
Section 2-5. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by |
changing Sections 16-0.1 and 17-37 and by adding Sections |
16-25.1 and 16-25.2 as follows: |
(720 ILCS 5/16-0.1) |
Sec. 16-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the |
context clearly requires otherwise, the following terms are |
defined as indicated: |
"Access" means to use, instruct, communicate with, store |
data in, retrieve or intercept data from, or otherwise utilize |
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any services of a computer. |
"Coin-operated machine" includes any automatic vending |
machine or any part thereof, parking meter, coin telephone, |
coin-operated transit turnstile, transit fare box, coin |
laundry machine, coin dry cleaning machine, amusement machine, |
music machine, vending machine dispensing goods or services, |
or money changer. |
"Communication device" means any type of instrument, |
device, machine, or equipment which is capable of |
transmitting, acquiring, decrypting, or receiving any |
telephonic, electronic, data, Internet access, audio, video, |
microwave, or radio transmissions, signals, communications, or |
services, including the receipt, acquisition, transmission, or |
decryption of all such communications, transmissions, signals, |
or services provided by or through any cable television, fiber |
optic, telephone, satellite, microwave, radio, Internet-based, |
data transmission, or wireless distribution network, system or |
facility; or any part, accessory, or component thereof, |
including any computer circuit, security module, smart card, |
software, computer chip, electronic mechanism or other |
component, accessory or part of any communication device which |
is capable of facilitating the transmission, decryption, |
acquisition or reception of all such communications, |
transmissions, signals, or services. |
"Communication service" means any service lawfully |
provided for a charge or compensation to facilitate the lawful |
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origination, transmission, emission, or reception of signs, |
signals, data, writings, images, and sounds or intelligence of |
any nature by telephone, including cellular telephones or a |
wire, wireless, radio, electromagnetic, photo-electronic or |
photo-optical system; and also any service lawfully provided |
by any radio, telephone, cable television, fiber optic, |
satellite, microwave, Internet-based or wireless distribution |
network, system, facility or technology, including, but not |
limited to, any and all electronic, data, video, audio, |
Internet access, telephonic, microwave and radio |
communications, transmissions, signals and services, and any |
such communications, transmissions, signals and services |
lawfully provided directly or indirectly by or through any of |
those networks, systems, facilities or technologies. |
"Communication service provider" means: (1) any person or |
entity providing any communication service, whether directly |
or indirectly, as a reseller, including, but not limited to, a |
cellular, paging or other wireless communications company or |
other person or entity which, for a fee, supplies the |
facility, cell site, mobile telephone switching office or |
other equipment or communication service; (2) any person or |
entity owning or operating any cable television, fiber optic, |
satellite, telephone, wireless, microwave, radio, data |
transmission or Internet-based distribution network, system or |
facility; and (3) any person or entity providing any |
communication service directly or indirectly by or through any |
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such distribution system, network or facility. |
"Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores, |
retrieves or outputs data, and includes but is not limited to |
auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices connected to |
computers. |
"Continuing
course of conduct" means a series of acts, and |
the accompanying
mental state necessary for the crime in |
question, irrespective
of whether the series of acts are |
continuous or intermittent. |
"Delivery container" means any bakery basket of wire or |
plastic used to transport or store bread or bakery products, |
any dairy case of wire or plastic used to transport or store |
dairy products, and any dolly or cart of 2 or 4 wheels used to |
transport or store any bakery or dairy product. |
"Document-making implement" means any implement, |
impression, template, computer file, computer disc, electronic |
device, computer hardware, computer software, instrument, or |
device that is used to make a real or fictitious or fraudulent |
personal identification document. |
"Financial transaction device" means any of the following: |
(1) An electronic funds transfer card. |
(2) A credit card. |
(3) A debit card. |
(4) A point-of-sale card. |
(5) Any instrument, device, card, plate, code, account |
number, personal identification number, or a record or |
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copy of a code, account number, or personal identification |
number or other means of access to a credit account or |
deposit account, or a driver's license or State |
identification card used to access a proprietary account, |
other than access originated solely by a paper instrument, |
that can be used alone or in conjunction with another |
access device, for any of the following purposes: |
(A) Obtaining money, cash refund or credit |
account, credit, goods, services, or any other thing |
of value. |
(B) Certifying or guaranteeing to a person or |
business the availability to the device holder of |
funds on deposit to honor a draft or check payable to |
the order of that person or business. |
(C) Providing the device holder access to a |
deposit account for the purpose of making deposits, |
withdrawing funds, transferring funds between deposit |
accounts, obtaining information pertaining to a |
deposit account, or making an electronic funds |
transfer. |
"Full retail value" means the merchant's stated or |
advertised price of the merchandise. "Full
retail value" |
includes the aggregate value of property obtained
from retail |
thefts committed by the same person as part of a
continuing |
course of conduct from one or more mercantile
establishments |
in a single transaction or in separate
transactions over a |
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period of one year. |
"Internet" means an interactive computer service or system |
or an information service, system, or access software provider |
that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to |
a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an |
information service, system, or access software provider that |
provides access to a network system commonly known as the |
Internet, or any comparable system or service and also |
includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, |
newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any |
interactive computer service or system or other online |
service. |
"Library card" means a card or plate issued by a library |
facility for purposes of identifying the person to whom the |
library card was issued as authorized to borrow library |
material, subject to all limitations and conditions imposed on |
the borrowing by the library facility issuing such card. |
"Library facility" includes any public library or museum, |
or any library or museum of an educational, historical or |
eleemosynary institution, organization or society. |
"Library material" includes any book, plate, picture, |
photograph, engraving, painting, sculpture, statue, artifact, |
drawing, map, newspaper, pamphlet, broadside, magazine, |
manuscript, document, letter, microfilm, sound recording, |
audiovisual material, magnetic or other tape, electronic data |
processing record or other documentary, written or printed |
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material regardless of physical form or characteristics, or |
any part thereof, belonging to, or on loan to or otherwise in |
the custody of a library facility. |
"Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful access device" |
means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful access device |
or to modify, alter, program or re-program any instrument, |
device, machine, equipment or software so that it is capable |
of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or |
software used by the provider, owner or licensee of a |
communication service or of any data, audio or video programs |
or transmissions to protect any such communication, data, |
audio or video services, programs or transmissions from |
unauthorized access, acquisition, disclosure, receipt, |
decryption, communication, transmission or re-transmission. |
"Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful communication |
device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful |
communication or wireless device or to modify, alter, program |
or reprogram a communication or wireless device to be capable |
of acquiring, disrupting, receiving, transmitting, decrypting, |
or facilitating the acquisition, disruption, receipt, |
transmission or decryption of, a communication service without |
the express consent or express authorization of the |
communication service provider, or to knowingly assist others |
in those activities. |
"Master sound recording" means the original physical |
object on which a given set of sounds were first recorded and |
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which the original object from which all subsequent sound |
recordings embodying the same set of sounds are directly or |
indirectly derived. |
"Merchandise" means any item of tangible personal |
property, including motor fuel. |
"Merchant" means an owner or operator of any retail |
mercantile establishment or any agent, employee, lessee, |
consignee, officer, director, franchisee, or independent |
contractor of the owner or operator. "Merchant" also means a |
person who receives from an authorized user of a payment card, |
or someone the person believes to be an authorized user, a |
payment card or information from a payment card, or what the |
person believes to be a payment card or information from a |
payment card, as the instrument for obtaining, purchasing or |
receiving goods, services, money, or anything else of value |
from the person. |
"Motor fuel" means a liquid, regardless of its properties, |
used to propel a vehicle, including gasoline and diesel. |
"Online" means the use of any electronic or wireless |
device to access the Internet. |
"Payment card" means a credit card, charge card, debit |
card, or any other card that is issued to an authorized card |
user and that allows the user to obtain, purchase, or receive |
goods, services, money, or anything else of value from a |
merchant. |
"Person with a disability" means a person who
suffers from |
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a physical or mental impairment resulting from
disease, |
injury, functional disorder or congenital condition that |
impairs the
individual's mental or physical ability to |
independently manage his or her
property or financial |
resources, or both. |
"Personal identification document" means a birth |
certificate, a driver's license, a State identification card, |
a public, government, or private employment identification |
card, a social security card, a firearm owner's identification |
card, a credit card, a debit card, or a passport issued to or |
on behalf of a person other than the offender, or any document |
made or issued, or falsely purported to have been made or |
issued, by or under the authority of the United States |
Government, the State of Illinois, or any other state |
political subdivision of any state, or any other governmental |
or quasi-governmental organization that is of a type intended |
for the purpose of identification of an individual, or any |
such document made or altered in a manner that it falsely |
purports to have been made on behalf of or issued to another |
person or by the authority of one who did not give that |
authority. |
"Personal identifying information" means any of the |
following information: |
(1) A person's name. |
(2) A person's address. |
(3) A person's date of birth. |
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(4) A person's telephone number. |
(5) A person's driver's license number or State of |
Illinois identification card as assigned by the Secretary |
of State of the State of Illinois or a similar agency of |
another state. |
(6) A person's social security number. |
(7) A person's public, private, or government |
employer, place of employment, or employment |
identification number. |
(8) The maiden name of a person's mother. |
(9) The number assigned to a person's depository |
account, savings account, or brokerage account. |
(10) The number assigned to a person's credit or debit |
card, commonly known as a "Visa Card", "MasterCard", |
"American Express Card", "Discover Card", or other similar |
cards whether issued by a financial institution, |
corporation, or business entity. |
(11) Personal identification numbers. |
(12) Electronic identification numbers. |
(13) Digital signals. |
(14) User names, passwords, and any other word, |
number, character or combination of the same usable in |
whole or part to access information relating to a specific |
individual, or to the actions taken, communications made |
or received, or other activities or transactions of a |
specific individual. |
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(15) Any other numbers or information which can be |
used to access a person's financial resources, or to |
identify a specific individual, or the actions taken, |
communications made or received, or other activities or |
transactions of a specific individual. |
"Premises of a retail mercantile establishment" includes, |
but is not limited to, the retail mercantile establishment; |
any common use areas in shopping centers; and all parking |
areas set aside by a merchant or on behalf of a merchant for |
the parking of vehicles for the convenience of the patrons of |
such retail mercantile establishment. |
"Public water, gas, or power supply, or other public |
services" mean any service subject to regulation by the |
Illinois Commerce Commission; any service furnished by a |
public utility that is owned and operated by any political |
subdivision, public institution of higher education or |
municipal corporation of this State; any service furnished by |
any public utility that is owned by such political |
subdivision, public institution of higher education, or |
municipal corporation and operated by any of its lessees or |
operating agents; any service furnished by an electric |
cooperative as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier |
Act; or wireless service or other service regulated by the |
Federal Communications Commission. |
"Publish" means to communicate or disseminate information |
to any one or more persons, either orally, in person, or by |
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telephone, radio or television or in writing of any kind, |
including, without limitation, a letter or memorandum, |
circular or handbill, newspaper or magazine article or book. |
"Radio frequency identification device" means any |
implement, computer file, computer disc, electronic device, |
computer hardware, computer software, or instrument that is |
used to activate, read, receive, or decode information stored |
on a RFID tag or transponder attached to a personal |
identification document. |
"RFID tag or transponder" means a chip or device that |
contains personal identifying information from which the |
personal identifying information can be read or decoded by |
another device emitting a radio frequency that activates or |
powers a radio frequency emission response from the chip or |
transponder. |
"Reencoder" means an electronic device that places encoded |
information from the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment |
card onto the magnetic strip or stripe of a different payment |
card. |
"Retail mercantile establishment" means any place where |
merchandise is displayed, held, stored or offered for sale to |
the public. |
"Scanning device" means a scanner, reader, or any other |
electronic device that is used to access, read, scan, obtain, |
memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information |
encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card. |
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"Shopping cart" means those push carts of the type or |
types which are commonly provided by grocery stores, drug |
stores or other retail mercantile establishments for the use |
of the public in transporting commodities in stores and |
markets and, incidentally, from the stores to a place outside |
the store. |
"Sound or audio visual recording" means any sound or audio |
visual phonograph record, disc, pre-recorded tape, film, wire, |
magnetic tape or other object, device or medium, now known or |
hereafter invented, by which sounds or images may be |
reproduced with or without the use of any additional machine, |
equipment or device. |
"Stored value card" means any card, gift card, instrument, |
or device issued with or without fee for the use of the |
cardholder to obtain money, goods, services, or anything else |
of value. Stored value cards include, but are not limited to, |
cards issued for use as a stored value card or gift card, and |
an account identification number or symbol used to identify a |
stored value card. "Stored value card" does not include a |
prepaid card usable at multiple, unaffiliated merchants or at |
automated teller machines, or both. "Stored value card" shall |
only apply to Section 16-25.1 of this Act. |
"Theft detection device remover" means any tool or device |
specifically designed and intended to be used to remove any |
theft detection device from any merchandise. |
"Under-ring" means to cause the cash register or other |
|
sales recording device to reflect less than the full retail |
value of the merchandise. |
"Unidentified sound or audio visual recording" means a |
sound or audio visual recording without the actual name and |
full and correct street address of the manufacturer, and the |
name of the actual performers or groups prominently and |
legibly printed on the outside cover or jacket and on the label |
of such sound or audio visual recording. |
"Unlawful access device" means any type of instrument, |
device, machine, equipment, technology, or software which is |
primarily possessed, used, designed, assembled, manufactured, |
sold, distributed or offered, promoted or advertised for the |
purpose of defeating or circumventing any technology, device |
or software, or any component or part thereof, used by the |
provider, owner or licensee of any communication service or of |
any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect |
any such communication, audio or video services, programs or |
transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, receipt, |
decryption, disclosure, communication, transmission or |
re-transmission. |
"Unlawful communication device" means any electronic |
serial number, mobile identification number, personal |
identification number or any communication or wireless device |
that is capable of acquiring or facilitating the acquisition |
of a communication service without the express consent or |
express authorization of the communication service provider, |
|
or that has been altered, modified, programmed or |
reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another |
communication or wireless device or other equipment, to so |
acquire or facilitate the unauthorized acquisition of a |
communication service. "Unlawful communication device" also |
means: |
(1) any phone altered to obtain service without the |
express consent or express authorization of the |
communication service provider, tumbler phone, counterfeit |
or clone phone, tumbler microchip, counterfeit or clone |
microchip, scanning receiver of wireless communication |
service or other instrument capable of disguising its |
identity or location or of gaining unauthorized access to |
a communications or wireless system operated by a |
communication service provider; and |
(2) any communication or wireless device which is |
capable of, or has been altered, designed, modified, |
programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with |
another communication or wireless device or devices, so as |
to be capable of, facilitating the disruption, |
acquisition, receipt, transmission or decryption of a |
communication service without the express consent or |
express authorization of the communication service |
provider, including, but not limited to, any device, |
technology, product, service, equipment, computer software |
or component or part thereof, primarily distributed, sold, |
|
designed, assembled, manufactured, modified, programmed, |
reprogrammed or used for the purpose of providing the |
unauthorized receipt of, transmission of, disruption of, |
decryption of, access to or acquisition of any |
communication service provided by any communication |
service provider. |
"Vehicle" means a motor vehicle, motorcycle, or farm |
implement that is self-propelled and that uses motor fuel for |
propulsion. |
"Wireless device" includes any type of instrument, device, |
machine, or
equipment that is capable of transmitting or |
receiving telephonic, electronic
or
radio communications, or |
any part of such instrument, device, machine, or
equipment, or |
any computer circuit, computer chip, electronic mechanism, or
|
other component that is capable of facilitating the |
transmission or reception
of telephonic, electronic, or radio |
communications.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-388, eff. |
1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.) |
(720 ILCS 5/16-25.1 new) |
Sec. 16-25.1. Organized retail crime. |
(a) An individual is guilty of organized retail crime when |
that individual, in concert with another individual or any |
group of individuals, knowingly commits the act of retail |
theft from one or more retail mercantile establishments, and |
|
in the course of or in furtherance of such crime or flight |
therefrom: |
(1) knowingly commits assault as defined under Section |
12-1 or battery as defined under Section 12-3(a)(2) on the |
premises of the retail mercantile establishment; |
(2) knowingly commits a battery under Section |
12-3(a)(1) on the premises of the retail mercantile |
establishment; or |
(3) intentionally destroys or damages the property of |
the retail mercantile establishment. |
(b) An individual is guilty of being a manager of the |
organized retail crime when that individual knowingly |
recruits, organizes, supervises, finances, or otherwise |
manages or directs any other individual or individuals to: |
(1) commit the act of retail theft from one or more |
retail mercantile establishments, if the aggregate value |
of the merchandise exceeds $300, and the manager or the |
individual has the intent to resell the merchandise or |
otherwise have the merchandise reenter the stream of |
commerce; |
(2) commit theft of merchandise, the aggregate retail |
value of which exceeds $300, while the merchandise is in |
transit from the manufacturer to the retail mercantile |
establishment, and the manager or the individual has the |
intent to resell the merchandise; |
(3) obtain control over property for sale or resale, |
|
the aggregate retail value of which exceeds $300, knowing |
the property to have been stolen or under such |
circumstances as would reasonably induce the individual to |
believe that the property was stolen; or |
(4) receive, possess, or purchase any merchandise or |
stored value cards, the aggregate retail value of which |
exceeds $300, obtained from a fraudulent return with the |
knowledge that the property was obtained in violation of |
this Section or Section 16-25. |
(c) If acts or omissions constituting any part of the |
commission of the charged offense under the Section occurred |
in more than one county, each county has concurrent venue. If |
the charged offenses under this Section occurred in more than |
one county, the counties may join the offenses in a single |
criminal pleading and have concurrent venue as to all charged |
offenses. When counties have concurrent venue, the first |
county in which a criminal complaint, information, or |
indictment is issued in the case becomes the county with |
exclusive venue. A violation of organized retail crime may be |
investigated, indicted, and prosecuted pursuant to the |
Statewide Grand Jury Act. |
(d) Sentence. A violation of paragraph (1) or (3) of |
subsection (a) is a Class 3 felony. A violation of paragraph |
(2) of subsection (a) is a Class 2 felony. A violation of |
subsection (b) is a Class 2 felony. |
|
(720 ILCS 5/16-25.2 new) |
Sec. 16-25.2. Retail loss prevention report and notice |
requirements. |
(a) A retail mercantile establishment that is a victim of |
a violation of Section 16-25, 16-25.1, 17-10.6, or 25-4 shall |
have the right: |
(1) to timely notification of all court proceedings as |
defined under subsection (e) of Section 3 of the Rights of |
Crime Victims and Witnesses Act. Timely notice shall |
include 7 days' notice of any court proceedings. Timely |
notice shall be sent to the location of the retail |
mercantile establishment where the violation occurred and |
to the point of contact as provided by the retail |
mercantile establishment. The point of contact may be any |
employee of the retail mercantile establishment or |
representative as provided by the retail mercantile |
establishment; |
(2) to communicate with the prosecution; |
(3) to be reasonably heard at any post-arraignment |
court proceeding in which a right of the victim is at issue |
and any court proceeding involving a post-arraignment |
release decision, plea, or sentencing; |
(4) to be notified of the conviction, the sentence, |
the imprisonment, and the release of the accused; and |
(5) to have present at all court proceedings subject |
to the rules of evidence an advocate of the retail |
|
mercantile establishment's choice. |
(b) Unless a retail mercantile establishment refuses to |
file a report regarding the incident, the law enforcement |
agency having jurisdiction shall file a report concerning the |
incident with the State's Attorney. No law enforcement agent |
shall discourage or attempt to discourage a retail mercantile |
establishment from filing a police report concerning the |
incident. Upon the request of the retail mercantile |
establishment, the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction |
shall provide a free copy of the police report concerning the |
incident, as soon as practicable, but in no event later than 5 |
business days after the request. The Illinois Law Enforcement |
Training Standards Board shall not consider any allegation of |
a violation of this subsection that is contained in a |
complaint made under Section 1-35 of the Police and Community |
Relations Improvement Act. |
(720 ILCS 5/17-37) |
Sec. 17-37. Use of credit or debit card with intent to |
defraud. |
(a) A cardholder who uses a credit card or debit card |
issued to
him or her, or allows another person to use a credit |
card or debit card issued
to him or her, with intent to defraud |
the
issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or |
any other person is guilty of a Class A
misdemeanor if the |
value of all items of value does not exceed $150 in any 6-month |
|
period;
and is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the value exceeds |
$150 in
any 6-month period.
|
(b) Where an investigation into an intent to defraud under |
subsection (a) occurs, issuers shall consider a merchant's |
timely submission of compelling evidence under the applicable |
dispute management guidelines of the card association with |
whom the merchant maintains an agreement. A merchant shall |
comply with merchant responsibilities under any such |
agreement. |
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11 .) |
Section 2-10. The Statewide Grand Jury Act is amended by |
changing Sections 2, 3, and 4 as follows:
|
(725 ILCS 215/2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1702)
|
Sec. 2.
(a) County grand juries and State's Attorneys have |
always had
and
shall continue to have primary responsibility |
for investigating, indicting,
and prosecuting persons who |
violate the criminal laws of the State of
Illinois. However, |
in recent years organized terrorist activity directed
against |
innocent civilians and certain criminal enterprises have
|
developed that require investigation, indictment, and |
prosecution on a
statewide or multicounty level. The criminal |
enterprises exist
as a result of the
allure of profitability |
present in narcotic activity, the unlawful sale and
transfer |
of firearms, and streetgang related felonies and organized |
|
terrorist
activity is supported by the contribution of money |
and expert assistance from
geographically diverse sources. In
|
order to shut off the life blood of terrorism and
weaken or |
eliminate the criminal enterprises, assets, and
property
used |
to further these offenses must be frozen, and any profit must |
be
removed. State
statutes exist that can accomplish that |
goal. Among them are the offense of
money laundering, |
violations
of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the |
Criminal Code of 2012, the
Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Act, |
and gunrunning. Local prosecutors need
investigative personnel |
and specialized training to attack and eliminate these
|
profits. In light of the transitory and complex nature of |
conduct that
constitutes these criminal activities, the many |
diverse property interests that
may be used, acquired directly |
or indirectly as a result of these criminal
activities, and |
the many places that illegally obtained property may be
|
located, it is the purpose of this Act to create a limited, |
multicounty
Statewide Grand Jury with authority to |
investigate, indict, and prosecute:
narcotic activity, |
including cannabis and controlled substance trafficking,
|
narcotics racketeering, money laundering, violations of the |
Cannabis
and
Controlled Substances Tax Act, and violations of |
Article 29D of the Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code |
of 2012; the unlawful sale and transfer of firearms;
|
gunrunning; and streetgang related felonies.
|
(b) A Statewide Grand Jury may also investigate, indict, |
|
and prosecute
violations facilitated by the use of a computer |
of any of
the
following offenses: indecent solicitation of a |
child, sexual exploitation of a
child, soliciting for a |
juvenile prostitute, keeping a place of juvenile
prostitution, |
juvenile pimping, child pornography, aggravated child |
pornography, or promoting juvenile prostitution except as |
described in subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 of the |
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
|
(c) A Statewide Grand Jury may also investigate, indict, |
and prosecute violations of organized retail crime. |
(Source: P.A. 101-593, eff. 12-4-19.)
|
(725 ILCS 215/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1703)
|
Sec. 3. Written application for the appointment of a |
Circuit
Judge to convene and preside over a Statewide Grand |
Jury, with jurisdiction
extending throughout the State, shall |
be made to the Chief Justice of the
Supreme Court. Upon such |
written application, the Chief Justice of the
Supreme Court |
shall appoint a Circuit Judge from the circuit where the
|
Statewide Grand Jury is being sought to be convened, who shall |
make a
determination that the convening of a Statewide Grand |
Jury is necessary.
|
In such application the Attorney General shall state that |
the convening
of a Statewide Grand Jury is necessary because |
of an alleged offense or
offenses set forth in this Section |
involving more than one county of the
State and identifying |
|
any such offense alleged; and
|
(a) that he or she believes that the grand jury |
function for the
investigation and indictment of the |
offense or offenses cannot effectively be
performed by a |
county grand jury together with the reasons for such
|
belief, and
|
(b)(1) that each State's Attorney with jurisdiction |
over an offense
or offenses to be investigated has |
consented to the impaneling of the
Statewide Grand Jury, |
or
|
(2) if one or more of the State's Attorneys having |
jurisdiction over
an offense or offenses to be |
investigated fails to consent to the impaneling
of the |
Statewide Grand Jury, the Attorney General shall set forth |
good cause
for impaneling the Statewide Grand Jury.
|
If the Circuit Judge determines that the convening of a |
Statewide Grand
Jury is necessary, he or she shall convene and |
impanel the Statewide Grand
Jury with jurisdiction extending |
throughout the State to investigate and
return indictments:
|
(a) For violations of any of the following or for any |
other criminal
offense committed in the course of |
violating any of the following: Article
29D of the |
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the
|
Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control |
Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection |
Act, or the Narcotics
Profit Forfeiture Act; a
streetgang |
|
related felony offense; Section 16-25.1, 24-2.1, 24-2.2, |
24-3, 24-3A, 24-3.1,
24-3.3, 24-3.4, 24-4, or 24-5 or |
subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(6), 24-1(a)(7),
|
24-1(a)(9), 24-1(a)(10), or 24-1(c) of the Criminal Code |
of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or a money
laundering |
offense; provided that the violation or offense involves |
acts
occurring in more than one county of this State; and
|
(a-5) For violations facilitated by the use of a |
computer, including
the use of the Internet, the World |
Wide Web, electronic mail, message board,
newsgroup, or |
any other commercial or noncommercial on-line service, of |
any of
the following offenses: indecent solicitation of a |
child, sexual exploitation
of a child, soliciting for a |
juvenile prostitute, keeping a place of juvenile
|
prostitution, juvenile pimping, child pornography, |
aggravated child pornography, or promoting juvenile |
prostitution except as described in subdivision (a)(4) of |
Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the |
Criminal Code of 2012; and
|
(b) For the offenses of perjury, subornation of |
perjury, communicating
with jurors and witnesses, and |
harassment of jurors and witnesses, as they
relate to |
matters before the Statewide Grand Jury.
|
"Streetgang related" has the meaning ascribed to it in |
Section 10 of the
Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus |
Prevention Act.
|
|
Upon written application by the Attorney General for the |
convening of an
additional Statewide Grand Jury, the Chief |
Justice of the Supreme Court shall
appoint a Circuit Judge |
from the circuit for which the additional Statewide
Grand Jury |
is sought. The Circuit Judge shall determine the necessity for
|
an additional Statewide Grand Jury in accordance with the |
provisions of this
Section. No more than 2 Statewide Grand |
Juries may be empaneled at any time.
|
(Source: P.A. 101-593, eff. 12-4-19.)
|
(725 ILCS 215/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1704)
|
Sec. 4.
(a) The presiding judge of the Statewide Grand |
Jury will
receive recommendations from the Attorney General as |
to the county in which
the Grand Jury will sit. Prior to making |
the recommendations, the Attorney
General shall obtain the |
permission of the local State's Attorney to use
his or her |
county for the site of the Statewide Grand Jury. Upon |
receiving
the Attorney General's recommendations, the |
presiding judge will choose one
of those recommended locations |
as the site where the Grand Jury shall sit.
|
Any indictment by a Statewide Grand Jury shall be returned |
to the
Circuit Judge presiding over the Statewide Grand Jury |
and shall include a
finding as to the county or counties in |
which the alleged offense was
committed. Thereupon, the judge |
shall, by order, designate the county of
venue for the purpose |
of trial. The judge may also, by order, direct the
|
|
consolidation of an indictment returned by a county grand jury |
with an
indictment returned by the Statewide Grand Jury and |
set venue for trial.
|
(b) Venue for purposes of trial for the offense of |
narcotics
racketeering shall be proper in any county where:
|
(1) Cannabis or a controlled substance which is the |
basis for the charge
of narcotics racketeering was used; |
acquired; transferred or distributed
to, from or through; |
or any county where any act was performed to further
the |
use; acquisition, transfer or distribution of said |
cannabis or
controlled substance; or
|
(2) Any money, property, property interest, or any |
other asset generated
by narcotics activities was |
acquired, used, sold, transferred or
distributed to, from |
or through; or,
|
(3) Any enterprise interest obtained as a result of |
narcotics
racketeering was acquired, used, transferred or |
distributed to, from or
through, or where any activity was |
conducted by the enterprise or any
conduct to further the |
interests of such an enterprise.
|
(c) Venue for purposes of trial for the offense of money |
laundering
shall be proper in any county where any part of a |
financial transaction in
criminally derived property took |
place, or in any county where any money or
monetary interest |
which is the basis for the offense, was acquired, used,
sold, |
transferred or distributed to, from, or through.
|
|
(d) A person who commits the offense of cannabis |
trafficking or
controlled substance trafficking may be tried |
in any county.
|
(e) Venue for purposes of trial for any violation of |
Article 29D of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code |
of 2012 may be in the county in which an act of terrorism |
occurs,
the county in which material support or resources are |
provided or solicited,
the county in which criminal assistance |
is rendered, or any county in which any
act in furtherance of |
any violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or |
the Criminal Code of 2012
occurs.
|
(f) Venue for purposes of trial for the offense of |
organized retail crime shall be proper in any county where: |
(1) any property, property interest, asset, money, or |
thing of value that is the basis for the charge of |
organized retail crime was used, acquired, transferred, or |
distributed to, from, or through; or any county where any |
act was performed to further the use, acquisition, |
transfer, or distribution of the property, property |
interest, asset, money, or thing or value; or |
(2) any enterprise interest obtained as a result of |
organized retail crime was acquired, used, transferred, or |
distributed to, from, or through, or where any activity |
was conducted by the enterprise or any conduct to further |
the interests of such an enterprise. |
(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
|