Public Act 0687 102ND GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB0307 Enrolled LRB102 11622 KTG 16956 b

Public Act 102-0687

AN ACT concerning State government.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the Second 2021 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 101-652 through 102-98 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

(5 ILCS 80/4.32 rep.)

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by repealing Section 4.32.

Section 7. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 2A-1.1, 7-4, 7-10, 7-12, 10-4, and 19-2 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/2A-1.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 2A-1.1)

Sec. 2A-1.1. All elections; consolidated elections - consolidated schedule.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Code, in even-numbered years, the general election shall be held on the first Tuesday after the first Monday of November; and an election to be known as the general primary election shall be held on the third Tuesday in March. ;

(b) In odd-numbered years, an election to be known as the consolidated election shall be held on the first Tuesday in April except as provided in Section 2A-1.1a of this Code Act; and an election to be known as the consolidated primary election shall be held on the last Tuesday in February.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-14-21.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-4) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-4)

Sec. 7-4. The following words and phrases in this Article 7 shall, unless the same be inconsistent with the context, be construed as follows:

1. The word "primary", the primary elections provided for in this Article, which are the general primary, the consolidated primary, and for those municipalities which have annual partisan elections for any officer, the municipal primary held 6 weeks prior to the general primary election date in even numbered years.

2. The definitions definition of terms in Section 1-3 of this Code Act shall apply to this Article.

3. The word "precinct", a voting district heretofore or hereafter established by law within which all qualified electors vote at one polling place.

4. The words "state office" or "state officer", an office to be filled, or an officer to be voted for, by qualified electors of the entire state, including United States Senator and Congressperson at large.

5. The words "congressional office" or "congressional officer", representatives in Congress.

6. The words "county office" or "county officer," include an office to be filled or an officer to be voted for, by the qualified electors of the entire county. "County office" or "county officer" also include the assessor and board of appeals and county commissioners and president of county board of Cook County, and county board members and the chair of the county board in counties subject to Division 2-3 of the Counties Code "An Act relating to the composition and election of county boards in certain counties", enacted by the 76th General Assembly.

7. The words "city office" and "village office," and "incorporated town office" or "city officer" and "village officer", and "incorporated town officer", an office to be filled or an officer to be voted for by the qualified electors of the entire municipality, including alderpersons.

8. The words "town office" or "town officer", an office to be filled or an officer to be voted for by the qualified electors of an entire town.

9. The words "town" and "incorporated town" shall respectively be defined as in Section 1-3 of this Code Act.

10. The words "delegates and alternate delegates to National nominating conventions" include all delegates and alternate delegates to National nominating conventions whether they be elected from the state at large or from congressional districts or selected by State convention unless contrary and non-inclusive language specifically limits the term to one class.

11. "Judicial office" means a post held by a judge of the Supreme, Appellate, or Circuit Court.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-14-21.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-10)

Sec. 7-10. Form of petition for nomination. The name of no candidate for nomination, or State central committeeperson, or township committeeperson, or precinct committeeperson, or ward committeeperson or candidate for delegate or alternate delegate to national nominating conventions, shall be printed upon the primary ballot unless a petition for nomination has been filed in his behalf as provided in this Article in substantially the following form:

We, the undersigned, members of and affiliated with the .... party and qualified primary electors of the .... party, in the .... of ...., in the county of .... and State of Illinois, do hereby petition that the following named person or persons shall be a candidate or candidates of the .... party for the nomination for (or in case of committeepersons for election to) the office or offices hereinafter specified, to be voted for at the primary election to be held on (insert date).

Name.................. Address.......................

State of Illinois) ) ss. County of........)

I, ...., do hereby certify that I reside at No. .... street, in the .... of ...., county of ...., and State of ....., that I am 18 years of age or older, that I am a citizen of the United States, and that the signatures on this sheet were signed in my presence, and are genuine, and that to the best of my knowledge and belief the persons so signing were at the time of signing the petitions qualified voters of the .... party, and that their respective residences are correctly stated, as above set forth.

.........................

Subscribed and sworn to before me on (insert date).

.........................

Each sheet of the petition other than the statement of candidacy and candidate's statement shall be of uniform size and shall contain above the space for signatures an appropriate heading giving the information as to name of candidate or candidates, in whose behalf such petition is signed; the office, the political party represented and place of residence; and the heading of each sheet shall be the same.

Such petition shall be signed by qualified primary electors residing in the political division for which the nomination is sought in their own proper persons only and opposite the signature of each signer, his residence address shall be written or printed. The residence address required to be written or printed opposite each qualified primary elector's name shall include the street address or rural route number of the signer, as the case may be, as well as the signer's county, and city, village or town, and state. However, the county or city, village or town, and state of residence of the electors may be printed on the petition forms where all of the electors signing the petition reside in the same county or city, village or town, and state. Standard abbreviations may be used in writing the residence address, including street number, if any. At the bottom of each sheet of such petition shall be added a circulator statement signed by a person 18 years of age or older who is a citizen of the United States, stating the street address or rural route number, as the case may be, as well as the county, city, village or town, and state; and certifying that the signatures on that sheet of the petition were signed in his or her presence and certifying that the signatures are genuine; and either (1) indicating the dates on which that sheet was circulated, or (2) indicating the first and last dates on which the sheet was circulated, or (3) certifying that none of the signatures on the sheet were signed more than 90 days preceding the last day for the filing of the petition and certifying that to the best of his or her knowledge and belief the persons so signing were at the time of signing the petitions qualified voters of the political party for which a nomination is sought. Such statement shall be sworn to before some officer authorized to administer oaths in this State.

Except as otherwise provided in this Code, no petition sheet shall be circulated more than 90 days preceding the last day provided in Section 7-12 for the filing of such petition.

The person circulating the petition, or the candidate on whose behalf the petition is circulated, may strike any signature from the petition, provided that:

(1) the person striking the signature shall initial the petition at the place where the signature is struck; and

(2) the person striking the signature shall sign a certification listing the page number and line number of each signature struck from the petition. Such certification shall be filed as a part of the petition.

Such sheets before being filed shall be neatly fastened together in book form, by placing the sheets in a pile and fastening them together at one edge in a secure and suitable manner, and the sheets shall then be numbered consecutively. The sheets shall not be fastened by pasting them together end to end, so as to form a continuous strip or roll. All petition sheets which are filed with the proper local election officials, election authorities or the State Board of Elections shall be the original sheets which have been signed by the voters and by the circulator thereof, and not photocopies or duplicates of such sheets. Each petition must include as a part thereof, a statement of candidacy for each of the candidates filing, or in whose behalf the petition is filed. This statement shall set out the address of such candidate, the office for which he is a candidate, shall state that the candidate is a qualified primary voter of the party to which the petition relates and is qualified for the office specified (in the case of a candidate for State's Attorney it shall state that the candidate is at the time of filing such statement a licensed attorney-at-law of this State), shall state that he has filed (or will file before the close of the petition filing period) a statement of economic interests as required by the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act, shall request that the candidate's name be placed upon the official ballot, and shall be subscribed and sworn to by such candidate before some officer authorized to take acknowledgment of deeds in the State and shall be in substantially the following form:

Statement of Candidacy

State of Illinois) ) ss. County of .......)

I, ...., being first duly sworn, say that I reside at .... Street in the city (or village) of ...., in the county of ...., State of Illinois; that I am a qualified voter therein and am a qualified primary voter of the .... party; that I am a candidate for nomination (for election in the case of committeeperson and delegates and alternate delegates) to the office of .... to be voted upon at the primary election to be held on (insert date); that I am legally qualified (including being the holder of any license that may be an eligibility requirement for the office I seek the nomination for) to hold such office and that I have filed (or I will file before the close of the petition filing period) a statement of economic interests as required by the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act and I hereby request that my name be printed upon the official primary ballot for nomination for (or election to in the case of committeepersons and delegates and alternate delegates) such office.

Signed ......................

Subscribed and sworn to (or affirmed) before me by ...., who is to me personally known, on (insert date).

Signed ....................

(Official Character)

(Seal, if officer has one.)

The petitions, when filed, shall not be withdrawn or added to, and no signatures shall be revoked except by revocation filed in writing with the State Board of Elections, election authority or local election official with whom the petition is required to be filed, and before the filing of such petition. Whoever forges the name of a signer upon any petition required by this Article is deemed guilty of a forgery and on conviction thereof shall be punished accordingly.

A candidate for the offices listed in this Section must obtain the number of signatures specified in this Section on his or her petition for nomination.

(a) Statewide office or delegate to a national nominating convention. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, if a candidate seeks to run for statewide office or as a delegate or alternate delegate to a national nominating convention elected from the State at-large, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least 5,000 but not more than 10,000 signatures.

(b) Congressional office or congressional delegate to a national nominating convention. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, if a candidate seeks to run for United States Congress or as a congressional delegate or alternate congressional delegate to a national nominating convention elected from a congressional district, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the qualified primary electors of his or her party in his or her congressional district. In the first primary election following a redistricting of congressional districts, a candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least 600 signatures of qualified primary electors of the candidate's political party in his or her congressional district.

(c) County office. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, if a candidate seeks to run for any countywide office, including, but not limited to, county board chairperson or county board member, elected on an at-large basis, in a county other than Cook County, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the qualified electors of his or her party who cast votes at the last preceding general election in his or her county. If a candidate seeks to run for county board member elected from a county board district, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the qualified primary electors of his or her party in the county board district. In the first primary election following a redistricting of county board districts or the initial establishment of county board districts, a candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the qualified electors of his or her party in the entire county who cast votes at the last preceding general election divided by the total number of county board districts comprising the county board; provided that in no event shall the number of signatures be less than 25.

(d) County office; Cook County only.

(1) If a candidate seeks to run for countywide office in Cook County, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the qualified electors of his or her party who cast votes at the last preceding general election in Cook County.

(2) If a candidate seeks to run for Cook County Board Commissioner, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the qualified primary electors of his or her party in his or her county board district. In the first primary election following a redistricting of Cook County Board of Commissioners districts, a candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the qualified electors of his or her party in the entire county who cast votes at the last preceding general election divided by the total number of county board districts comprising the county board; provided that in no event shall the number of signatures be less than 25.

(3) Except as otherwise provided in this Code, if a candidate seeks to run for Cook County Board of Review Commissioner, which is elected from a district pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 5-5 of the Property Tax Code, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the total number of registered voters in his or her board of review district in the last general election at which a commissioner was regularly scheduled to be elected from that board of review district. In no event shall the number of signatures required be greater than the requisite number for a candidate who seeks countywide office in Cook County under subsection (d)(1) of this Section. In the first primary election following a redistricting of Cook County Board of Review districts, a candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least 4,000 signatures or at least the number of signatures required for a countywide candidate in Cook County, whichever is less, of the qualified electors of his or her party in the district.

(e) Municipal or township office. If a candidate seeks to run for municipal or township office, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the qualified primary electors of his or her party in the municipality or township. If a candidate seeks to run for alderperson of a municipality, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the qualified primary electors of his or her party of the ward. In the first primary election following redistricting of wards or trustee districts of a municipality or the initial establishment of wards or districts, a candidate's petition for nomination must contain the number of signatures equal to at least 0.5% of the total number of votes cast for the candidate of that political party who received the highest number of votes in the entire municipality at the last regular election at which an officer was regularly scheduled to be elected from the entire municipality, divided by the number of wards or districts. In no event shall the number of signatures be less than 25.

(f) State central committeeperson. If a candidate seeks to run for State central committeeperson, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least 100 signatures of the primary electors of his or her party of his or her congressional district.

(g) Sanitary district trustee. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, if a candidate seeks to run for trustee of a sanitary district in which trustees are not elected from wards, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the primary electors of his or her party from the sanitary district. If a candidate seeks to run for trustee of a sanitary district in which trustees are elected from wards, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the primary electors of his or her party in the ward of that sanitary district. In the first primary election following redistricting of sanitary districts elected from wards, a candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the signatures of 150 qualified primary electors of his or her ward of that sanitary district.

(h) Judicial office. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, if a candidate seeks to run for judicial office in a district, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain the number of signatures equal to 0.4% of the number of votes cast in that district for the candidate for his or her political party for the office of Governor at the last general election at which a Governor was elected, but in no event less than 500 signatures. If a candidate seeks to run for judicial office in a circuit or subcircuit, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain the number of signatures equal to 0.25% of the number of votes cast for the judicial candidate of his or her political party who received the highest number of votes at the last general election at which a judicial officer from the same circuit or subcircuit was regularly scheduled to be elected, but in no event less than 1,000 signatures in circuits and subcircuits located in the First Judicial District or 500 signatures in every other Judicial District.

(i) Precinct, ward, and township committeeperson. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, if a candidate seeks to run for precinct committeeperson, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least 10 signatures of the primary electors of his or her party for the precinct. If a candidate seeks to run for ward committeeperson, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain no less than the number of signatures equal to 10% of the primary electors of his or her party of the ward, but no more than 16% of those same electors; provided that the maximum number of signatures may be 50 more than the minimum number, whichever is greater. If a candidate seeks to run for township committeeperson, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain no less than the number of signatures equal to 5% of the primary electors of his or her party of the township, but no more than 8% of those same electors; provided that the maximum number of signatures may be 50 more than the minimum number, whichever is greater.

(j) State's attorney or regional superintendent of schools for multiple counties. If a candidate seeks to run for State's attorney or regional Superintendent of Schools who serves more than one county, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the primary electors of his or her party in the territory comprising the counties.

(k) Any other office. If a candidate seeks any other office, then the candidate's petition for nomination must contain at least the number of signatures equal to 0.5% of the registered voters of the political subdivision, district, or division for which the nomination is made or 25 signatures, whichever is greater.

For purposes of this Section the number of primary electors shall be determined by taking the total vote cast, in the applicable district, for the candidate for that political party who received the highest number of votes, statewide, at the last general election in the State at which electors for President of the United States were elected. For political subdivisions, the number of primary electors shall be determined by taking the total vote cast for the candidate for that political party who received the highest number of votes in the political subdivision at the last regular election at which an officer was regularly scheduled to be elected from that subdivision. For wards or districts of political subdivisions, the number of primary electors shall be determined by taking the total vote cast for the candidate for that political party who received the highest number of votes in the ward or district at the last regular election at which an officer was regularly scheduled to be elected from that ward or district.

A "qualified primary elector" of a party may not sign petitions for or be a candidate in the primary of more than one party.

The changes made to this Section by Public Act 93-574 of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly are declarative of existing law, except for item (3) of subsection (d).

Petitions of candidates for nomination for offices herein specified, to be filed with the same officer, may contain the names of 2 or more candidates of the same political party for the same or different offices. In the case of the offices of Governor and Lieutenant Governor, a joint petition including one candidate for each of those offices must be filed.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-14-21.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-12) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-12)

Sec. 7-12. All petitions for nomination shall be filed by mail or in person as follows:

(1) Except as otherwise provided in this Code, where the nomination is to be made for a State, congressional, or judicial office, or for any office a nomination for which is made for a territorial division or district which comprises more than one county or is partly in one county and partly in another county or counties (including the Fox Metro Water Reclamation District), then, except as otherwise provided in this Section, such petition for nomination shall be filed in the principal office of the State Board of Elections not more than 113 and not less than 106 days prior to the date of the primary, but, in the case of petitions for nomination to fill a vacancy by special election in the office of representative in Congress from this State, such petition for nomination shall be filed in the principal office of the State Board of Elections not more than 85 days and not less than 82 days prior to the date of the primary.

Where a vacancy occurs in the office of Supreme, Appellate or Circuit Court Judge within the 3-week period preceding the 106th day before a general primary election, petitions for nomination for the office in which the vacancy has occurred shall be filed in the principal office of the State Board of Elections not more than 92 nor less than 85 days prior to the date of the general primary election.

Where the nomination is to be made for delegates or alternate delegates to a national nominating convention, then such petition for nomination shall be filed in the principal office of the State Board of Elections not more than 113 and not less than 106 days prior to the date of the primary; provided, however, that if the rules or policies of a national political party conflict with such requirements for filing petitions for nomination for delegates or alternate delegates to a national nominating convention, the chair of the State central committee of such national political party shall notify the Board in writing, citing by reference the rules or policies of the national political party in conflict, and in such case the Board shall direct such petitions to be filed in accordance with the delegate selection plan adopted by the state central committee of such national political party.

(2) Where the nomination is to be made for a county office or trustee of a sanitary district then such petition shall be filed in the office of the county clerk not more than 113 nor less than 106 days prior to the date of the primary.

(3) Where the nomination is to be made for a municipal or township office, such petitions for nomination shall be filed in the office of the local election official, not more than 99 nor less than 92 days prior to the date of the primary; provided, where a municipality's or township's boundaries are coextensive with or are entirely within the jurisdiction of a municipal board of election commissioners, the petitions shall be filed in the office of such board; and provided, that petitions for the office of multi-township assessor shall be filed with the election authority.

(4) The petitions of candidates for State central committeeperson shall be filed in the principal office of the State Board of Elections not more than 113 nor less than 106 days prior to the date of the primary.

(5) Petitions of candidates for precinct, township or ward committeepersons shall be filed in the office of the county clerk not more than 113 nor less than 106 days prior to the date of the primary.

(6) The State Board of Elections and the various election authorities and local election officials with whom such petitions for nominations are filed shall specify the place where filings shall be made and upon receipt shall endorse thereon the day and hour on which each petition was filed. All petitions filed by persons waiting in line as of 8:00 a.m. on the first day for filing, or as of the normal opening hour of the office involved on such day, shall be deemed filed as of 8:00 a.m. or the normal opening hour, as the case may be. Petitions filed by mail and received after midnight of the first day for filing and in the first mail delivery or pickup of that day shall be deemed as filed as of 8:00 a.m. of that day or as of the normal opening hour of such day, as the case may be. All petitions received thereafter shall be deemed as filed in the order of actual receipt. However, 2 or more petitions filed within the last hour of the filing deadline shall be deemed filed simultaneously. Where 2 or more petitions are received simultaneously, the State Board of Elections or the various election authorities or local election officials with whom such petitions are filed shall break ties and determine the order of filing, by means of a lottery or other fair and impartial method of random selection approved by the State Board of Elections. Such lottery shall be conducted within 9 days following the last day for petition filing and shall be open to the public. Seven days written notice of the time and place of conducting such random selection shall be given by the State Board of Elections to the chair of the State central committee of each established political party, and by each election authority or local election official, to the County Chair of each established political party, and to each organization of citizens within the election jurisdiction which was entitled, under this Article, at the next preceding election, to have pollwatchers present on the day of election. The State Board of Elections, election authority or local election official shall post in a conspicuous, open and public place, at the entrance of the office, notice of the time and place of such lottery. The State Board of Elections shall adopt rules and regulations governing the procedures for the conduct of such lottery. All candidates shall be certified in the order in which their petitions have been filed. Where candidates have filed simultaneously, they shall be certified in the order determined by lot and prior to candidates who filed for the same office at a later time.

(7) The State Board of Elections or the appropriate election authority or local election official with whom such a petition for nomination is filed shall notify the person for whom a petition for nomination has been filed of the obligation to file statements of organization, reports of campaign contributions, and annual reports of campaign contributions and expenditures under Article 9 of this Code Act. Such notice shall be given in the manner prescribed by paragraph (7) of Section 9-16 of this Code.

(8) Nomination papers filed under this Section are not valid if the candidate named therein fails to file a statement of economic interests as required by the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act in relation to his candidacy with the appropriate officer by the end of the period for the filing of nomination papers unless he has filed a statement of economic interests in relation to the same governmental unit with that officer within a year preceding the date on which such nomination papers were filed. If the nomination papers of any candidate and the statement of economic interest of that candidate are not required to be filed with the same officer, the candidate must file with the officer with whom the nomination papers are filed a receipt from the officer with whom the statement of economic interests is filed showing the date on which such statement was filed. Such receipt shall be so filed not later than the last day on which nomination papers may be filed.

(9) Except as otherwise provided in this Code, any person for whom a petition for nomination, or for committeeperson or for delegate or alternate delegate to a national nominating convention has been filed may cause his name to be withdrawn by request in writing, signed by him and duly acknowledged before an officer qualified to take acknowledgments of deeds, and filed in the principal or permanent branch office of the State Board of Elections or with the appropriate election authority or local election official, not later than the date of certification of candidates for the consolidated primary or general primary ballot. No names so withdrawn shall be certified or printed on the primary ballot. If petitions for nomination have been filed for the same person with respect to more than one political party, his name shall not be certified nor printed on the primary ballot of any party. If petitions for nomination have been filed for the same person for 2 or more offices which are incompatible so that the same person could not serve in more than one of such offices if elected, that person must withdraw as a candidate for all but one of such offices within the 5 business days following the last day for petition filing. A candidate in a judicial election may file petitions for nomination for only one vacancy in a subcircuit and only one vacancy in a circuit in any one filing period, and if petitions for nomination have been filed for the same person for 2 or more vacancies in the same circuit or subcircuit in the same filing period, his or her name shall be certified only for the first vacancy for which the petitions for nomination were filed. If he fails to withdraw as a candidate for all but one of such offices within such time his name shall not be certified, nor printed on the primary ballot, for any office. For the purpose of the foregoing provisions, an office in a political party is not incompatible with any other office.

(10)(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of any other statute, no primary shall be held for an established political party in any township, municipality, or ward thereof, where the nomination of such party for every office to be voted upon by the electors of such township, municipality, or ward thereof, is uncontested. Whenever a political party's nomination of candidates is uncontested as to one or more, but not all, of the offices to be voted upon by the electors of a township, municipality, or ward thereof, then a primary shall be held for that party in such township, municipality, or ward thereof; provided that the primary ballot shall not include those offices within such township, municipality, or ward thereof, for which the nomination is uncontested. For purposes of this Article, the nomination of an established political party of a candidate for election to an office shall be deemed to be uncontested where not more than the number of persons to be nominated have timely filed valid nomination papers seeking the nomination of such party for election to such office.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of any other statute, no primary election shall be held for an established political party for any special primary election called for the purpose of filling a vacancy in the office of representative in the United States Congress where the nomination of such political party for said office is uncontested. For the purposes of this Article, the nomination of an established political party of a candidate for election to said office shall be deemed to be uncontested where not more than the number of persons to be nominated have timely filed valid nomination papers seeking the nomination of such established party for election to said office. This subsection (b) shall not apply if such primary election is conducted on a regularly scheduled election day.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions in subparagraph (a) and (b) of this paragraph (10), whenever a person who has not timely filed valid nomination papers and who intends to become a write-in candidate for a political party's nomination for any office for which the nomination is uncontested files a written statement or notice of that intent with the State Board of Elections or the local election official with whom nomination papers for such office are filed, a primary ballot shall be prepared and a primary shall be held for that office. Such statement or notice shall be filed on or before the date established in this Article for certifying candidates for the primary ballot. Such statement or notice shall contain (i) the name and address of the person intending to become a write-in candidate, (ii) a statement that the person is a qualified primary elector of the political party from whom the nomination is sought, (iii) a statement that the person intends to become a write-in candidate for the party's nomination, and (iv) the office the person is seeking as a write-in candidate. An election authority shall have no duty to conduct a primary and prepare a primary ballot for any office for which the nomination is uncontested unless a statement or notice meeting the requirements of this Section is filed in a timely manner.

(11) If multiple sets of nomination papers are filed for a candidate to the same office, the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official where the petitions are filed shall within 2 business days notify the candidate of his or her multiple petition filings and that the candidate has 3 business days after receipt of the notice to notify the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official that he or she may cancel prior sets of petitions. If the candidate notifies the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official, the last set of petitions filed shall be the only petitions to be considered valid by the State Board of Elections, election authority or local election official. If the candidate fails to notify the State Board of Elections, election authority or local election official then only the first set of petitions filed shall be valid and all subsequent petitions shall be void.

(12) All nominating petitions shall be available for public inspection and shall be preserved for a period of not less than 6 months.

(Source: P.A. 101-523, eff. 8-23-19; 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-14-21.)

(10 ILCS 5/10-4) (from Ch. 46, par. 10-4)

Sec. 10-4. Form of petition for nomination. All petitions for nomination under this Article 10 for candidates for public office in this State, shall in addition to other requirements provided by law, be as follows: Such petitions shall consist of sheets of uniform size and each sheet shall contain, above the space for signature, an appropriate heading, giving the information as to name of candidate or candidates in whose behalf such petition is signed; the office; the party; place of residence; and such other information or wording as required to make same valid, and the heading of each sheet shall be the same. Such petition shall be signed by the qualified voters in their own proper persons only, and opposite the signature of each signer his residence address shall be written or printed. The residence address required to be written or printed opposite each qualified primary elector's name shall include the street address or rural route number of the signer, as the case may be, as well as the signer's county, and city, village or town, and state. However, the county or city, village or town, and state of residence of such electors may be printed on the petition forms where all of the electors signing the petition reside in the same county or city, village or town, and state. Standard abbreviations may be used in writing the residence address, including street number, if any. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, no signature shall be valid or be counted in considering the validity or sufficiency of such petition unless the requirements of this Section are complied with. At the bottom of each sheet of such petition shall be added a circulator's statement, signed by a person 18 years of age or older who is a citizen of the United States; stating the street address or rural route number, as the case may be, as well as the county, city, village or town, and state; certifying that the signatures on that sheet of the petition were signed in his or her presence; certifying that the signatures are genuine; and either (1) indicating the dates on which that sheet was circulated, or (2) indicating the first and last dates on which the sheet was circulated, or (3) certifying that none of the signatures on the sheet were signed more than 90 days preceding the last day for the filing of the petition; and certifying that to the best of his knowledge and belief the persons so signing were at the time of signing the petition duly registered voters under Article Articles 4, 5, or 6 of this the Code of the political subdivision or district for which the candidate or candidates shall be nominated, and certifying that their respective residences are correctly stated therein. Such statement shall be sworn to before some officer authorized to administer oaths in this State. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, no petition sheet shall be circulated more than 90 days preceding the last day provided in Section 10-6 for the filing of such petition. Such sheets, before being presented to the electoral board or filed with the proper officer of the electoral district or division of the state or municipality, as the case may be, shall be neatly fastened together in book form, by placing the sheets in a pile and fastening them together at one edge in a secure and suitable manner, and the sheets shall then be numbered consecutively. The sheets shall not be fastened by pasting them together end to end, so as to form a continuous strip or roll. All petition sheets which are filed with the proper local election officials, election authorities or the State Board of Elections shall be the original sheets which have been signed by the voters and by the circulator, and not photocopies or duplicates of such sheets. A petition, when presented or filed, shall not be withdrawn, altered, or added to, and no signature shall be revoked except by revocation in writing presented or filed with the officers or officer with whom the petition is required to be presented or filed, and before the presentment or filing of such petition. Whoever forges any name of a signer upon any petition shall be deemed guilty of a forgery, and on conviction thereof, shall be punished accordingly. The word "petition" or "petition for nomination", as used herein, shall mean what is sometimes known as nomination papers, in distinction to what is known as a certificate of nomination. The words "political division for which the candidate is nominated", or its equivalent, shall mean the largest political division in which all qualified voters may vote upon such candidate or candidates, as the state in the case of state officers; the township in the case of township officers et cetera. Provided, further, that no person shall circulate or certify petitions for candidates of more than one political party, or for an independent candidate or candidates in addition to one political party, to be voted upon at the next primary or general election, or for such candidates and parties with respect to the same political subdivision at the next consolidated election.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-15-21.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-2) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-2)

Sec. 19-2. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, any elector as defined in Section 19-1 may by mail or electronically on the website of the appropriate election authority, not more than 90 nor less than 5 days prior to the date of such election, or by personal delivery not more than 90 nor less than one day prior to the date of such election, make application to the county clerk or to the Board of Election Commissioners for an official ballot for the voter's precinct to be voted at such election, or to be added to a list of permanent vote by mail status voters who receive an official vote by mail ballot for subsequent elections. Voters who make an application for permanent vote by mail ballot status shall follow the procedures specified in Section 19-3. Voters whose application for permanent vote by mail status is accepted by the election authority shall remain on the permanent vote by mail list until the voter requests to be removed from permanent vote by mail status, the voter provides notice to the election authority of a change in registration, or the election authority receives confirmation that the voter has subsequently registered to vote in another county. The URL address at which voters may electronically request a vote by mail ballot shall be fixed no later than 90 calendar days before an election and shall not be changed until after the election. Such a ballot shall be delivered to the elector only upon separate application by the elector for each election.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-15-21.)

Section 12. The Community Development Loan Guarantee Act is amended by changing Section 30-1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 516/30-1)

Sec. 30-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the Community Development Loan Guarantee Act. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

(Source: P.A. 101-657, eff. 3-23-21; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 15. The Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2605-53 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-53)

Sec. 2605-53. 9-1-1 system; sexual assault and sexual abuse.

(a) The Office of the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator, in consultation with the Office of the Attorney General and the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, shall:

(1) develop comprehensive guidelines for evidence-based, trauma-informed, victim-centered handling of sexual assault or sexual abuse calls by Public Safety Answering Point telecommunicators; and

(2) adopt rules and minimum standards for an evidence-based, trauma-informed, victim-centered training curriculum for handling of sexual assault or sexual abuse calls for Public Safety Answering Point telecommunicators ("PSAP").

(a-5) Within one year after June 3, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-9) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the Office of the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator, in consultation with the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board, shall:

(1) develop comprehensive guidelines for training on emergency dispatch procedures, including, but not limited to, emergency medical dispatch, and the delivery of 9-1-1 services and professionalism for public safety telecommunicators and public safety telecommunicator supervisors; and

(2) adopt rules and minimum standards for continuing education on emergency dispatch procedures, including, but not limited to, emergency medical dispatch, and the delivery of 9-1-1 services and professionalism for public safety telecommunicators and public safety telecommunicator Supervisors. ; and

(a-10) The Office of the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator may as necessary establish by rule appropriate testing and certification processes consistent with the training required by this Section.

(b) Training requirements:

(1) Newly hired PSAP telecommunicators must complete the sexual assault and sexual abuse training curriculum established in subsection (a) of this Section prior to handling emergency calls.

(2) All existing PSAP telecommunicators shall complete the sexual assault and sexual abuse training curriculum established in subsection (a) of this Section within 2 years of January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-801) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(3) Newly hired public safety telecommunicators shall complete the emergency dispatch procedures training curriculum established in subsection (a-5) of this Section prior to independently handling emergency calls within one year of the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator establishing the required guidelines, rules, and standards.

(4) All public safety telecommunicators and public safety telecommunicator supervisors who were not required to complete new hire training prior to handling emergency calls, must either demonstrate proficiency or complete the training established in subsection (a-5) of this Section within one year of the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator establishing the required guidelines, rules, and standards.

(5) Upon completion of the training required in either paragraph (3) or (4) of this subsection (b), whichever is applicable, all public safety telecommunicators and public safety telecommunicator supervisors shall complete the continuing education training regarding the delivery of 9-1-1 services and professionalism biennially.

(c) The Illinois State Police may adopt rules for the administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 20. The State Police Act is amended by changing Section 17c as follows:

(20 ILCS 2610/17c)

Sec. 17c. Military equipment surplus program.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

"Bayonet" means a large knife designed to be attached to the muzzle of a rifle, shotgun, or long gun for the purpose of hand-to-hand combat.

"Grenade launcher" means a firearm or firearm accessory used to launch fragmentary explosive rounds designed to inflict death or cause great bodily harm.

"Military equipment surplus program" means any federal or State program allowing a law enforcement agency to obtain surplus military equipment, including, but not limited limit to, any program organized under Section 1122 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994 (Pub. L. 103-160) or Section 1033 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1997 (Pub. L. 104-201), or any program established under 10 U.S.C. 2576a.

"Tracked armored vehicle" means a vehicle that provides ballistic protection to its occupants and utilizes a tracked system instead of wheels for forward motion, not including vehicles listed in the Authorized Equipment List as published by the Federal Emergency Management Agency.

"Weaponized aircraft, vessel, or vehicle" means any aircraft, vessel, or vehicle with weapons installed.

(b) The Illinois State Police shall not request or receive from any military equipment surplus program nor purchase or otherwise utilize the following equipment:

(1) tracked armored vehicles;

(2) weaponized aircraft, vessels, or vehicles;

(3) firearms of .50-caliber or higher;

(4) ammunition of .50-caliber or higher;

(5) grenade launchers; or

(6) bayonets.

(c) If the Illinois State Police request other property not prohibited by this Section from a military equipment surplus program, the Illinois State Police shall publish notice of the request on a publicly accessible website maintained by the Illinois State Police within 14 days after the request.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; revised 7-30-21.)

Section 25. The Illinois Future of Work Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4103/15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 15. Membership; meetings.

(a) The members of the Illinois Future of Work Task Force shall include and represent the diversity of the people of Illinois, and shall be composed of the following:

(1) four members, including one representative of the business community and one representative of the labor community, appointed by the Senate President, one of whom shall serve as co-chair;

(2) four members, including one representative of the business community and one representative of the labor community, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate, one of whom shall serve as co-chair;

(3) four members, including one representative of the business community and one representative of the labor community, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, one of whom shall serve as co-chair;

(4) four members, including one representative of the business community and one representative of the labor community, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Speaker of the House of Representatives, one of whom shall serve as co-chair;

(5) four members, one from each of the following: the business community, the labor community, the environmental community, and the education community that advocate for job growth, appointed by the Governor;

(6) three members appointed by the Governor whose professional expertise is at the juncture of work and workers' rights;

(7) the Director of Labor or his or her designee;

(8) the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity or his or her designee;

(9) the Director of Employment Security or his or her designee;

(10) the Superintendent of the State Board of Education or his or her designee;

(11) the Executive Director of the Illinois Community College Board or his or her designee; and

(12) the Executive Director of the Board of Higher Education or his or her designee.

(b) Appointments for the Illinois Future of Work Task Force must be finalized by August 31, 2021. The Illinois Future of Work Task Force shall hold one meeting per month for a total of 7 meetings, and the first meeting must be held within 30 days after appointments are finalized.

(c) Members of the Illinois Future of Work Task Force shall serve without compensation.

(d) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall provide administrative support to the Task Force.

(Source: P.A. 102-407, eff. 8-19-21; revised 8-25-21.)

Section 27. The Racial Impact Note Act is amended by changing Section 110-5 as follows:

(25 ILCS 83/110-5)

Sec. 110-5. Racial impact note. (a) Every bill which has or could have a disparate impact on racial and ethnic minorities, upon the request of any member, shall have prepared for it, before second reading in the house of introduction, a brief explanatory statement or note that shall include a reliable estimate of the anticipated impact on those racial and ethnic minorities likely to be impacted by the bill. Each racial impact note must include, for racial and ethnic minorities for which data are available: (i) an estimate of how the proposed legislation would impact racial and ethnic minorities; (ii) a statement of the methodologies and assumptions used in preparing the estimate; (iii) an estimate of the racial and ethnic composition of the population who may be impacted by the proposed legislation, including those persons who may be negatively impacted and those persons who may benefit from the proposed legislation; and (iv) any other matter that a responding agency considers appropriate in relation to the racial and ethnic minorities likely to be affected by the bill.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 30. The State Finance Act is amended by changing Section 8.25-4 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/8.25-4) (from Ch. 127, par. 144.25-4)

Sec. 8.25-4. All moneys in the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund are allocated to and shall be transferred, appropriated, and used only for the purposes authorized by, and subject to, the limitations and conditions of this Section.

All moneys deposited pursuant to Section 13.1 of the State Revenue Sharing Act "An Act in relation to State revenue sharing with local governmental entities", as amended, and all moneys deposited with respect to the $5,000,000 deposit, but not the additional $8,000,000 advance applicable before July 1, 2001, or the Advance Amount applicable on and after that date, pursuant to Section 6 of the "The Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act", as amended, into the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund shall be credited to the Subsidy Account within the Fund. All moneys deposited with respect to the additional $8,000,000 advance applicable before July 1, 2001, or the Advance Amount applicable on and after that date, but not the $5,000,000 deposit, pursuant to Section 6 of the "The Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act", as amended, into the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund shall be credited to the Advance Account within the Fund. All moneys deposited from any transfer pursuant to Section 8g-1 of the State Finance Act shall be credited to the Advance Account within the Fund.

Beginning with fiscal year 1989 and continuing for each fiscal year thereafter through and including fiscal year 2001, no less than 30 days before the beginning of such fiscal year (except as soon as may be practicable after July 7, 1988 (the effective date of Public Act 85-1034) this amendatory Act of 1988 with respect to fiscal year 1989) the Chairman of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority shall certify to the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer, without taking into account any revenues or receipts of the Authority, the lesser of (a) $18,000,000 and (b) the sum of (i) the amount anticipated to be required by the Authority during the fiscal year to pay principal of and interest on, and other payments relating to, its obligations issued or to be issued under Section 13 of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act, including any deposits required to reserve funds created under any indenture or resolution authorizing issuance of the obligations and payments to providers of credit enhancement, (ii) the amount anticipated to be required by the Authority during the fiscal year to pay obligations under the provisions of any management agreement with respect to a facility or facilities owned by the Authority or of any assistance agreement with respect to any facility for which financial assistance is provided under the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act, and to pay other capital and operating expenses of the Authority during the fiscal year, including any deposits required to reserve funds created for repair and replacement of capital assets and to meet the obligations of the Authority under any management agreement or assistance agreement, and (iii) any amounts under (i) and (ii) above remaining unpaid from previous years.

Beginning with fiscal year 2002 and continuing for each fiscal year thereafter, no less than 30 days before the beginning of such fiscal year, the Chairman of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority shall certify to the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer, without taking into account any revenues or receipts of the Authority, the lesser of (a) an amount equal to the sum of the Advance Amount plus $10,000,000 and (b) the sum of (i) the amount anticipated to be required by the Authority during the fiscal year to pay principal of and interest on, and other payments relating to, its obligations issued or to be issued under Section 13 of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act, including any deposits required to reserve funds created under any indenture or resolution authorizing issuance of the obligations and payments to providers of credit enhancement, (ii) the amount anticipated to be required by the Authority during the fiscal year to pay obligations under the provisions of any management agreement with respect to a facility or facilities owned by the Authority or any assistance agreement with respect to any facility for which financial assistance is provided under the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act, and to pay other capital and operating expenses of the Authority during the fiscal year, including any deposits required to reserve funds created for repair and replacement of capital assets and to meet the obligations of the Authority under any management agreement or assistance agreement, and (iii) any amounts under (i) and (ii) above remaining unpaid from previous years.

A copy of any certification made by the Chairman under the preceding 2 paragraphs shall be filed with the Governor and the Mayor of the City of Chicago. The Chairman may file an amended certification from time to time.

Subject to sufficient appropriation by the General Assembly, beginning with July 1, 1988 and thereafter continuing on the first day of each month during each fiscal year through and including fiscal year 2001, the Comptroller shall order paid and the Treasurer shall pay to the Authority the amount in the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund until (x) the lesser of $10,000,000 or the amount appropriated for payment to the Authority from amounts credited to the Subsidy Account and (y) the lesser of $8,000,000 or the difference between the amount appropriated for payment to the Authority during the fiscal year and $10,000,000 has been paid from amounts credited to the Advance Account.

Subject to sufficient appropriation by the General Assembly, beginning with July 1, 2001, and thereafter continuing on the first day of each month during each fiscal year thereafter, the Comptroller shall order paid and the Treasurer shall pay to the Authority the amount in the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund until (x) the lesser of $10,000,000 or the amount appropriated for payment to the Authority from amounts credited to the Subsidy Account and (y) the lesser of the Advance Amount or the difference between the amount appropriated for payment to the Authority during the fiscal year and $10,000,000 has been paid from amounts credited to the Advance Account.

Provided that all amounts deposited in the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund and credited to the Subsidy Account, to the extent requested pursuant to the Chairman's certification, have been paid, on June 30, 1989, and on June 30 of each year thereafter, all amounts remaining in the Subsidy Account of the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund shall be transferred by the State Treasurer one-half to the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury and one-half to the City Tax Fund. Provided that all amounts appropriated from the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund, to the extent requested pursuant to the Chairman's certification, have been paid, on June 30, 1989, and on June 30 of each year thereafter, all amounts remaining in the Advance Account of the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund shall be transferred by the State Treasurer to the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury.

For purposes of this Section, the term "Advance Amount" means, for fiscal year 2002, $22,179,000, and for subsequent fiscal years through fiscal year 2033, 105.615% of the Advance Amount for the immediately preceding fiscal year, rounded up to the nearest $1,000.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, Article 2, Section 2-5, eff. 6-17-21; 102-16, Article 6, Section 6-5, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-17-21.)

Section 35. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Sections 35-30 and 50-85 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/35-30)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-657, Article 40, Section 40-125)

Sec. 35-30. Awards.

(a) All State contracts for professional and artistic services, except as provided in this Section, shall be awarded using the competitive request for proposal process outlined in this Section. The scoring for requests for proposals shall include the commitment to diversity factors and methodology described in subsection (e-5) of Section 20-15.

(b) For each contract offered, the chief procurement officer, State purchasing officer, or his or her designee shall use the appropriate standard solicitation forms available from the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer.

(c) Prepared forms shall be submitted to the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate, for publication in its Illinois Procurement Bulletin and circulation to the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer's list of prequalified vendors. Notice of the offer or request for proposal shall appear at least 14 calendar days before the response to the offer is due.

(d) All interested respondents shall return their responses to the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate, which shall open and record them. The chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or higher education chief procurement officer then shall forward the responses, together with any information it has available about the qualifications and other State work of the respondents.

(e) After evaluation, ranking, and selection, the responsible chief procurement officer, State purchasing officer, or his or her designee shall notify the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate, of the successful respondent and shall forward a copy of the signed contract for the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or higher education chief procurement officer's file. The chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or higher education chief procurement officer shall publish the names of the responsible procurement decision-maker, the agency letting the contract, the successful respondent, a contract reference, and value of the let contract in the next appropriate volume of the Illinois Procurement Bulletin.

(f) For all professional and artistic contracts with annualized value that exceeds $100,000, evaluation and ranking by price are required. Any chief procurement officer or State purchasing officer, but not their designees, may select a respondent other than the lowest respondent by price. In any case, when the contract exceeds the $100,000 threshold and the lowest respondent is not selected, the chief procurement officer or the State purchasing officer shall forward together with the contract notice of who the low respondent by price was and a written decision as to why another was selected to the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate. The chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or higher education chief procurement officer shall publish as provided in subsection (e) of Section 35-30, but shall include notice of the chief procurement officer's or State purchasing officer's written decision.

(g) The chief procurement officer for matters other than construction and higher education chief procurement officer may each refine, but not contradict, this Section by promulgating rules for submission to the Procurement Policy Board and then to the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules. Any refinement shall be based on the principles and procedures of the federal Architect-Engineer Selection Law, Public Law 92-582 Brooks Act, and the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act; except that pricing shall be an integral part of the selection process.

(Source: P.A. 100-43, eff. 8-9-17; 101-657, Article 5, Section 5-5, eff. 7-1-21 (See Section 25 of P.A. 102-29 for effective date of P.A. 101-657, Article 5, Section 5-5).)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-657, Article 40, Section 40-125)

Sec. 35-30. Awards.

(a) All State contracts for professional and artistic services, except as provided in this Section, shall be awarded using the competitive request for proposal process outlined in this Section. The scoring for requests for proposals shall include the commitment to diversity factors and methodology described in subsection (e-5) of Section 20-15.

(b) For each contract offered, the chief procurement officer, State purchasing officer, or his or her designee shall use the appropriate standard solicitation forms available from the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer.

(c) Prepared forms shall be submitted to the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate, for publication in its Illinois Procurement Bulletin and circulation to the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer's list of prequalified vendors. Notice of the offer or request for proposal shall appear at least 14 calendar days before the response to the offer is due.

(d) All interested respondents shall return their responses to the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate, which shall open and record them. The chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or higher education chief procurement officer then shall forward the responses, together with any information it has available about the qualifications and other State work of the respondents.

(e) After evaluation, ranking, and selection, the responsible chief procurement officer, State purchasing officer, or his or her designee shall notify the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate, of the successful respondent and shall forward a copy of the signed contract for the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or higher education chief procurement officer's file. The chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or higher education chief procurement officer shall publish the names of the responsible procurement decision-maker, the agency letting the contract, the successful respondent, a contract reference, and value of the let contract in the next appropriate volume of the Illinois Procurement Bulletin.

(f) For all professional and artistic contracts with annualized value that exceeds $100,000, evaluation and ranking by price are required. Any chief procurement officer or State purchasing officer, but not their designees, may select a respondent other than the lowest respondent by price. In any case, when the contract exceeds the $100,000 threshold and the lowest respondent is not selected, the chief procurement officer or the State purchasing officer shall forward together with the contract notice of who the low respondent by price was and a written decision as to why another was selected to the chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate. The chief procurement officer for matters other than construction or higher education chief procurement officer shall publish as provided in subsection (e) of Section 35-30, but shall include notice of the chief procurement officer's or State purchasing officer's written decision.

(g) The chief procurement officer for matters other than construction and higher education chief procurement officer may each refine, but not contradict, this Section by promulgating rules for submission to the Procurement Policy Board and the Commission on Equity and Inclusion and then to the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules. Any refinement shall be based on the principles and procedures of the federal Architect-Engineer Selection Law, Public Law 92-582 Brooks Act, and the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act; except that pricing shall be an integral part of the selection process.

(Source: P.A. 100-43, eff. 8-9-17; 101-657, Article 5, Section 5-5, eff. 7-1-21 (See Section 25 of P.A. 102-29 for effective date of P.A. 101-657, Article 5, Section 5-5); 101-657, Article 40, Section 40-125, eff. 1-1-22; revised 7-13-21.)

(30 ILCS 500/50-85)

Sec. 50-85. Diversity training. (a) Each chief procurement officer, State purchasing officer, procurement compliance monitor, applicable support staff of each chief procurement officer, State agency purchasing and contracting staff, those identified under subsection (c) of Section 5-45 of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act who have the authority to participate personally and substantially in the award of State contracts, and any other State agency staff with substantial procurement and contracting responsibilities as determined by the chief procurement officer, in consultation with the State agency, shall complete annual training for diversity and inclusion. Each chief procurement officer shall prescribe the program of diversity and inclusion training appropriate for each chief procurement officer's jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 101-657, eff. 7-1-21 (See Section 25 of P.A. 102-29 for effective date of P.A. 101-657, Article 5, Section 5-5); revised 7-23-21.)

Section 40. The Commission on Equity and Inclusion Act is amended by changing Section 40-1 as follows:

(30 ILCS 574/40-1)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 40-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the Commission on Equity and Inclusion Act. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

(Source: P.A. 101-657, eff. 1-1-22; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 45. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 211 and 905 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/211)

Sec. 211. Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit. For tax years beginning on or after January 1, 1999, a Taxpayer who has entered into an Agreement (including a New Construction EDGE Agreement) under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act is entitled to a credit against the taxes imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act in an amount to be determined in the Agreement. If the Taxpayer is a partnership or Subchapter S corporation, the credit shall be allowed to the partners or shareholders in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. The Department, in cooperation with the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, shall prescribe rules to enforce and administer the provisions of this Section. This Section is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.

The credit shall be subject to the conditions set forth in the Agreement and the following limitations:

(1) The tax credit shall not exceed the Incremental Income Tax (as defined in Section 5-5 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act) with respect to the project; additionally, the New Construction EDGE Credit shall not exceed the New Construction EDGE Incremental Income Tax (as defined in Section 5-5 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act).

(2) The amount of the credit allowed during the tax year plus the sum of all amounts allowed in prior years shall not exceed 100% of the aggregate amount expended by the Taxpayer during all prior tax years on approved costs defined by Agreement.

(3) The amount of the credit shall be determined on an annual basis. Except as applied in a carryover year pursuant to Section 211(4) of this Act, the credit may not be applied against any State income tax liability in more than 10 taxable years; provided, however, that (i) an eligible business certified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under the Corporate Headquarters Relocation Act may not apply the credit against any of its State income tax liability in more than 15 taxable years and (ii) credits allowed to that eligible business are subject to the conditions and requirements set forth in Sections 5-35 and 5-45 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act and Section 5-51 as applicable to New Construction EDGE Credits.

(4) The credit may not exceed the amount of taxes imposed pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act. Any credit that is unused in the year the credit is computed may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year, except as otherwise provided under paragraph (4.5) of this Section. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one tax year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first.

(4.5) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, in consultation with the Department of Revenue, shall adopt rules to extend the sunset of any earned, existing, or unused credit as provided for in Section 605-1055 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(5) No credit shall be allowed with respect to any Agreement for any taxable year ending after the Noncompliance Date. Upon receiving notification by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity of the noncompliance of a Taxpayer with an Agreement, the Department shall notify the Taxpayer that no credit is allowed with respect to that Agreement for any taxable year ending after the Noncompliance Date, as stated in such notification. If any credit has been allowed with respect to an Agreement for a taxable year ending after the Noncompliance Date for that Agreement, any refund paid to the Taxpayer for that taxable year shall, to the extent of that credit allowed, be an erroneous refund within the meaning of Section 912 of this Act.

If, during any taxable year, a taxpayer ceases operations at a project location that is the subject of that Agreement with the intent to terminate operations in the State, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act for such taxable year shall be increased by the amount of any credit allowed under the Agreement for that project location prior to the date the taxpayer ceases operations.

(6) For purposes of this Section, the terms "Agreement", "Incremental Income Tax", "New Construction EDGE Agreement", "New Construction EDGE Credit", "New Construction EDGE Incremental Income Tax", and "Noncompliance Date" have the same meaning as when used in the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-9, eff. 6-5-19; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-40, eff. 6-25-21; revised 7-15-21.)

(35 ILCS 5/905) (from Ch. 120, par. 9-905)

Sec. 905. Limitations on notices of deficiency.

(a) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this Act:

(1) A notice of deficiency shall be issued not later than 3 years after the date the return was filed, and

(2) No deficiency shall be assessed or collected with respect to the year for which the return was filed unless such notice is issued within such period.

(a-5) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, for any taxable year included in a claim for credit or refund for which the statute of limitations for issuing a notice of deficiency under this Act will expire less than 6 months after the date a taxpayer files the claim for credit or refund, the statute of limitations is automatically extended for 6 months from the date it would have otherwise expired.

(b) Substantial omission of items.

(1) Omission of more than 25% of income. If the taxpayer omits from base income an amount properly includible therein which is in excess of 25% of the amount of base income stated in the return, a notice of deficiency may be issued not later than 6 years after the return was filed. For purposes of this paragraph, there shall not be taken into account any amount which is omitted in the return if such amount is disclosed in the return, or in a statement attached to the return, in a manner adequate to apprise the Department of the nature and the amount of such item.

(2) Reportable transactions. If a taxpayer fails to include on any return or statement for any taxable year any information with respect to a reportable transaction, as required under Section 501(b) of this Act, a notice of deficiency may be issued not later than 6 years after the return is filed with respect to the taxable year in which the taxpayer participated in the reportable transaction and said deficiency is limited to the non-disclosed item.

(3) Withholding. If an employer omits from a return required under Section 704A of this Act for any period beginning on or after January 1, 2013, an amount required to be withheld and to be reported on that return which is in excess of 25% of the total amount of withholding required to be reported on that return, a notice of deficiency may be issued not later than 6 years after the return was filed.

(c) No return or fraudulent return. If no return is filed or a false and fraudulent return is filed with intent to evade the tax imposed by this Act, a notice of deficiency may be issued at any time. For purposes of this subsection (c), any taxpayer who is required to join in the filing of a return filed under the provisions of subsection (e) of Section 502 of this Act for a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2013 and who is not included on that return and does not file its own return for that taxable year shall be deemed to have failed to file a return; provided that the amount of any proposed assessment set forth in a notice of deficiency issued under this subsection (c) shall be limited to the amount of any increase in liability under this Act that should have reported on the return required under the provisions of subsection (e) of Section 502 of this Act for that taxable year resulting from proper inclusion of that taxpayer on that return.

(d) Failure to report federal change. If a taxpayer fails to notify the Department in any case where notification is required by Section 304(c) or 506(b), or fails to report a change or correction which is treated in the same manner as if it were a deficiency for federal income tax purposes, a notice of deficiency may be issued (i) at any time or (ii) on or after August 13, 1999, at any time for the taxable year for which the notification is required or for any taxable year to which the taxpayer may carry an Article 2 credit, or a Section 207 loss, earned, incurred, or used in the year for which the notification is required; provided, however, that the amount of any proposed assessment set forth in the notice shall be limited to the amount of any deficiency resulting under this Act from the recomputation of the taxpayer's net income, Article 2 credits, or Section 207 loss earned, incurred, or used in the taxable year for which the notification is required after giving effect to the item or items required to be reported.

(e) Report of federal change.

(1) Before August 13, 1999, in any case where notification of an alteration is given as required by Section 506(b), a notice of deficiency may be issued at any time within 2 years after the date such notification is given, provided, however, that the amount of any proposed assessment set forth in such notice shall be limited to the amount of any deficiency resulting under this Act from recomputation of the taxpayer's net income, net loss, or Article 2 credits for the taxable year after giving effect to the item or items reflected in the reported alteration.

(2) On and after August 13, 1999, in any case where notification of an alteration is given as required by Section 506(b), a notice of deficiency may be issued at any time within 2 years after the date such notification is given for the taxable year for which the notification is given or for any taxable year to which the taxpayer may carry an Article 2 credit, or a Section 207 loss, earned, incurred, or used in the year for which the notification is given, provided, however, that the amount of any proposed assessment set forth in such notice shall be limited to the amount of any deficiency resulting under this Act from recomputation of the taxpayer's net income, Article 2 credits, or Section 207 loss earned, incurred, or used in the taxable year for which the notification is given after giving effect to the item or items reflected in the reported alteration.

(f) Extension by agreement. Where, before the expiration of the time prescribed in this Section for the issuance of a notice of deficiency, both the Department and the taxpayer shall have consented in writing to its issuance after such time, such notice may be issued at any time prior to the expiration of the period agreed upon. In the case of a taxpayer who is a partnership, Subchapter S corporation, or trust and who enters into an agreement with the Department pursuant to this subsection on or after January 1, 2003, a notice of deficiency may be issued to the partners, shareholders, or beneficiaries of the taxpayer at any time prior to the expiration of the period agreed upon. Any proposed assessment set forth in the notice, however, shall be limited to the amount of any deficiency resulting under this Act from recomputation of items of income, deduction, credits, or other amounts of the taxpayer that are taken into account by the partner, shareholder, or beneficiary in computing its liability under this Act. The period so agreed upon may be extended by subsequent agreements in writing made before the expiration of the period previously agreed upon.

(g) Erroneous refunds. In any case in which there has been an erroneous refund of tax payable under this Act, a notice of deficiency may be issued at any time within 2 years from the making of such refund, or within 5 years from the making of such refund if it appears that any part of the refund was induced by fraud or the misrepresentation of a material fact, provided, however, that the amount of any proposed assessment set forth in such notice shall be limited to the amount of such erroneous refund.

Beginning July 1, 1993, in any case in which there has been a refund of tax payable under this Act attributable to a net loss carryback as provided for in Section 207, and that refund is subsequently determined to be an erroneous refund due to a reduction in the amount of the net loss which was originally carried back, a notice of deficiency for the erroneous refund amount may be issued at any time during the same time period in which a notice of deficiency can be issued on the loss year creating the carryback amount and subsequent erroneous refund. The amount of any proposed assessment set forth in the notice shall be limited to the amount of such erroneous refund.

(h) Time return deemed filed. For purposes of this Section a tax return filed before the last day prescribed by law (including any extension thereof) shall be deemed to have been filed on such last day.

(i) Request for prompt determination of liability. For purposes of subsection (a)(1), in the case of a tax return required under this Act in respect of a decedent, or by his estate during the period of administration, or by a corporation, the period referred to in such Subsection shall be 18 months after a written request for prompt determination of liability is filed with the Department (at such time and in such form and manner as the Department shall by regulations prescribe) by the executor, administrator, or other fiduciary representing the estate of such decedent, or by such corporation, but not more than 3 years after the date the return was filed. This subsection shall not apply in the case of a corporation unless:

(1) (A) such written request notifies the Department that the corporation contemplates dissolution at or before the expiration of such 18-month period, (B) the dissolution is begun in good faith before the expiration of such 18-month period, and (C) the dissolution is completed;

(2) (A) such written request notifies the Department that a dissolution has in good faith been begun, and (B) the dissolution is completed; or

(3) a dissolution has been completed at the time such written request is made.

(j) Withholding tax. In the case of returns required under Article 7 of this Act (with respect to any amounts withheld as tax or any amounts required to have been withheld as tax) a notice of deficiency shall be issued not later than 3 years after the 15th day of the 4th month following the close of the calendar year in which such withholding was required.

(k) Penalties for failure to make information reports. A notice of deficiency for the penalties provided by Subsection 1405.1(c) of this Act may not be issued more than 3 years after the due date of the reports with respect to which the penalties are asserted.

(l) Penalty for failure to file withholding returns. A notice of deficiency for penalties provided by Section 1004 of this Act for the taxpayer's failure to file withholding returns may not be issued more than three years after the 15th day of the 4th month following the close of the calendar year in which the withholding giving rise to the taxpayer's obligation to file those returns occurred.

(m) Transferee liability. A notice of deficiency may be issued to a transferee relative to a liability asserted under Section 1405 during time periods defined as follows:

(1) 1) Initial Transferee. In the case of the liability of an initial transferee, up to 2 years after the expiration of the period of limitation for assessment against the transferor, except that if a court proceeding for review of the assessment against the transferor has begun, then up to 2 years after the return of the certified copy of the judgment in the court proceeding.

(2) 2) Transferee of Transferee. In the case of the liability of a transferee, up to 2 years after the expiration of the period of limitation for assessment against the preceding transferee, but not more than 3 years after the expiration of the period of limitation for assessment against the initial transferor; except that if, before the expiration of the period of limitation for the assessment of the liability of the transferee, a court proceeding for the collection of the tax or liability in respect thereof has been begun against the initial transferor or the last preceding transferee, as the case may be, then the period of limitation for assessment of the liability of the transferee shall expire 2 years after the return of the certified copy of the judgment in the court proceeding.

(n) Notice of decrease in net loss. On and after August 23, 2002, no notice of deficiency shall be issued as the result of a decrease determined by the Department in the net loss incurred by a taxpayer in any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 2002 under Section 207 of this Act unless the Department has notified the taxpayer of the proposed decrease within 3 years after the return reporting the loss was filed or within one year after an amended return reporting an increase in the loss was filed, provided that in the case of an amended return, a decrease proposed by the Department more than 3 years after the original return was filed may not exceed the increase claimed by the taxpayer on the original return.

(Source: P.A. 102-40, eff. 6-25-21; revised 8-3-21.)

Section 50. The Local Government Revenue Recapture Act is amended by changing Sections 5-20 and 10-30 as follows:

(50 ILCS 355/5-20)

Sec. 5-20. Retention, collection, disclosure, and destruction of financial information.

(a) A third party in possession of a taxpayer's financial information must permanently destroy that financial information pursuant to this Act. The financial information shall be destroyed upon the soonest of the following to occur:

(1) if the taxpayer is not referred to the Department, within 30 days after receipt of the taxpayer's financial information from either the municipality or county, unless the third party is monitoring disbursements from the Department on an ongoing basis for a municipality or county, in which case, the financial information shall be destroyed no later than 3 years after receipt; or

(2) within 30 days after the Department receives a taxpayer audit referral from a third party referring the taxpayer to the Department for additional review.

(b) No third party in possession of financial information may sell, lease, trade, market, or otherwise utilize or profit from a taxpayer's financial information. The municipality or county may, however, negotiate a fee with the third party. The fee may be in the form of a contingency fee for a percentage of the amount of additional distributions the municipality or county receives for no more than 3 years following the first disbursement to the municipality or county as a result of the services of the third party under this Act.

(c) No third party may permanently or temporarily collect, capture, purchase, use, receive through trade, or otherwise retain a taxpayer's financial information beyond the scope of subsection (a) of this Section.

(d) No third party in possession of confidential information may disclose, redisclose, share, or otherwise disseminate a taxpayer's financial information.

(e) A third party must dispose of the materials containing financial information in a manner that renders the financial information unreadable, unusable, and undecipherable. Proper disposal methods include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) in the case of paper documents, burning, pulverizing, or shredding so that the information cannot practicably be read or reconstructed; and

(2) in the case of electronic media and other non-paper media containing information, destroying or erasing so that information cannot practicably be read, reconstructed, or otherwise utilized by the third party or others.

(Source: P.A. 101-628, eff. 6-1-20; 102-40, eff. 6-25-21; revised 8-3-21.)

(50 ILCS 355/10-30)

Sec. 10-30. Local government revenue recapture audit referral.

(a) A third party shall not refer a taxpayer to the Department for audit consideration unless the third party is registered with the Department pursuant to Section 5-35.

(b) If, based on a review of the financial information provided by the Department to a municipality or county, or provided by a municipality or county to a registered third party, the municipality or county discovers that a taxpayer may have underpaid local retailers' or service occupation taxes, then it may refer the matter to the Department for audit consideration. The tax compliance referral may be made only by the municipality, county, or third party and shall be made in the form and manner required by the Department, including any requirement that the referral be submitted electronically. The tax compliance referral shall, at a minimum, include proof of registration as a third party, a copy of a contract between the third party and the county or municipality, the taxpayer's name, Department account identification number, mailing address, and business location, and the specific reason for the tax compliance referral, including as much detail as possible.

(c) The Department shall complete its evaluation of all audit referrals under this Act within 90 days after receipt of the referral and shall handle all audit referrals as follows:

(1) the Department shall evaluate the referral to determine whether it is sufficient to warrant further action based on the information provided in the referral, any other information the Department possesses, and audit selection procedures of the Department;

(2) if the Department determines that the referral is not actionable, then the Department shall notify the local government that it has evaluated the referral and has determined that no action is deemed necessary and provide the local government with an explanation for that decision, including, but not limited to, an explanation that (i) the Department has previously conducted an audit; (ii) the Department is in the process of conducting an investigation or other examination of the taxpayer's records; (iii) the taxpayer has already been referred to the Department and the Department determined an audit referral is not actionable; (iv) the Department or a qualified practitioner has previously conducted an audit after referral under this Section 10-30; or (v) for just cause;

(3) if the Department determines that the referral is actionable, then it shall determine whether the taxpayer is currently under audit or scheduled for audit by the Department;

(A) if the taxpayer is not currently under audit by the Department or scheduled for audit by the Department, the Department shall determine whether it will schedule the taxpayer for audit; and

(B) if the taxpayer is not under audit by the Department and the Department decides under subparagraph (A) not to schedule the taxpayer for audit by the Department, then the Department shall notify the taxpayer that the Department has received an actionable audit referral on the taxpayer and issue a notice to the taxpayer as provided under subsection (d) of this Section.

(d) The notice to the taxpayer required by subparagraph (B) of paragraph (3) of subsection (c) shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) that the taxpayer must either: (A) engage a qualified practitioner, at the taxpayer's expense, to complete a certified audit, limited in scope to the taxpayer's Retailers' Occupation Tax, Use Tax, Service Occupation Tax, or Service Use Tax liability, and the taxpayer's liability for any local retailers' or service occupation tax administered by the Department; or (B) be subject to audit by the Department;

(2) that, as an incentive, for taxpayers who agree to the limited-scope certified audit, the Department shall abate penalties as provided in Section 10-20; and

(3) A statement that reads: "[INSERT THE NAME OF THE ELECTED CHIEF EXECUTIVE OF THE CORPORATE AUTHORITY] has contracted with [INSERT THIRD PARTY] to review your Retailers' Occupation Tax, Use Tax, Service Occupation Tax, Service Use Tax, and any local retailers' or service occupation taxes reported to the Illinois Department of Revenue ("Department"). [INSERT THE NAME OF THE ELECTED CHIEF EXECUTIVE OF THE CORPORATE AUTHORITY] and [INSERT THE THIRD PARTY] have selected and referred your business to the Department for a certified audit of your Retailers' Occupation Tax, Use Tax, Service Occupation Tax, Service Use Tax, and any local retailers' or service occupation taxes reported to the Department pursuant to the Local Government Revenue Recapture Act. The purpose of the audit is to verify that your business reported and submitted the proper Retailers' Occupation Tax, Use Tax, Service Occupation Tax, Service Use Tax, and any local retailers' or service occupation taxes administered by the Department. The Department is required to disclose your confidential financial information to [INSERT THE NAME OF THE ELECTED CHIEF EXECUTIVE OF THE CORPORATE AUTHORITY] and [INSERT THE THIRD PARTY]. Additional information can be accessed from the Department's website and publications for a basic overview of your rights as a Taxpayer. If you have questions regarding your business's referral to the Department for audit, please contact [CORPORATE AUTHORITY'S] mayor, village president, or any other person serving as [CORPORATE AUTHORITY'S] chief executive officer or chief financial officer. [INSERT THIRD PARTY] is prohibited from discussing this matter with you directly or indirectly in any manner regardless of who initiates the contact. If [INSERT THIRD PARTY] contacts you, please contact the Department.".

(e) Within 90 days after notice by the Department, the taxpayer must respond by stating in writing whether it will or will not arrange for the performance of a certified audit under this Act. If the taxpayer states that it will arrange for the performance of a certified audit, then it must do so within 60 days after responding to the Department or within 90 days after notice by the Department, whichever comes first. If the taxpayer states that it will not arrange for the performance of a certified audit or if the taxpayer does not arrange for the performance of a certified audit within 180 days after notice by the Department, then the Department may schedule the taxpayer for audit by the Department.

(f) The certified audit must not be a contingent-fee engagement and must be completed in accordance with this Article 10.

(Source: P.A. 101-628, eff. 6-1-20; 102-40, eff. 6-25-21; revised 8-3-21.)

Section 55. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/6) (from Ch. 85, par. 506)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 6. Powers and duties of the Board; selection and certification of schools. The Board shall select and certify schools within the State of Illinois for the purpose of providing basic training for probationary police officers, probationary county corrections officers, and court security officers and of providing advanced or in-service training for permanent police officers or permanent county corrections officers, which schools may be either publicly or privately owned and operated. In addition, the Board has the following power and duties:

a. To require local governmental units to furnish such reports and information as the Board deems necessary to fully implement this Act.

b. To establish appropriate mandatory minimum standards relating to the training of probationary local law enforcement officers or probationary county corrections officers, and in-service training of permanent police officers.

c. To provide appropriate certification to those probationary officers who successfully complete the prescribed minimum standard basic training course.

d. To review and approve annual training curriculum for county sheriffs.

e. To review and approve applicants to ensure that no applicant is admitted to a certified academy unless the applicant is a person of good character and has not been convicted of, or entered a plea of guilty to, a felony offense, any of the misdemeanors in Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14, 11-17, 11-19, 12-2, 12-15, 16-1, 17-1, 17-2, 28-3, 29-1, 31-1, 31-6, 31-7, 32-4a, or 32-7 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 5 or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control Act, or a crime involving moral turpitude under the laws of this State or any other state which if committed in this State would be punishable as a felony or a crime of moral turpitude. The Board may appoint investigators who shall enforce the duties conferred upon the Board by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-187, eff. 1-1-20.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652, Article 10, Section 10-143 but before amendment by P.A. 101-652, Article 25, Section 25-40)

Sec. 6. Powers and duties of the Board; selection and certification of schools. The Board shall select and certify schools within the State of Illinois for the purpose of providing basic training for probationary police officers, probationary county corrections officers, and court security officers and of providing advanced or in-service training for permanent police officers or permanent county corrections officers, which schools may be either publicly or privately owned and operated. In addition, the Board has the following power and duties:

a. To require local governmental units to furnish such reports and information as the Board deems necessary to fully implement this Act.

b. To establish appropriate mandatory minimum standards relating to the training of probationary local law enforcement officers or probationary county corrections officers, and in-service training of permanent police officers.

c. To provide appropriate certification to those probationary officers who successfully complete the prescribed minimum standard basic training course.

d. To review and approve annual training curriculum for county sheriffs.

e. To review and approve applicants to ensure that no applicant is admitted to a certified academy unless the applicant is a person of good character and has not been convicted of, or entered a plea of guilty to, a felony offense, any of the misdemeanors in Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14, 11-17, 11-19, 12-2, 12-15, 16-1, 17-1, 17-2, 28-3, 29-1, 31-1, 31-6, 31-7, 32-4a, or 32-7 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 5 or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control Act, or a crime involving moral turpitude under the laws of this State or any other state which if committed in this State would be punishable as a felony or a crime of moral turpitude. The Board may appoint investigators who shall enforce the duties conferred upon the Board by this Act.

f. To establish statewide standards for minimum standards regarding regular mental health screenings for probationary and permanent police officers, ensuring that counseling sessions and screenings remain confidential.

(Source: P.A. 101-187, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, Article 10, Section 10-143, eff. 7-1-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652, Article 25, Section 25-40)

Sec. 6. Powers and duties of the Board; selection and certification of schools. The Board shall select and certify schools within the State of Illinois for the purpose of providing basic training for probationary law enforcement officers, probationary county corrections officers, and court security officers and of providing advanced or in-service training for permanent law enforcement officers or permanent county corrections officers, which schools may be either publicly or privately owned and operated. In addition, the Board has the following power and duties:

a. To require local governmental units, to furnish such reports and information as the Board deems necessary to fully implement this Act.

b. To establish appropriate mandatory minimum standards relating to the training of probationary local law enforcement officers or probationary county corrections officers, and in-service training of permanent law enforcement officers.

c. To provide appropriate certification to those probationary officers who successfully complete the prescribed minimum standard basic training course.

d. To review and approve annual training curriculum for county sheriffs.

e. To review and approve applicants to ensure that no applicant is admitted to a certified academy unless the applicant is a person of good character and has not been convicted of, found guilty of, or entered a plea of guilty to, or entered a plea of nolo contendere to a felony offense, any of the misdemeanors in Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9.1, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-30, 12-2, 12-3.2, 12-3.5, 16-1, 17-1, 17-2, 26.5-1, 26.5-2, 26.5-3, 28-3, 29-1, any misdemeanor in violation of any Section of Part E of Title III of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 5 or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control Act, or a crime involving moral turpitude under the laws of this State or any other state which if committed in this State would be punishable as a felony or a crime of moral turpitude, or any felony or misdemeanor in violation of federal law or the law of any state that is the equivalent of any of the offenses specified therein. The Board may appoint investigators who shall enforce the duties conferred upon the Board by this Act.

For purposes of this paragraph e, a person is considered to have been convicted of, found guilty of, or entered a plea of guilty to, plea of nolo contendere to regardless of whether the adjudication of guilt or sentence is withheld or not entered thereon. This includes sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, or any similar disposition provided for by law.

f. To establish statewide standards for minimum standards regarding regular mental health screenings for probationary and permanent police officers, ensuring that counseling sessions and screenings remain confidential.

f. For purposes of this paragraph (e), a person is considered to have been "convicted of, found guilty of, or entered a plea of guilty to, plea of nolo contendere to" regardless of whether the adjudication of guilt or sentence is withheld or not entered thereon. This includes sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, or any similar disposition provided for by law.

g. To review and ensure all law enforcement officers remain in compliance with this Act, and any administrative rules adopted under this Act.

h. To suspend any certificate for a definite period, limit or restrict any certificate, or revoke any certificate.

i. The Board and the Panel shall have power to secure by its subpoena and bring before it any person or entity in this State and to take testimony either orally or by deposition or both with the same fees and mileage and in the same manner as prescribed by law in judicial proceedings in civil cases in circuit courts of this State. The Board and the Panel shall also have the power to subpoena the production of documents, papers, files, books, documents, and records, whether in physical or electronic form, in support of the charges and for defense, and in connection with a hearing or investigation.

j. The Executive Director, the administrative law judge designated by the Executive Director, and each member of the Board and the Panel shall have the power to administer oaths to witnesses at any hearing that the Board is authorized to conduct under this Act and any other oaths required or authorized to be administered by the Board under this Act.

k. In case of the neglect or refusal of any person to obey a subpoena issued by the Board and the Panel, any circuit court, upon application of the Board and the Panel, through the Illinois Attorney General, may order such person to appear before the Board and the Panel give testimony or produce evidence, and any failure to obey such order is punishable by the court as a contempt thereof. This order may be served by personal delivery, by email, or by mail to the address of record or email address of record.

l. The Board shall have the power to administer state certification examinations. Any and all records related to these examinations, including, but not limited to, test questions, test formats, digital files, answer responses, answer keys, and scoring information shall be exempt from disclosure.

(Source: P.A. 101-187, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, Article 10, Section 10-143, eff. 7-1-21; 101-652, Article 25, Section 25-40, eff. 1-1-22; revised 4-26-21.)

Section 60. The Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act is amended by changing Section 10-20 as follows:

(50 ILCS 706/10-20)

Sec. 10-20. Requirements.

(a) The Board shall develop basic guidelines for the use of officer-worn body cameras by law enforcement agencies. The guidelines developed by the Board shall be the basis for the written policy which must be adopted by each law enforcement agency which employs the use of officer-worn body cameras. The written policy adopted by the law enforcement agency must include, at a minimum, all of the following:

(1) Cameras must be equipped with pre-event recording, capable of recording at least the 30 seconds prior to camera activation, unless the officer-worn body camera was purchased and acquired by the law enforcement agency prior to July 1, 2015.

(2) Cameras must be capable of recording for a period of 10 hours or more, unless the officer-worn body camera was purchased and acquired by the law enforcement agency prior to July 1, 2015.

(3) Cameras must be turned on at all times when the officer is in uniform and is responding to calls for service or engaged in any law enforcement-related encounter or activity, that occurs while the officer is on duty.

(A) If exigent circumstances exist which prevent the camera from being turned on, the camera must be turned on as soon as practicable.

(B) Officer-worn body cameras may be turned off when the officer is inside of a patrol car which is equipped with a functioning in-car camera; however, the officer must turn on the camera upon exiting the patrol vehicle for law enforcement-related encounters.

(C) Officer-worn body cameras may be turned off when the officer is inside a correctional facility or courthouse which is equipped with a functioning camera system.

(4) Cameras must be turned off when:

(A) the victim of a crime requests that the camera be turned off, and unless impractical or impossible, that request is made on the recording;

(B) a witness of a crime or a community member who wishes to report a crime requests that the camera be turned off, and unless impractical or impossible that request is made on the recording;

(C) the officer is interacting with a confidential informant used by the law enforcement agency; or

(D) an officer of the Department of Revenue enters a Department of Revenue facility or conducts an interview during which return information will be discussed or visible.

However, an officer may continue to record or resume recording a victim or a witness, if exigent circumstances exist, or if the officer has reasonable articulable suspicion that a victim or witness, or confidential informant has committed or is in the process of committing a crime. Under these circumstances, and unless impractical or impossible, the officer must indicate on the recording the reason for continuing to record despite the request of the victim or witness.

(4.5) Cameras may be turned off when the officer is engaged in community caretaking functions. However, the camera must be turned on when the officer has reason to believe that the person on whose behalf the officer is performing a community caretaking function has committed or is in the process of committing a crime. If exigent circumstances exist which prevent the camera from being turned on, the camera must be turned on as soon as practicable.

(5) The officer must provide notice of recording to any person if the person has a reasonable expectation of privacy and proof of notice must be evident in the recording. If exigent circumstances exist which prevent the officer from providing notice, notice must be provided as soon as practicable.

(6) (A) For the purposes of redaction, labeling, or duplicating recordings, access to camera recordings shall be restricted to only those personnel responsible for those purposes. The recording officer or his or her supervisor may not redact, label, duplicate or otherwise alter the recording officer's camera recordings. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the recording officer and his or her supervisor may access and review recordings prior to completing incident reports or other documentation, provided that the supervisor discloses that fact in the report or documentation.

(i) A law enforcement officer shall not have access to or review his or her body-worn camera recordings or the body-worn camera recordings of another officer prior to completing incident reports or other documentation when the officer:

(a) has been involved in or is a witness to an officer-involved shooting, use of deadly force incident, or use of force incidents resulting in great bodily harm;

(b) is ordered to write a report in response to or during the investigation of a misconduct complaint against the officer.

(ii) If the officer subject to subparagraph (i) prepares a report, any report shall be prepared without viewing body-worn camera recordings, and subject to supervisor's approval, officers may file amendatory reports after viewing body-worn camera recordings. Supplemental reports under this provision shall also contain documentation regarding access to the video footage.

(B) The recording officer's assigned field training officer may access and review recordings for training purposes. Any detective or investigator directly involved in the investigation of a matter may access and review recordings which pertain to that investigation but may not have access to delete or alter such recordings.

(7) Recordings made on officer-worn cameras must be retained by the law enforcement agency or by the camera vendor used by the agency, on a recording medium for a period of 90 days.

(A) Under no circumstances shall any recording, except for a non-law enforcement related activity or encounter, made with an officer-worn body camera be altered, erased, or destroyed prior to the expiration of the 90-day storage period. In the event any recording made with an officer-worn body camera is altered, erased, or destroyed prior to the expiration of the 90-day storage period, the law enforcement agency shall maintain, for a period of one year, a written record including (i) the name of the individual who made such alteration, erasure, or destruction, and (ii) the reason for any such alteration, erasure, or destruction.

(B) Following the 90-day storage period, any and all recordings made with an officer-worn body camera must be destroyed, unless any encounter captured on the recording has been flagged. An encounter is deemed to be flagged when:

(i) a formal or informal complaint has been filed;

(ii) the officer discharged his or her firearm or used force during the encounter;

(iii) death or great bodily harm occurred to any person in the recording;

(iv) the encounter resulted in a detention or an arrest, excluding traffic stops which resulted in only a minor traffic offense or business offense;

(v) the officer is the subject of an internal investigation or otherwise being investigated for possible misconduct;

(vi) the supervisor of the officer, prosecutor, defendant, or court determines that the encounter has evidentiary value in a criminal prosecution; or

(vii) the recording officer requests that the video be flagged for official purposes related to his or her official duties.

(C) Under no circumstances shall any recording made with an officer-worn body camera relating to a flagged encounter be altered or destroyed prior to 2 years after the recording was flagged. If the flagged recording was used in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, the recording shall not be destroyed except upon a final disposition and order from the court.

(8) Following the 90-day storage period, recordings may be retained if a supervisor at the law enforcement agency designates the recording for training purposes. If the recording is designated for training purposes, the recordings may be viewed by officers, in the presence of a supervisor or training instructor, for the purposes of instruction, training, or ensuring compliance with agency policies.

(9) Recordings shall not be used to discipline law enforcement officers unless:

(A) a formal or informal complaint of misconduct has been made;

(B) a use of force incident has occurred;

(C) the encounter on the recording could result in a formal investigation under the Uniform Peace Officers' Disciplinary Act; or

(D) as corroboration of other evidence of misconduct.

Nothing in this paragraph (9) shall be construed to limit or prohibit a law enforcement officer from being subject to an action that does not amount to discipline.

(10) The law enforcement agency shall ensure proper care and maintenance of officer-worn body cameras. Upon becoming aware, officers must as soon as practical document and notify the appropriate supervisor of any technical difficulties, failures, or problems with the officer-worn body camera or associated equipment. Upon receiving notice, the appropriate supervisor shall make every reasonable effort to correct and repair any of the officer-worn body camera equipment.

(11) No officer may hinder or prohibit any person, not a law enforcement officer, from recording a law enforcement officer in the performance of his or her duties in a public place or when the officer has no reasonable expectation of privacy. The law enforcement agency's written policy shall indicate the potential criminal penalties, as well as any departmental discipline, which may result from unlawful confiscation or destruction of the recording medium of a person who is not a law enforcement officer. However, an officer may take reasonable action to maintain safety and control, secure crime scenes and accident sites, protect the integrity and confidentiality of investigations, and protect the public safety and order.

(b) Recordings made with the use of an officer-worn body camera are not subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, except that:

(1) if the subject of the encounter has a reasonable expectation of privacy, at the time of the recording, any recording which is flagged, due to the filing of a complaint, discharge of a firearm, use of force, arrest or detention, or resulting death or bodily harm, shall be disclosed in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act if:

(A) the subject of the encounter captured on the recording is a victim or witness; and

(B) the law enforcement agency obtains written permission of the subject or the subject's legal representative;

(2) except as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), any recording which is flagged due to the filing of a complaint, discharge of a firearm, use of force, arrest or detention, or resulting death or bodily harm shall be disclosed in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act; and

(3) upon request, the law enforcement agency shall disclose, in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act, the recording to the subject of the encounter captured on the recording or to the subject's attorney, or the officer or his or her legal representative.

For the purposes of paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), the subject of the encounter does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy if the subject was arrested as a result of the encounter. For purposes of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), "witness" does not include a person who is a victim or who was arrested as a result of the encounter.

Only recordings or portions of recordings responsive to the request shall be available for inspection or reproduction. Any recording disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act shall be redacted to remove identification of any person that appears on the recording and is not the officer, a subject of the encounter, or directly involved in the encounter. Nothing in this subsection (b) shall require the disclosure of any recording or portion of any recording which would be exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall limit access to a camera recording for the purposes of complying with Supreme Court rules or the rules of evidence.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; revised 7-30-21.)

Section 65. The Emergency Telephone System Act is amended by changing Section 11.5 as follows:

(50 ILCS 750/11.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 11.5. Aggregator and originating service provider responsibilities.

(a) Each aggregator, and the originating service providers whose 9-1-1 calls are being aggregated by the aggregator, shall comply with their respective requirements in 83 Ill. Adm. Code Part 725.410.

(b) Beginning July 1, 2021, each aggregator that is operating within the State must email the Office of the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator to provide the following information that supports the implementation of and the migration to the Statewide NG9-1-1 system:

(1) A company 9-1-1 contact, address, email, and phone number.

(2) A list of originating service providers that the aggregator transports 9-1-1 calls for and then to the appropriate 9-1-1 system provider. New or current aggregators must update the required information within 30 days of implementing any changes in information required by this subsection.

(c) Each aggregator shall establish procedures for receiving No Record Found errors from the 9-1-1 System Provider, identifying the originating service provider who delivered the call to the aggregator, and referring the No Record Found errors to that originating service provider.

(d) Each originating service provider shall establish procedures with the 9-1-1 system provider for preventing and resolving No Record Found errors in the 9-1-1 database and make every effort to ensure 9-1-1 calls are sent to the appropriate public safety answering point.

(e) If a 9-1-1 system is being transitioned to NG9-1-1 service or to a new provider, each aggregator shall be responsible for coordinating any modifications that are needed to ensure that the originating service provider provides the required level of service to its customers. Each aggregator shall coordinate those network changes or additions for those migrations in a timely manner with the appropriate 9-1-1 system provider who shall be managing its respective implementation schedule and cut over. Each aggregator shall send notice to its originating service provider customers of the aggregator's successful turn up of the network changes or additions supporting the migration and include the necessary information for the originating service provider's migration (such as public safety answering point name, Federal Communications Commission Identification, and Emergency Services Routing Number). The notice shall be provided to the originating service providers within 2 weeks of acceptance testing and conversion activities between the aggregator and the 9-1-1 system provider.

(f) The 9-1-1 system provider shall coordinate directly with the originating service providers (unless the aggregator separately agrees to coordinate with the originating service providers) for migration, but in no case shall that migration exceed 30 days after receipt of notice from the aggregator, unless agreed to by the originating service provider and 9-1-1 system provider.

(g) Each aggregator shall coordinate test calls with the 9-1-1 system provider and the 9-1-1 Authority when turning up new circuits or making network changes. Each originating service provider shall perform testing of its network and provisioning upon notification from the aggregator that the network has been tested and accepted with the 9-1-1 system provider.

(h) Each aggregator and originating service provider customer shall deliver all 9-1-1 calls, audio, data, and location to the 9-1-1 system at a location determined by the State.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 70. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 2-3003 and 2-4006.5 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/2-3003) (from Ch. 34, par. 2-3003)

Sec. 2-3003. Apportionment plan.

(1) If the county board determines that members shall be elected by districts, it shall develop an apportionment plan and specify the number of districts and the number of county board members to be elected from each district and whether voters will have cumulative voting rights in multi-member districts. Each such district:

a. Shall be substantially equal in population to each other district;

b. Shall be comprised of contiguous territory, as nearly compact as practicable; and

c. May divide townships or municipalities only when necessary to conform to the population requirement of paragraph a. of this Section; and .

d. Shall be created in such a manner so that no precinct shall be divided between 2 or more districts, insofar as is practicable.

(2) The county board of each county having a population of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants may, if it should so decide, provide within that county for single-member single member districts outside the corporate limits and multi-member districts within the corporate limits of any municipality with a population in excess of 75,000. Paragraphs a, b, c, and d of subsection (1) of this Section shall apply to the apportionment of both single-member single and multi-member districts within a county to the extent that compliance with paragraphs a, b, c, and d still permit the establishment of such districts, except that the population of any multi-member district shall be equal to the population of any single-member single member district, times the number of members found within that multi-member district.

(3) In a county where the Chairman of the County Board is elected by the voters of the county as provided in Section 2-3007, the Chairman of the County Board may develop and present to the Board by the third Wednesday in May in the year after a federal decennial census year an apportionment plan in accordance with the provisions of subsection (1) of this Section. If the Chairman presents a plan to the Board by the third Wednesday in May, the Board shall conduct at least one public hearing to receive comments and to discuss the apportionment plan, the hearing shall be held at least 6 days but not more than 21 days after the Chairman's plan was presented to the Board, and the public shall be given notice of the hearing at least 6 days in advance. If the Chairman presents a plan by the third Wednesday in May, the Board is prohibited from enacting an apportionment plan until after a hearing on the plan presented by the Chairman. The Chairman shall have access to the federal decennial census available to the Board.

(4) In a county where a County Executive is elected by the voters of the county as provided in Section 2-5007 of this the Counties Code, the County Executive may develop and present to the Board by the third Wednesday in May in the year after a federal decennial census year an apportionment plan in accordance with the provisions of subsection (1) of this Section. If the Executive presents a plan to the Board by the third Wednesday in May, the Board shall conduct at least one public hearing to receive comments and to discuss the apportionment plan, the hearing shall be held at least 6 days but not more than 21 days after the Executive's plan was presented to the Board, and the public shall be given notice of the hearing at least 6 days in advance. If the Executive presents a plan by the third Wednesday in May, the Board is prohibited from enacting an apportionment plan until after a hearing on the plan presented by the Executive. The Executive shall have access to the federal decennial census available to the Board.

(5) For the reapportionment of 2021, the Chairman of the County Board or County Executive may develop and present (or redevelop and represent) to the Board by the third Wednesday in November in the year after a federal decennial census year an apportionment plan and the Board shall conduct its public hearing as provided in paragraphs (3) and (4) following receipt of the apportionment plan.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-15-21.)

(55 ILCS 5/2-4006.5)

Sec. 2-4006.5. Commissioners in certain counties.

(a) If a county elects 3 commissioners at large under Section 2-4006, registered voters of such county may, by a vote of a majority of those voting on such proposition, determine to change the method of electing the board of county commissioners by electing either 3 or 5 members from single-member single member districts. In order for such question to be placed upon the ballot, such petition must contain the signatures of not fewer than 10% of the registered voters of such county.

Commissioners may not be elected from single-member single member districts until the question of electing either 3 or 5 commissioners from single-member single member districts has been submitted to the electors of the county at a regular election and approved by a majority of the electors voting on the question. The commissioners must certify the question to the proper election authority, which must submit the question at an election in accordance with the Election Code.

The question must be in substantially the following form:

Shall the board of county commissioners of (name of county) consist of (insert either 3 or 5) commissioners elected from single-member single member districts?

The votes must be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, a 3-member or 5-member board of county commissioners, as the case may be, shall be established to be elected from single-member single member districts.

(b) If the voters of the county decide to elect either 3 or 5 commissioners from single-member single member districts, the board of county commissioners shall on or before August 31 of the year following the 2000 federal decennial census divide the county into either 3 or 5 compact and contiguous county commission districts that are substantially equal in population. On or before May 31 of the year following each federal decennial census thereafter, the board of county commissioners shall reapportion the county commission districts to be compact, contiguous, and substantially equal in population.

(c) The commissioners elected at large at or before the general election in 2000 shall continue to serve until the expiration of their terms. Of those commissioners, the commissioner whose term expires in 2002 shall be assigned to district 1; the commissioner whose term expires in 2004 shall be assigned to district 2; and the commissioner whose term expires in 2006 shall be assigned to district 3.

(d) If the voters of the county decide to elect 5 commissioners from single-member single member districts, at the general election in 2002, one commissioner from and residing in each of districts 1, 4, and 5 shall be elected. At the general election in 2004, one commissioner from and residing in each of districts 1, 2, and 5 shall be elected. At the general election in 2006, one commissioner from and residing in each of districts 2, 3, and 4 shall be elected. At the general election in 2008, one commissioner from and residing in each of districts 1, 3, and 5 shall be elected. At the general election in 2010, one commissioner from each of districts 2 and 4 shall be elected. At the general election in 2012, commissioners from and residing in each district shall be elected. Thereafter, commissioners shall be elected at each general election to fill expired terms. Each commissioner must reside in the district that he or she represents from the time that he or she files his or her nomination papers until his or her term expires.

In the year following the decennial census of 2010 and every 10 years thereafter, the commissioners, publicly by lot, shall divide the districts into 2 groups. One group shall serve terms of 4 years, 4 years, and 2 years and one group shall serve terms of 2 years, 4 years, and 4 years.

(Source: P.A. 91-846, eff. 6-22-00; 92-189, eff. 8-1-01; revised 7-15-21.)

Section 75. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 5-2-2, 5-2-18.1, 11-5.1-2, and 11-13-14 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/5-2-2) (from Ch. 24, par. 5-2-2)

Sec. 5-2-2. Except as otherwise provided in Section 5-2-3, the number of alderpersons, when not elected by the minority representation plan, shall be as follows: In cities not exceeding 3,000 inhabitants, 6 alderpersons; exceeding 3,000, but not exceeding 15,000, 8 alderpersons; exceeding 15,000 but not exceeding 20,000, 10 alderpersons; exceeding 20,000 but not exceeding 30,000, 14 alderpersons; and 2 additional alderpersons for every 20,000 inhabitants over 30,000. In all cities of less than 500,000, 20 alderpersons shall be the maximum number permitted except as otherwise provided in the case of alderpersons-at-large. No redistricting shall be required in order to reduce the number of alderpersons heretofore provided for. Two alderpersons shall be elected to represent each ward.

If it appears from any census specified in Section 5-2-5 and taken not earlier than 1940 that any city has the requisite number of inhabitants to authorize it to increase the number of alderpersons, the city council shall immediately proceed to redistrict the city in accordance with the provisions of Section 5-2-5, and it shall hold the next city election in accordance with the new redistricting. At this election the alderpersons whose terms of office are not expiring shall be considered alderpersons for the new wards respectively in which their residences are situated. At this election a candidate for alderperson may be elected from any ward that contains a part of the ward in which he or she resided at least one year next preceding the election that follows the redistricting, and, if elected, that person may be reelected from the new ward he or she represents if he or she resides in that ward for at least one year next preceding reelection. If there are 2 or more alderpersons with terms of office not expiring and residing in the same ward under the new redistricting, the alderperson who holds over for that ward shall be determined by lot in the presence of the city council, in whatever manner the council shall direct and all other alderpersons shall fill their unexpired terms as alderpersons-at-large. The alderpersons-at-large, if any, shall have the same power and duties as all other alderpersons but upon expiration of their terms the offices of alderpersons-at-large shall be abolished.

If the redistricting re-districting results in one or more wards in which no alderpersons reside whose terms of office have not expired, 2 alderpersons shall be elected in accordance with the provisions of Section 5-2-8.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-15-21.)

(65 ILCS 5/5-2-18.1) (from Ch. 24, par. 5-2-18.1)

Sec. 5-2-18.1. In any city or village which has adopted this Article and also has elected to choose alderpersons from wards or trustees from districts, as the case may be, a proposition to elect the city council at large shall be submitted to the electors in the manner herein provided.

Electors of such city or village, equal to not less than 10% of the total vote cast for all candidates for mayor or president in the last preceding municipal election for such office, may petition for the submission to a vote of the electors of that city or village the proposition whether the city council shall be elected at large. The petition shall be in the same form as prescribed in Section 5-1-6, except that said petition shall be modified as to the wording of the proposition to be voted upon to conform to the wording of the proposition as hereinafter set forth, and shall be filed with the city clerk in accordance with the general election law. The clerk shall certify the proposition to the proper election authorities who shall submit the proposition at an election in accordance with the general election law.

However, such proposition shall not be submitted at the general primary election for the municipality.

The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

-------------------------------------------------------------

Shall the city (or village) of .... elect the city council at YES large instead of alderpersons ------------------------

(or trustees) from wards (or NO districts)?

-------------------------------------------------------------

If a majority of those voting on the proposition vote "yes", then the city council shall be elected at large at the next general municipal election and the provisions of Section 5-2-12 shall be applicable. Upon the election and qualification of such councilmen council men or trustees, the terms of all sitting alderpersons shall expire.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-15-21.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-5.1-2)

Sec. 11-5.1-2. Military equipment surplus program.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

"Bayonet" means large knives designed to be attached to the muzzle of a rifle, shotgun, or long gun for the purposes of hand-to-hand combat.

"Grenade launcher" means a firearm or firearm accessory used to launch fragmentary explosive rounds designed to inflict death or cause great bodily harm.

"Military equipment surplus program" means any federal or state program allowing a law enforcement agency to obtain surplus military equipment, including, but not limited limit to, any program organized under Section 1122 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994 (Pub. L. 103-160) or Section 1033 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1997 (Pub. L. 104-201) or any program established by the United States Department of Defense under 10 U.S.C. 2576a.

"Tracked armored vehicle" means a vehicle that provides ballistic protection to its occupants and utilizes a tracked system instead of wheels for forward motion not including vehicles listed in the Authorized Equipment List as published by the Federal Emergency Management Agency.

"Weaponized aircraft, vessels, or vehicles" means any aircraft, vessel, or vehicle with weapons installed.

(b) A police department shall not request or receive from any military equipment surplus program nor purchase or otherwise utilize the following equipment:

(1) tracked armored vehicles;

(2) weaponized aircraft, vessels, or vehicles;

(3) firearms of .50-caliber or higher;

(4) ammunition of .50-caliber or higher;

(5) grenade launchers, grenades, or similar explosives; or

(6) bayonets.

(c) A home rule municipality may not regulate the acquisition of equipment in a manner inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule municipalities of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(d) If a police department requests other property not prohibited from a military equipment surplus program, the police department shall publish notice of the request on a publicly accessible website maintained by the police department or the municipality within 14 days after the request.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; revised 7-30-21.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-13-14) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-13-14)

Sec. 11-13-14. The regulations imposed and the districts created under the authority of this Division 13 may be amended from time to time by ordinance after the ordinance establishing them has gone into effect, but no such amendments shall be made without a hearing before some commission or committee designated by the corporate authorities. Notice shall be given of the time and place of the hearing, not more than 30 nor less than 15 days before the hearing, by publishing a notice thereof at least once in one or more newspapers published in the municipality, or, if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the municipality. In municipalities with less than 500 population in which no newspaper is published, publication may be made instead by posting a notice in 3 prominent places within the municipality. In case of a written protest against any proposed amendment of the regulations or districts, signed and acknowledged by the owners of 20% of the frontage proposed to be altered, or by the owners of 20% of the frontage immediately adjoining or across an alley therefrom, or by the owners of the 20% of the frontage directly opposite the frontage proposed to be altered, is filed with the clerk of the municipality, the amendment shall not be passed except by a favorable vote of two-thirds of the alderpersons or trustees of the municipality then holding office. In such cases, a copy of the written protest shall be served by the protestor or protestors on the applicant for the proposed amendments and a copy upon the applicant's attorney, if any, by certified mail at the address of such applicant and attorney shown in the application for the proposed amendment. Any notice required by this Section need not include a metes and bounds legal description, provided that the notice includes: (i) the common street address or addresses and (ii) the property index number ("PIN") or numbers of all the parcels of real property contained in the affected area.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-15-21.)

Section 80. The Revised Cities and Villages Act of 1941 is amended by changing Section 21-25 as follows:

(65 ILCS 20/21-25) (from Ch. 24, par. 21-25)

Sec. 21-25. Times for elections.) General elections for alderpersons shall be held in the year or years fixed by law for holding the same, on the last Tuesday of February of such year. Any supplementary election for alderpersons held under the provisions of this Article shall be held on the first Tuesday of April next following the holding of such general election of alderpersons.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-14-21.)

Section 85. The Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act is amended by changing Section 5.6 as follows:

(70 ILCS 210/5.6)

Sec. 5.6. Marketing agreement.

(a) The Authority shall enter into a marketing agreement with a not-for-profit organization headquartered in Chicago and recognized by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity as a certified local tourism and convention bureau entitled to receive State tourism grant funds, provided the bylaws of the organization establish a board of the organization that is comprised of 35 members serving 3-year staggered terms, including the following:

(1) no less than 8 members appointed by the Mayor of Chicago, to include:

(A) a Chair of the board of the organization appointed by the Mayor of the City of Chicago from among the business and civic leaders of Chicago who are not engaged in the hospitality business or who have not served as a member of the Board or as chief executive officer of the Authority; and

(B) 7 members from among the cultural, economic development, or civic leaders of Chicago;

(2) the chairperson of the interim board or Board of the Authority, or his or her designee;

(3) a representative from the department in the City of Chicago that is responsible for the operation of Chicago-area airports;

(4) a representative from the department in the City of Chicago that is responsible for the regulation of Chicago-area livery vehicles;

(5) at least 1, but no more than:

(A) 2 members from the hotel industry;

(B) 2 members representing Chicago arts and cultural institutions or projects;

(C) 2 members from the restaurant industry;

(D) 2 members employed by or representing an entity responsible for a trade show;

(E) 2 members representing unions;

(F) 2 members from the attractions industry; and

(6) 7 members appointed by the Governor, including the Director of the Illinois Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, ex officio, as well as 3 members from the hotel industry and 3 members representing Chicago arts and cultural institutions or projects.

The bylaws of the organization may provide for the appointment of a City of Chicago alderperson as an ex officio member, and may provide for other ex officio members who shall serve terms of one year.

Persons with a real or apparent conflict of interest shall not be appointed to the board. Members of the board of the organization shall not serve more than 2 terms. The bylaws shall require the following: (i) that the Chair of the organization name no less than 5 and no more than 9 members to the Executive Committee of the organization, one of whom must be the chairperson of the interim board or Board of the Authority, and (ii) a provision concerning conflict of interest and a requirement that a member abstain from participating in board action if there is a threat to the independence of judgment created by any conflict of interest or if participation is likely to have a negative effect on public confidence in the integrity of the board.

(b) The Authority shall notify the Department of Revenue within 10 days after entering into a contract pursuant to this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-17-21.)

Section 90. The School Code is amended by changing Section 1-3 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/1-3) (from Ch. 122, par. 1-3)

Sec. 1-3. Definitions. In this Code:

The terms "common schools", "free schools" and "public schools" are used interchangeably to apply to any school operated by authority of this Act.

"School board" means the governing body of any district created or operating under authority of this Code Act, including board of school directors and board of education. When the context so indicates it also means the governing body of any non-high school district and of any special charter district, including a board of school inspectors.

"Special charter district" means any city, township, or district organized into a school district, under a special Act or charter of the General Assembly or in which schools are now managed and operating within such unit in whole or in part under the terms of such special Act or charter.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 31; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 95. The Student-Athlete Endorsement Rights Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(110 ILCS 190/20)

Sec. 20. Agents; publicity rights; third party licensees.

(a) An agent, legal representative, or other professional service provider offering services to a student-athlete shall, to the extent required, comply with the federal Sports Agent Responsibility and Trust Act and any other applicable laws, rules, or regulations.

(b) A grant-in-aid, including cost of attendance, and other permissible financial aid, awards, or benefits from the postsecondary educational institution in which a student-athlete is enrolled shall not be revoked, reduced, nor the terms and conditions altered, as a result of a student-athlete earning compensation or obtaining professional or legal representation pursuant to this Act.

(c) A student-athlete shall disclose to the postsecondary educational institution in which the student is enrolled, in a manner and time prescribed by the institution, the existence and substance of all publicity rights agreements. Publicity rights agreements that contemplate cash or other compensation to the student-athlete that is equal to or in excess of a value of $500 shall be formalized in a written contract, and the contract shall be provided to the postsecondary educational institution in which the student is enrolled prior to the execution of the agreement and before any compensation is provided to the student-athlete.

(d) A student-athlete may not enter into a publicity rights agreement or otherwise receive compensation for that student-athlete's name, image, likeness, or voice for services rendered or performed while that student-athlete is participating in activities sanctioned by that student-athlete's postsecondary educational institution if such services or performance by the student-athlete would conflict with a provision in a contract, rule, regulation, standard, or other requirement of the postsecondary educational institution.

(e) No booster, third party licensee, or any other individual or entity, shall provide or directly or indirectly arrange for a third party to provide compensation to a prospective or current student-athlete or enter into, or directly or indirectly arrange for a third party to enter into, a publicity rights agreement as an inducement for the student-athlete to attend or enroll in a specific institution or group of institutions. Compensation for a student-athlete's name, image, likeness, or voice shall not be conditioned on athletic performance or attendance at a particular postsecondary educational institution.

(f) A postsecondary educational institution may fund an independent, third-party administrator to support education, monitoring, disclosures, and reporting concerning name, image, likeness, or voice activities by student-athletes authorized pursuant to this Act. A third-party administrator cannot be a registered athlete agent.

(g) No postsecondary educational institution shall provide or directly or indirectly arrange for a third party third-party to provide compensation to a prospective or current student-athlete or enter into, or directly or indirectly arrange for a third party to enter into, a publicity rights agreement with a prospective or current student-athlete.

(h) No student-athlete shall enter into a publicity rights agreement or receive compensation from a third party licensee relating to the name, image, likeness, or voice of the student-athlete before the date on which the student-athlete enrolls at a postsecondary educational institution.

(i) No student-athlete shall enter into a publicity rights agreement or receive compensation from a third party licensee for the endorsement or promotion of gambling, sports betting, controlled substances, cannabis, a tobacco or alcohol company, brand, or products, alternative or electronic nicotine product or delivery system, performance-enhancing supplements, adult entertainment, or any other product or service that is reasonably considered to be inconsistent with the values or mission of a postsecondary educational institution or that negatively impacts or reflects adversely on a postsecondary educational institution or its athletic programs, including, but not limited to, bringing about public disrepute, embarrassment, scandal, ridicule, or otherwise negatively impacting the reputation or the moral or ethical standards of the postsecondary educational institution.

(Source: P.A. 102-42, eff. 7-1-21; revised 8-3-21.)

Section 100. The Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Section 11.1 as follows:

(115 ILCS 5/11.1)

Sec. 11.1. Dues collection.

(a) Employers shall make payroll deductions of employee organization dues, initiation fees, assessments, and other payments for an employee organization that is the exclusive representative. Such deductions shall be made in accordance with the terms of an employee's written authorization and shall be paid to the exclusive representative. Written authorization may be evidenced by electronic communications, and such writing or communication may be evidenced by the electronic signature of the employee as provided under the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act.

There is no impediment to an employee's right to resign union membership at any time. However, notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary regarding authorization and deduction of dues or other payments to a labor organization, the exclusive representative and an educational employee may agree to reasonable limits on the right of the employee to revoke such authorization, including a period of irrevocability that exceeds one year. An authorization that is irrevocable for one year, which may be automatically renewed for successive annual periods in accordance with the terms of the authorization, and that contains at least an annual 10-day period of time during which the educational employee may revoke the authorization, shall be deemed reasonable. This Section shall apply to all claims that allege that an educational employer or employee organization has improperly deducted or collected dues from an employee without regard to whether the claims or the facts upon which they are based occurred before, on, or after December 20, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-620) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly and shall apply retroactively to the maximum extent permitted by law.

(b) Upon receiving written notice of the authorization, the educational employer must commence dues deductions as soon as practicable, but in no case later than 30 days after receiving notice from the employee organization. Employee deductions shall be transmitted to the employee organization no later than 10 days after they are deducted unless a shorter period is mutually agreed to.

(c) Deductions shall remain in effect until:

(1) the educational employer receives notice that an educational employee has revoked his or her authorization in writing in accordance with the terms of the authorization; or

(2) the individual educational employee is no longer employed by the educational employer in a bargaining unit position represented by the same exclusive representative; provided that if such employee is, within a period of one year, employed by the same educational employer in a position represented by the same employee organization, the right to dues deduction shall be automatically reinstated.

Nothing in this subsection prevents an employee from continuing to authorize payroll deductions when no longer represented by the exclusive representative that would receive those deductions.

Should the individual educational employee who has signed a dues deduction authorization card either be removed from an educational employer's payroll or otherwise placed on any type of involuntary or voluntary leave of absence, whether paid or unpaid, the employee's dues deduction shall be continued upon that employee's return to the payroll in a bargaining unit position represented by the same exclusive representative or restoration to active duty from such a leave of absence.

(d) Unless otherwise mutually agreed by the educational employer and the exclusive representative, employee requests to authorize, revoke, cancel, or change authorizations for payroll deductions for employee organizations shall be directed to the employee organization rather than to the educational employer. The employee organization shall be responsible for initially processing and notifying the educational employer of proper requests or providing proper requests to the employer. If the requests are not provided to the educational employer, the employer shall rely on information provided by the employee organization regarding whether deductions for an employee organization were properly authorized, revoked, canceled, or changed, and the employee organization shall indemnify the educational employer for any damages and reasonable costs incurred for any claims made by educational employees for deductions made in good faith reliance on that information.

(e) Upon receipt by the exclusive representative of an appropriate written authorization from an individual educational employee, written notice of authorization shall be provided to the educational employer and any authorized deductions shall be made in accordance with law. The employee organization shall indemnify the educational employer for any damages and reasonable costs incurred for any claims made by an educational employee for deductions made in good faith reliance on its notification.

(f) The failure of an educational employer to comply with the provisions of this Section shall be a violation of the duty to bargain and an unfair labor practice. Relief for the violation shall be reimbursement by the educational employer of dues that should have been deducted or paid based on a valid authorization given by the educational employee or employees. In addition, the provisions of a collective bargaining agreement that contain the obligations set forth in this Section may be enforced in accordance with Section 10.

(g) The Illinois Educational Labor Relations Board shall have exclusive jurisdiction over claims under Illinois law that allege an educational employer or employee organization has unlawfully deducted or collected dues from an educational employee in violation of this Act. The Board shall by rule require that in cases in which an educational employee alleges that an employee organization has unlawfully collected dues, the educational employer shall continue to deduct the employee's dues from the employee's pay, but shall transmit the dues to the Board for deposit in an escrow account maintained by the Board. If the exclusive representative maintains an escrow account for the purpose of holding dues to which an employee has objected, the employer shall transmit the entire amount of dues to the exclusive representative, and the exclusive representative shall hold in escrow the dues that the employer would otherwise have been required to transmit to the Board for escrow; provided that the escrow account maintained by the exclusive representative complies with rules adopted by the Board or that the collective bargaining agreement requiring the payment of the dues contains an indemnification provision for the purpose of indemnifying the employer with respect to the employer's transmission of dues to the exclusive representative.

(h) If a collective bargaining agreement that includes a dues deduction clause expires or continues in effect beyond its scheduled expiration date pending the negotiation of a successor agreement, then the employer shall continue to honor and abide by the dues deduction clause until a new agreement that includes a dues deduction clause is reached. Failure to honor and abide by the dues deduction clause for the benefit of any exclusive representative as set forth in this subsection (h) shall be a violation of the duty to bargain and an unfair labor practice. For the benefit of any successor exclusive representative certified under this Act, this provision shall be applicable, provided the successor exclusive representative presents the employer with employee written authorizations or certifications from the exclusive representative for the deduction of dues, assessments, and fees under this subsection (h).

(i)(1) If any clause, sentence, paragraph, or subdivision of this Section shall be adjudged by a court of competent jurisdiction to be unconstitutional or otherwise invalid, that judgment shall not affect, impair, or invalidate the remainder thereof, but shall be confined in its operation to the clause, sentence, paragraph, or subdivision of this Section directly involved in the controversy in which such judgment shall have been rendered.

(2) If any clause, sentence, paragraph, or part of a signed authorization for payroll deductions shall be adjudged by a court of competent jurisdiction to be unconstitutional or otherwise invalid, that judgment shall not affect, impair, or invalidate the remainder of the signed authorization, but shall be confined in its operation to the clause, sentence, paragraph, or part of the signed authorization directly involved in the controversy in which such judgment shall have been rendered.

(Source: P.A. 101-620, eff. 12-20-19; 102-38, eff. 6-25-21; revised 8-3-21.)

Section 105. The Savings Bank Act is amended by changing Section 6001 as follows:

(205 ILCS 205/6001) (from Ch. 17, par. 7306-1)

Sec. 6001. General provisions.

(a) No savings bank shall make any loan or investment authorized by this Article unless the savings bank first has determined that the type, amount, purpose, and repayment provisions of the loan or investment in relation to the borrower's or issuer's resources and credit standing support the reasonable belief that the loan or investment will be financially sound and will be repaid according to its terms and that the loan or investment is not otherwise unlawful.

(b) Each loan or investment that a savings bank makes or purchases, whether wholly or in part, must be adequately underwritten, reviewed periodically, and reserved against as necessary in accordance with its payment performance, all in accordance with the regulations and directives of the Commissioner.

(c) Every appraisal or reappraisal of property that a savings bank is required to make shall be made as follows:

(1) By an independent qualified appraiser, designated by the board of directors, who is properly licensed or certified by the entity authorized to govern his licensure or certification and who meets the requirements of the Appraisal Subcommittee and of the Federal Act.

(2) In the case of an insured or guaranteed loan, by any appraiser appointed by any lending, insuring, or guaranteeing agency of the United States or the State of Illinois that insures or guarantees the loan, wholly or in part.

(3) Each appraisal shall be in writing prepared at the request of the lender for the lender's use; disclose the market value of the security offered; contain sufficient information and data concerning the appraised property to substantiate the market value thereof; be certified and signed by the appraiser or appraisers; and state that the appraiser or appraisers have personally examined the described property. The appraisal shall be filed and preserved by the savings bank. In addition, the appraisal shall be prepared and reported in accordance with the Standards of Professional Practice and the ethical rules of the Appraisal Foundation as adopted and promulgated by the Appraisal Subcommittee.

(d) If appraisals of real estate securing a savings bank's loans are obtained as part of an examination by the Commissioner, the cost of those appraisals shall promptly be paid by the savings bank directly to the appraiser or appraisers.

(e) Any violation of this Article shall constitute an unsafe or unsound practice. Any person who knowingly violates any provision of this Article shall be subject to enforcement action or civil money penalties as provided for in this Act.

(f) For purposes of this Article, "underwriting" shall mean the process of compiling information to support a determination as to whether an investment or extension of credit shall be made by a savings bank. It shall include, but not be limited to, evaluating a borrower's creditworthiness, determination of the value of the underlying collateral, market factors, and the appropriateness of the investment or loan for the savings bank. Underwriting as used herein does not include the agreement to purchase unsold portions of public offerings of stocks or bonds as commonly used in corporate securities issuances and sales.

(g) For purposes of this Section, the following definitions shall apply:

(1) "Federal Act" means Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 and regulations adopted pursuant thereto.

(2) "Appraisal Subcommittee" means the designee of the heads of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3301 et seq.).

(3) "Appraisal Foundation" means the Appraisal Foundation that was incorporated as an Illinois not-for-profit corporation on November 30, 1987.

(Source: P.A. 90-665, eff. 7-30-98; revised 7-30-21.)

Section 110. The Illinois Credit Union Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(205 ILCS 305/20) (from Ch. 17, par. 4421)

Sec. 20. Election or appointment of officials.

(1) The credit union shall be directed by a board of directors consisting of no less than 7 in number, to be elected at the annual meeting by and from the members. Directors shall hold office until the next annual meeting, unless their terms are staggered. Upon amendment of its bylaws, a credit union may divide the directors into 2 or 3 classes with each class as nearly equal in number as possible. The term of office of the directors of the first class shall expire at the first annual meeting after their election, that of the second class shall expire at the second annual meeting after their election, and that of the third class, if any, shall expire at the third annual meeting after their election. At each annual meeting after the classification, the number of directors equal to the number of directors whose terms expire at the time of the meeting shall be elected to hold office until the second succeeding annual meeting if there are 2 classes or until the third succeeding annual meeting if there are 3 classes. A director shall hold office for the term for which he or she is elected and until his or her successor is elected and qualified.

(1.5) Except as provided in subsection (1.10), in all elections for directors, every member has the right to vote, in person, by proxy, or by secure electronic record if approved by the board of directors, the number of shares owned by him, or in the case of a member other than a natural person, the member's one vote, for as many persons as there are directors to be elected, or to cumulate such shares, and give one candidate as many votes as the number of directors multiplied by the number of his shares equals, or to distribute them on the same principle among as many candidates as he may desire and the directors shall not be elected in any other manner. Shares held in a joint account owned by more than one member may be voted by any one of the members, however, the number of cumulative votes cast may not exceed a total equal to the number of shares multiplied by the number of directors to be elected. A majority of the shares entitled to vote shall be represented either in person or by proxy for the election of directors. Each director shall wholly take and subscribe to an oath that he will diligently and honestly perform his duties in administering the affairs of the credit union, that while he may delegate to another the performance of those administrative duties he is not thereby relieved from his responsibility for their performance, that he will not knowingly violate or permit to be violated any law applicable to the credit union, and that he is the owner of at least one share of the credit union.

(1.10) Upon amendment of a credit union's bylaws approved by the members, in all elections for directors, every member who is a natural person shall have the right to cast one vote, regardless of the number of his or her shares, in person, by proxy, or by secure electronic record if approved by the board of directors, for as many persons as there are directors to be elected.

(1.15) If the board of directors has adopted a policy addressing age eligibility standards on voting, holding office, or petitioning the board, then a credit union may require (i) that members be at least 18 years of age by the date of the meeting in order to vote at meetings of the members, sign nominating petitions, or sign petitions requesting special meetings, and (ii) that members be at least 18 years of age by the date of election or appointment in order to hold elective or appointive office.

(2) The board of directors shall appoint from among the members of the credit union, a supervisory committee of not less than 3 members at the organization meeting and within 30 days following each annual meeting of the members for such terms as the bylaws provide. Members of the supervisory committee may, but need not be, on the board of directors, but shall not be officers of the credit union, members of the credit committee, or the credit manager if no credit committee has been appointed.

(3) The board of directors may appoint, from among the members of the credit union, a credit committee consisting of an odd number, not less than 3 for such terms as the bylaws provide. Members of the credit committee may, but need not be, directors or officers of the credit union, but shall not be members of the supervisory committee.

(4) The board of directors may appoint from among the members of the credit union a membership committee of one or more persons. If appointed, the committee shall act upon all applications for membership and submit a report of its actions to the board of directors at the next regular meeting for review. If no membership committee is appointed, credit union management shall act upon all applications for membership and submit a report of its actions to the board of directors at the next regular meeting for review.

(5) As used in this Section, "electronic" and "electronic record" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act. As used in this Section, "secured electronic record" means an electronic record that meets the criteria set forth in the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-38, eff. 6-25-21; revised 8-3-21.)

Section 115. The Illinois Community Reinvestment Act is amended by changing Section 35-1 as follows:

(205 ILCS 735/35-1)

Sec. 35-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the Illinois Community Reinvestment Act. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

(Source: P.A. 101-657, eff. 3-23-21; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 120. The Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 is amended by changing Section 5-112 as follows:

(210 ILCS 49/5-112)

Sec. 5-112. Bed reduction payments. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall make payments to facilities licensed under this Act for the purpose of reducing bed capacity and room occupancy. Facilities desiring to participate in these payments shall submit a proposal to the Department for review. In the proposal the facility shall detail the number of beds that are seeking to eliminate and the price they are requesting to eliminate those beds. The facility shall also detail in their proposal if the affected effected beds would reduce room occupancy from 3 or 4 beds to double occupancy or if is the bed elimination would create single occupancy. Priority will be given to proposals that eliminate the use of three-person or four-person occupancy rooms. Proposals shall be collected by the Department within a specific time period and the Department will negotiate all payments before making final awards to ensure that the funding appropriated is sufficient to fund the awards. Payments shall not be less than $25,000 per bed and proposals to eliminate beds that lead to single occupancy rooms shall receive an additional $10,000 per bed over and above any other negotiated bed elimination payment. Before a facility can receive payment under this Section, the facility must receive approval from the Department of Public Health for the permanent removal of the beds for which they are receiving payment. Payment for the elimination of the beds shall be made within 15 days of the facility notifying the Department of Public Health about the bed license elimination. Under no circumstances shall a facility be allowed to increase the capacity of a facility once payment has been received for the elimination of beds.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 125. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Sections 3.116, 3.117, and 3.117.5 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.116)

Sec. 3.116. Hospital Stroke Care; definitions. As used in Sections 3.116 through 3.119, 3.130, 3.200, and 3.226 of this Act:

"Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital" means a hospital that has been designated by the Department as meeting the criteria for providing emergent stroke care. Designation may be provided after a hospital has been certified or through application and designation as such.

"Certification" or "certified" means certification, using evidence-based standards, from a nationally recognized nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the Department.

"Comprehensive Stroke Center" means a hospital that has been certified and has been designated as such.

"Designation" or "designated" means the Department's recognition of a hospital as a Comprehensive Stroke Center, Primary Stroke Center, or Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital.

"Emergent stroke care" is emergency medical care that includes diagnosis and emergency medical treatment of acute stroke patients.

"Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital" means a hospital that has been designated by the Department as meeting the criteria for providing emergent stroke care.

"Primary Stroke Center" means a hospital that has been certified by a Department-approved, nationally recognized nationally-recognized certifying body and designated as such by the Department.

"Regional Stroke Advisory Subcommittee" means a subcommittee formed within each Regional EMS Advisory Committee to advise the Director and the Region's EMS Medical Directors Committee on the triage, treatment, and transport of possible acute stroke patients and to select the Region's representative to the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee. At minimum, the Regional Stroke Advisory Subcommittee shall consist of: one representative from the EMS Medical Directors Committee; one EMS coordinator from a Resource Hospital; one administrative representative or his or her designee from each level of stroke care, including Comprehensive Stroke Centers within the Region, if any, Primary Stroke Centers within the Region, if any, and Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals within the Region, if any; one physician from each level of stroke care, including one physician who is a neurologist or who provides advanced stroke care at a Comprehensive Stroke Center in the Region, if any, one physician who is a neurologist or who provides acute stroke care at a Primary Stroke Center in the Region, if any, and one physician who provides acute stroke care at an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital in the Region, if any; one nurse practicing in each level of stroke care, including one nurse from a Comprehensive Stroke Center in the Region, if any, one nurse from a Primary Stroke Center in the Region, if any, and one nurse from an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital in the Region, if any; one representative from both a public and a private vehicle service provider that transports possible acute stroke patients within the Region; the State-designated regional EMS Coordinator; and a fire chief or his or her designee from the EMS Region, if the Region serves a population of more than 2,000,000. The Regional Stroke Advisory Subcommittee shall establish bylaws to ensure equal membership that rotates and clearly delineates committee responsibilities and structure. Of the members first appointed, one-third shall be appointed for a term of one year, one-third shall be appointed for a term of 2 years, and the remaining members shall be appointed for a term of 3 years. The terms of subsequent appointees shall be 3 years.

"State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee" means a standing advisory body within the State Emergency Medical Services Advisory Council.

(Source: P.A. 98-1001, eff. 1-1-15; revised 7-16-21.)

(210 ILCS 50/3.117)

Sec. 3.117. Hospital designations.

(a) The Department shall attempt to designate Primary Stroke Centers in all areas of the State.

(1) The Department shall designate as many certified Primary Stroke Centers as apply for that designation provided they are certified by a nationally recognized nationally-recognized certifying body, approved by the Department, and certification criteria are consistent with the most current nationally recognized nationally-recognized, evidence-based stroke guidelines related to reducing the occurrence, disabilities, and death associated with stroke.

(2) A hospital certified as a Primary Stroke Center by a nationally recognized nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the Department, shall send a copy of the Certificate and annual fee to the Department and shall be deemed, within 30 business days of its receipt by the Department, to be a State-designated Primary Stroke Center.

(3) A center designated as a Primary Stroke Center shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(3.5) With respect to a hospital that is a designated Primary Stroke Center, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Suspend or revoke a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation upon receiving notice that the hospital's Primary Stroke Center certification has lapsed or has been revoked by the State recognized certifying body.

(B) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation, in extreme circumstances where patients may be at risk for immediate harm or death, until such time as the certifying body investigates and makes a final determination regarding certification.

(C) Restore any previously suspended or revoked Department designation upon notice to the Department that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the Primary Stroke Center certification of that previously designated hospital.

(D) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation at the request of a hospital seeking to suspend its own Department designation.

(4) Primary Stroke Center designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as a Primary Stroke Center, in good standing, with the certifying body. The duration of a Primary Stroke Center designation shall coincide with the duration of its Primary Stroke Center certification. Each designated Primary Stroke Center shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the accrediting body's certification renewal.

(5) A hospital that no longer meets nationally recognized nationally-recognized, evidence-based standards for Primary Stroke Centers, or loses its Primary Stroke Center certification, shall notify the Department and the Regional EMS Advisory Committee within 5 business days.

(a-5) The Department shall attempt to designate Comprehensive Stroke Centers in all areas of the State.

(1) The Department shall designate as many certified Comprehensive Stroke Centers as apply for that designation, provided that the Comprehensive Stroke Centers are certified by a nationally recognized nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the Department, and provided that the certifying body's certification criteria are consistent with the most current nationally recognized nationally-recognized and evidence-based stroke guidelines for reducing the occurrence of stroke and the disabilities and death associated with stroke.

(2) A hospital certified as a Comprehensive Stroke Center shall send a copy of the Certificate and annual fee to the Department and shall be deemed, within 30 business days of its receipt by the Department, to be a State-designated Comprehensive Stroke Center.

(3) A hospital designated as a Comprehensive Stroke Center shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(4) With respect to a hospital that is a designated Comprehensive Stroke Center, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Suspend or revoke the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center designation upon receiving notice that the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center certification has lapsed or has been revoked by the State recognized certifying body.

(B) Suspend the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center designation, in extreme circumstances in which patients may be at risk for immediate harm or death, until such time as the certifying body investigates and makes a final determination regarding certification.

(C) Restore any previously suspended or revoked Department designation upon notice to the Department that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the Comprehensive Stroke Center certification of that previously designated hospital.

(D) Suspend the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center designation at the request of a hospital seeking to suspend its own Department designation.

(5) Comprehensive Stroke Center designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as a Comprehensive Stroke Center, in good standing, with the certifying body. The duration of a Comprehensive Stroke Center designation shall coincide with the duration of its Comprehensive Stroke Center certification. Each designated Comprehensive Stroke Center shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the certifying body's certification renewal.

(6) A hospital that no longer meets nationally recognized nationally-recognized, evidence-based standards for Comprehensive Stroke Centers, or loses its Comprehensive Stroke Center certification, shall notify the Department and the Regional EMS Advisory Committee within 5 business days.

(b) Beginning on the first day of the month that begins 12 months after the adoption of rules authorized by this subsection, the Department shall attempt to designate hospitals as Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals in all areas of the State. Designation may be approved by the Department after a hospital has been certified as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital or through application and designation by the Department. For any hospital that is designated as an Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital at the time that the Department begins the designation of Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals, the Emergent Stroke Ready designation shall remain intact for the duration of the 12-month period until that designation expires. Until the Department begins the designation of hospitals as Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals, hospitals may achieve Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation utilizing the processes and criteria provided in Public Act 96-514.

(1) (Blank).

(2) Hospitals may apply for, and receive, Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation from the Department, provided that the hospital attests, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, that it meets, and will continue to meet, the criteria for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation and pays an annual fee.

A hospital designated as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(2.5) A hospital may apply for, and receive, Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation from the Department, provided that the hospital provides proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification and the hospital pays an annual fee.

(A) Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, in good standing, with the certifying body.

(B) The duration of an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation shall coincide with the duration of its Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification.

(C) Each designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the certifying body's certification renewal and Application for Stroke Center Designation form.

(D) A hospital must submit a copy of its certification renewal from the certifying body as soon as practical but no later than 30 business days after that certification is received by the hospital. Upon the Department's receipt of the renewal certification, the Department shall renew the hospital's Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation.

(E) A hospital designated as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(3) Hospitals seeking Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation that do not have certification shall develop policies and procedures that are consistent with nationally recognized nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols for the provision of emergent stroke care. Hospital policies relating to emergent stroke care and stroke patient outcomes shall be reviewed at least annually, or more often as needed, by a hospital committee that oversees quality improvement. Adjustments shall be made as necessary to advance the quality of stroke care delivered. Criteria for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation of hospitals shall be limited to the ability of a hospital to:

(A) create written acute care protocols related to emergent stroke care;

(A-5) participate in the data collection system provided in Section 3.118, if available;

(B) maintain a written transfer agreement with one or more hospitals that have neurosurgical expertise;

(C) designate a Clinical Director of Stroke Care who shall be a clinical member of the hospital staff with training or experience, as defined by the facility, in the care of patients with cerebrovascular disease. This training or experience may include, but is not limited to, completion of a fellowship or other specialized training in the area of cerebrovascular disease, attendance at national courses, or prior experience in neuroscience intensive care units. The Clinical Director of Stroke Care may be a neurologist, neurosurgeon, emergency medicine physician, internist, radiologist, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician's assistant;

(C-5) provide rapid access to an acute stroke team, as defined by the facility, that considers and reflects nationally recognized, evidence-based nationally-recognized, evidenced-based protocols or guidelines;

(D) administer thrombolytic therapy, or subsequently developed medical therapies that meet nationally recognized nationally-recognized, evidence-based stroke guidelines;

(E) conduct brain image tests at all times;

(F) conduct blood coagulation studies at all times;

(G) maintain a log of stroke patients, which shall be available for review upon request by the Department or any hospital that has a written transfer agreement with the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital;

(H) admit stroke patients to a unit that can provide appropriate care that considers and reflects nationally recognized nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols or guidelines or transfer stroke patients to an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, Primary Stroke Center, or Comprehensive Stroke Center, or another facility that can provide the appropriate care that considers and reflects nationally recognized nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols or guidelines; and

(I) demonstrate compliance with nationally recognized nationally-recognized quality indicators.

(4) With respect to Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Require hospitals applying for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation to attest, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, that the hospital meets, and will continue to meet, the criteria for an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital.

(A-5) Require hospitals applying for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation via national Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification to provide proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification, in good standing.

The Department shall require a hospital that is already certified as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital to send a copy of the Certificate to the Department.

Within 30 business days of the Department's receipt of a hospital's Acute Stroke-Ready Certificate and Application for Stroke Center Designation form that indicates that the hospital is a certified Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, in good standing, the hospital shall be deemed a State-designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital. The Department shall send a designation notice to each hospital that it designates as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital and shall add the names of designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals to the website listing immediately upon designation. The Department shall immediately remove the name of a hospital from the website listing when a hospital loses its designation after notice and, if requested by the hospital, a hearing.

The Department shall develop an Application for Stroke Center Designation form that contains a statement that "The above named facility meets the requirements for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital Designation as provided in Section 3.117 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act" and shall instruct the applicant facility to provide: the hospital name and address; the hospital CEO or Administrator's typed name and signature; the hospital Clinical Director of Stroke Care's typed name and signature; and a contact person's typed name, email address, and phone number.

The Application for Stroke Center Designation form shall contain a statement that instructs the hospital to "Provide proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification from a nationally recognized nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the Department".

(B) Designate a hospital as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital no more than 30 business days after receipt of an attestation that meets the requirements for attestation, unless the Department, within 30 days of receipt of the attestation, chooses to conduct an onsite survey prior to designation. If the Department chooses to conduct an onsite survey prior to designation, then the onsite survey shall be conducted within 90 days of receipt of the attestation.

(C) Require annual written attestation, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, by Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals to indicate compliance with Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital criteria, as described in this Section, and automatically renew Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation of the hospital.

(D) Issue an Emergency Suspension of Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation when the Director, or his or her designee, has determined that the hospital no longer meets the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital criteria and an immediate and serious danger to the public health, safety, and welfare exists. If the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital fails to eliminate the violation immediately or within a fixed period of time, not exceeding 10 days, as determined by the Director, the Director may immediately revoke the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation. The Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital may appeal the revocation within 15 business days after receiving the Director's revocation order, by requesting an administrative hearing.

(E) After notice and an opportunity for an administrative hearing, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation, when the Department finds the hospital is not in substantial compliance with current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital criteria.

(c) The Department shall consult with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee for developing the designation, re-designation, and de-designation processes for Comprehensive Stroke Centers, Primary Stroke Centers, and Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals.

(d) The Department shall consult with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee as subject matter experts at least annually regarding stroke standards of care.

(Source: P.A. 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 7-16-21.)

(210 ILCS 50/3.117.5)

Sec. 3.117.5. Hospital Stroke Care; grants.

(a) In order to encourage the establishment and retention of Comprehensive Stroke Centers, Primary Stroke Centers, and Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals throughout the State, the Director may award, subject to appropriation, matching grants to hospitals to be used for the acquisition and maintenance of necessary infrastructure, including personnel, equipment, and pharmaceuticals for the diagnosis and treatment of acute stroke patients. Grants may be used to pay the fee for certifications by Department approved nationally recognized nationally-recognized certifying bodies or to provide additional training for directors of stroke care or for hospital staff.

(b) The Director may award grant moneys to Comprehensive Stroke Centers, Primary Stroke Centers, and Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals for developing or enlarging stroke networks, for stroke education, and to enhance the ability of the EMS System to respond to possible acute stroke patients.

(c) A Comprehensive Stroke Center, Primary Stroke Center, or Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, or a hospital seeking certification as a Comprehensive Stroke Center, Primary Stroke Center, or Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital or designation as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, may apply to the Director for a matching grant in a manner and form specified by the Director and shall provide information as the Director deems necessary to determine whether the hospital is eligible for the grant.

(d) Matching grant awards shall be made to Comprehensive Stroke Centers, Primary Stroke Centers, Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals, or hospitals seeking certification or designation as a Comprehensive Stroke Center, Primary Stroke Center, or Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital. The Department may consider prioritizing grant awards to hospitals in areas with the highest incidence of stroke, taking into account geographic diversity, where possible.

(Source: P.A. 98-1001, eff. 1-1-15; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 130. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 23 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/23) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-23)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 23. Reports relating to professional conduct and capacity.

(A) Entities required to report.

(1) Health care institutions. The chief administrator or executive officer of any health care institution licensed by the Illinois Department of Public Health shall report to the Disciplinary Board when any person's clinical privileges are terminated or are restricted based on a final determination made in accordance with that institution's by-laws or rules and regulations that a person has either committed an act or acts which may directly threaten patient care or that a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care. Such officer also shall report if a person accepts voluntary termination or restriction of clinical privileges in lieu of formal action based upon conduct related directly to patient care or in lieu of formal action seeking to determine whether a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care. The Disciplinary Board shall, by rule, provide for the reporting to it by health care institutions of all instances in which a person, licensed under this Act, who is impaired by reason of age, drug or alcohol abuse or physical or mental impairment, is under supervision and, where appropriate, is in a program of rehabilitation. Such reports shall be strictly confidential and may be reviewed and considered only by the members of the Disciplinary Board, or by authorized staff as provided by rules of the Disciplinary Board. Provisions shall be made for the periodic report of the status of any such person not less than twice annually in order that the Disciplinary Board shall have current information upon which to determine the status of any such person. Such initial and periodic reports of impaired physicians shall not be considered records within the meaning of the The State Records Act and shall be disposed of, following a determination by the Disciplinary Board that such reports are no longer required, in a manner and at such time as the Disciplinary Board shall determine by rule. The filing of such reports shall be construed as the filing of a report for purposes of subsection (C) of this Section.

(1.5) Clinical training programs. The program director of any post-graduate clinical training program shall report to the Disciplinary Board if a person engaged in a post-graduate clinical training program at the institution, including, but not limited to, a residency or fellowship, separates from the program for any reason prior to its conclusion. The program director shall provide all documentation relating to the separation if, after review of the report, the Disciplinary Board determines that a review of those documents is necessary to determine whether a violation of this Act occurred.

(2) Professional associations. The President or chief executive officer of any association or society, of persons licensed under this Act, operating within this State shall report to the Disciplinary Board when the association or society renders a final determination that a person has committed unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care or that a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care.

(3) Professional liability insurers. Every insurance company which offers policies of professional liability insurance to persons licensed under this Act, or any other entity which seeks to indemnify the professional liability of a person licensed under this Act, shall report to the Disciplinary Board the settlement of any claim or cause of action, or final judgment rendered in any cause of action, which alleged negligence in the furnishing of medical care by such licensed person when such settlement or final judgment is in favor of the plaintiff.

(4) State's Attorneys. The State's Attorney of each county shall report to the Disciplinary Board, within 5 days, any instances in which a person licensed under this Act is convicted of any felony or Class A misdemeanor. The State's Attorney of each county may report to the Disciplinary Board through a verified complaint any instance in which the State's Attorney believes that a physician has willfully violated the notice requirements of the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.

(5) State agencies. All agencies, boards, commissions, departments, or other instrumentalities of the government of the State of Illinois shall report to the Disciplinary Board any instance arising in connection with the operations of such agency, including the administration of any law by such agency, in which a person licensed under this Act has either committed an act or acts which may be a violation of this Act or which may constitute unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care or which indicates that a person licensed under this Act may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care.

(B) Mandatory reporting. All reports required by items (34), (35), and (36) of subsection (A) of Section 22 and by Section 23 shall be submitted to the Disciplinary Board in a timely fashion. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the reports shall be filed in writing within 60 days after a determination that a report is required under this Act. All reports shall contain the following information:

(1) The name, address and telephone number of the person making the report.

(2) The name, address and telephone number of the person who is the subject of the report.

(3) The name and date of birth of any patient or patients whose treatment is a subject of the report, if available, or other means of identification if such information is not available, identification of the hospital or other healthcare facility where the care at issue in the report was rendered, provided, however, no medical records may be revealed.

(4) A brief description of the facts which gave rise to the issuance of the report, including the dates of any occurrences deemed to necessitate the filing of the report.

(5) If court action is involved, the identity of the court in which the action is filed, along with the docket number and date of filing of the action.

(6) Any further pertinent information which the reporting party deems to be an aid in the evaluation of the report.

The Disciplinary Board or Department may also exercise the power under Section 38 of this Act to subpoena copies of hospital or medical records in mandatory report cases alleging death or permanent bodily injury. Appropriate rules shall be adopted by the Department with the approval of the Disciplinary Board.

When the Department has received written reports concerning incidents required to be reported in items (34), (35), and (36) of subsection (A) of Section 22, the licensee's failure to report the incident to the Department under those items shall not be the sole grounds for disciplinary action.

Nothing contained in this Section shall act to, in any way, waive or modify the confidentiality of medical reports and committee reports to the extent provided by law. Any information reported or disclosed shall be kept for the confidential use of the Disciplinary Board, the Medical Coordinators, the Disciplinary Board's attorneys, the medical investigative staff, and authorized clerical staff, as provided in this Act, and shall be afforded the same status as is provided information concerning medical studies in Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, except that the Department may disclose information and documents to a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency pursuant to a subpoena in an ongoing criminal investigation or to a health care licensing body or medical licensing authority of this State or another state or jurisdiction pursuant to an official request made by that licensing body or medical licensing authority. Furthermore, information and documents disclosed to a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency may be used by that agency only for the investigation and prosecution of a criminal offense, or, in the case of disclosure to a health care licensing body or medical licensing authority, only for investigations and disciplinary action proceedings with regard to a license. Information and documents disclosed to the Department of Public Health may be used by that Department only for investigation and disciplinary action regarding the license of a health care institution licensed by the Department of Public Health.

(C) Immunity from prosecution. Any individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a wilful and wanton manner, in complying with this Act by providing any report or other information to the Disciplinary Board or a peer review committee, or assisting in the investigation or preparation of such information, or by voluntarily reporting to the Disciplinary Board or a peer review committee information regarding alleged errors or negligence by a person licensed under this Act, or by participating in proceedings of the Disciplinary Board or a peer review committee, or by serving as a member of the Disciplinary Board or a peer review committee, shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(D) Indemnification. Members of the Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board, the Medical Coordinators, the Disciplinary Board's attorneys, the medical investigative staff, physicians retained under contract to assist and advise the medical coordinators in the investigation, and authorized clerical staff shall be indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within the scope of services on the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board, done in good faith and not wilful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in such representation or that the actions complained of were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

Should the Attorney General decline representation, the member shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

The member must notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of notice of the initiation of any action involving services of the Disciplinary Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification.

The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days after receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to represent the member.

(E) Deliberations of Disciplinary Board. Upon the receipt of any report called for by this Act, other than those reports of impaired persons licensed under this Act required pursuant to the rules of the Disciplinary Board, the Disciplinary Board shall notify in writing, by certified mail, the person who is the subject of the report. Such notification shall be made within 30 days of receipt by the Disciplinary Board of the report.

The notification shall include a written notice setting forth the person's right to examine the report. Included in such notification shall be the address at which the file is maintained, the name of the custodian of the reports, and the telephone number at which the custodian may be reached. The person who is the subject of the report shall submit a written statement responding, clarifying, adding to, or proposing the amending of the report previously filed. The person who is the subject of the report shall also submit with the written statement any medical records related to the report. The statement and accompanying medical records shall become a permanent part of the file and must be received by the Disciplinary Board no more than 30 days after the date on which the person was notified by the Disciplinary Board of the existence of the original report.

The Disciplinary Board shall review all reports received by it, together with any supporting information and responding statements submitted by persons who are the subject of reports. The review by the Disciplinary Board shall be in a timely manner but in no event, shall the Disciplinary Board's initial review of the material contained in each disciplinary file be less than 61 days nor more than 180 days after the receipt of the initial report by the Disciplinary Board.

When the Disciplinary Board makes its initial review of the materials contained within its disciplinary files, the Disciplinary Board shall, in writing, make a determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. Failure to make such determination within the time provided shall be deemed to be a determination that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action.

Should the Disciplinary Board find that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation, or action, the report shall be accepted for filing and the matter shall be deemed closed and so reported to the Secretary. The Secretary shall then have 30 days to accept the Disciplinary Board's decision or request further investigation. The Secretary shall inform the Board of the decision to request further investigation, including the specific reasons for the decision. The individual or entity filing the original report or complaint and the person who is the subject of the report or complaint shall be notified in writing by the Secretary of any final action on their report or complaint. The Department shall disclose to the individual or entity who filed the original report or complaint, on request, the status of the Disciplinary Board's review of a specific report or complaint. Such request may be made at any time, including prior to the Disciplinary Board's determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action.

(F) Summary reports. The Disciplinary Board shall prepare, on a timely basis, but in no event less than once every other month, a summary report of final disciplinary actions taken upon disciplinary files maintained by the Disciplinary Board. The summary reports shall be made available to the public upon request and payment of the fees set by the Department. This publication may be made available to the public on the Department's website. Information or documentation relating to any disciplinary file that is closed without disciplinary action taken shall not be disclosed and shall be afforded the same status as is provided by Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(G) Any violation of this Section shall be a Class A misdemeanor.

(H) If any such person violates the provisions of this Section an action may be brought in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, through the Attorney General of the State of Illinois, for an order enjoining such violation or for an order enforcing compliance with this Section. Upon filing of a verified petition in such court, the court may issue a temporary restraining order without notice or bond and may preliminarily or permanently enjoin such violation, and if it is established that such person has violated or is violating the injunction, the court may punish the offender for contempt of court. Proceedings under this paragraph shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties provided for by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-601, eff. 12-30-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 7-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 23. Reports relating to professional conduct and capacity.

(A) Entities required to report.

(1) Health care institutions. The chief administrator or executive officer of any health care institution licensed by the Illinois Department of Public Health shall report to the Medical Board when any person's clinical privileges are terminated or are restricted based on a final determination made in accordance with that institution's by-laws or rules and regulations that a person has either committed an act or acts which may directly threaten patient care or that a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care. Such officer also shall report if a person accepts voluntary termination or restriction of clinical privileges in lieu of formal action based upon conduct related directly to patient care or in lieu of formal action seeking to determine whether a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care. The Medical Board shall, by rule, provide for the reporting to it by health care institutions of all instances in which a person, licensed under this Act, who is impaired by reason of age, drug or alcohol abuse or physical or mental impairment, is under supervision and, where appropriate, is in a program of rehabilitation. Such reports shall be strictly confidential and may be reviewed and considered only by the members of the Medical Board, or by authorized staff as provided by rules of the Medical Board. Provisions shall be made for the periodic report of the status of any such person not less than twice annually in order that the Medical Board shall have current information upon which to determine the status of any such person. Such initial and periodic reports of impaired physicians shall not be considered records within the meaning of the The State Records Act and shall be disposed of, following a determination by the Medical Board that such reports are no longer required, in a manner and at such time as the Medical Board shall determine by rule. The filing of such reports shall be construed as the filing of a report for purposes of subsection (C) of this Section.

(1.5) Clinical training programs. The program director of any post-graduate clinical training program shall report to the Medical Board if a person engaged in a post-graduate clinical training program at the institution, including, but not limited to, a residency or fellowship, separates from the program for any reason prior to its conclusion. The program director shall provide all documentation relating to the separation if, after review of the report, the Medical Board determines that a review of those documents is necessary to determine whether a violation of this Act occurred.

(2) Professional associations. The President or chief executive officer of any association or society, of persons licensed under this Act, operating within this State shall report to the Medical Board when the association or society renders a final determination that a person has committed unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care or that a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care.

(3) Professional liability insurers. Every insurance company which offers policies of professional liability insurance to persons licensed under this Act, or any other entity which seeks to indemnify the professional liability of a person licensed under this Act, shall report to the Medical Board the settlement of any claim or cause of action, or final judgment rendered in any cause of action, which alleged negligence in the furnishing of medical care by such licensed person when such settlement or final judgment is in favor of the plaintiff.

(4) State's Attorneys. The State's Attorney of each county shall report to the Medical Board, within 5 days, any instances in which a person licensed under this Act is convicted of any felony or Class A misdemeanor. The State's Attorney of each county may report to the Medical Board through a verified complaint any instance in which the State's Attorney believes that a physician has willfully violated the notice requirements of the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.

(5) State agencies. All agencies, boards, commissions, departments, or other instrumentalities of the government of the State of Illinois shall report to the Medical Board any instance arising in connection with the operations of such agency, including the administration of any law by such agency, in which a person licensed under this Act has either committed an act or acts which may be a violation of this Act or which may constitute unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care or which indicates that a person licensed under this Act may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care.

(B) Mandatory reporting. All reports required by items (34), (35), and (36) of subsection (A) of Section 22 and by Section 23 shall be submitted to the Medical Board in a timely fashion. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the reports shall be filed in writing within 60 days after a determination that a report is required under this Act. All reports shall contain the following information:

(1) The name, address and telephone number of the person making the report.

(2) The name, address and telephone number of the person who is the subject of the report.

(3) The name and date of birth of any patient or patients whose treatment is a subject of the report, if available, or other means of identification if such information is not available, identification of the hospital or other healthcare facility where the care at issue in the report was rendered, provided, however, no medical records may be revealed.

(4) A brief description of the facts which gave rise to the issuance of the report, including the dates of any occurrences deemed to necessitate the filing of the report.

(5) If court action is involved, the identity of the court in which the action is filed, along with the docket number and date of filing of the action.

(6) Any further pertinent information which the reporting party deems to be an aid in the evaluation of the report.

The Medical Board or Department may also exercise the power under Section 38 of this Act to subpoena copies of hospital or medical records in mandatory report cases alleging death or permanent bodily injury. Appropriate rules shall be adopted by the Department with the approval of the Medical Board.

When the Department has received written reports concerning incidents required to be reported in items (34), (35), and (36) of subsection (A) of Section 22, the licensee's failure to report the incident to the Department under those items shall not be the sole grounds for disciplinary action.

Nothing contained in this Section shall act to, in any way, waive or modify the confidentiality of medical reports and committee reports to the extent provided by law. Any information reported or disclosed shall be kept for the confidential use of the Medical Board, the Medical Coordinators, the Medical Board's attorneys, the medical investigative staff, and authorized clerical staff, as provided in this Act, and shall be afforded the same status as is provided information concerning medical studies in Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, except that the Department may disclose information and documents to a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency pursuant to a subpoena in an ongoing criminal investigation or to a health care licensing body or medical licensing authority of this State or another state or jurisdiction pursuant to an official request made by that licensing body or medical licensing authority. Furthermore, information and documents disclosed to a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency may be used by that agency only for the investigation and prosecution of a criminal offense, or, in the case of disclosure to a health care licensing body or medical licensing authority, only for investigations and disciplinary action proceedings with regard to a license. Information and documents disclosed to the Department of Public Health may be used by that Department only for investigation and disciplinary action regarding the license of a health care institution licensed by the Department of Public Health.

(C) Immunity from prosecution. Any individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a wilful and wanton manner, in complying with this Act by providing any report or other information to the Medical Board or a peer review committee, or assisting in the investigation or preparation of such information, or by voluntarily reporting to the Medical Board or a peer review committee information regarding alleged errors or negligence by a person licensed under this Act, or by participating in proceedings of the Medical Board or a peer review committee, or by serving as a member of the Medical Board or a peer review committee, shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(D) Indemnification. Members of the Medical Board, the Medical Coordinators, the Medical Board's attorneys, the medical investigative staff, physicians retained under contract to assist and advise the medical coordinators in the investigation, and authorized clerical staff shall be indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within the scope of services on the Medical Board, done in good faith and not wilful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in such representation or that the actions complained of were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

Should the Attorney General decline representation, the member shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

The member must notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of notice of the initiation of any action involving services of the Medical Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification.

The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days after receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to represent the member.

(E) Deliberations of Medical Board. Upon the receipt of any report called for by this Act, other than those reports of impaired persons licensed under this Act required pursuant to the rules of the Medical Board, the Medical Board shall notify in writing, by mail or email, the person who is the subject of the report. Such notification shall be made within 30 days of receipt by the Medical Board of the report.

The notification shall include a written notice setting forth the person's right to examine the report. Included in such notification shall be the address at which the file is maintained, the name of the custodian of the reports, and the telephone number at which the custodian may be reached. The person who is the subject of the report shall submit a written statement responding, clarifying, adding to, or proposing the amending of the report previously filed. The person who is the subject of the report shall also submit with the written statement any medical records related to the report. The statement and accompanying medical records shall become a permanent part of the file and must be received by the Medical Board no more than 30 days after the date on which the person was notified by the Medical Board of the existence of the original report.

The Medical Board shall review all reports received by it, together with any supporting information and responding statements submitted by persons who are the subject of reports. The review by the Medical Board shall be in a timely manner but in no event, shall the Medical Board's initial review of the material contained in each disciplinary file be less than 61 days nor more than 180 days after the receipt of the initial report by the Medical Board.

When the Medical Board makes its initial review of the materials contained within its disciplinary files, the Medical Board shall, in writing, make a determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. Failure to make such determination within the time provided shall be deemed to be a determination that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action.

Should the Medical Board find that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation, or action, the report shall be accepted for filing and the matter shall be deemed closed and so reported to the Secretary. The Secretary shall then have 30 days to accept the Medical Board's decision or request further investigation. The Secretary shall inform the Medical Board of the decision to request further investigation, including the specific reasons for the decision. The individual or entity filing the original report or complaint and the person who is the subject of the report or complaint shall be notified in writing by the Secretary of any final action on their report or complaint. The Department shall disclose to the individual or entity who filed the original report or complaint, on request, the status of the Medical Board's review of a specific report or complaint. Such request may be made at any time, including prior to the Medical Board's determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action.

(F) Summary reports. The Medical Board shall prepare, on a timely basis, but in no event less than once every other month, a summary report of final disciplinary actions taken upon disciplinary files maintained by the Medical Board. The summary reports shall be made available to the public upon request and payment of the fees set by the Department. This publication may be made available to the public on the Department's website. Information or documentation relating to any disciplinary file that is closed without disciplinary action taken shall not be disclosed and shall be afforded the same status as is provided by Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(G) Any violation of this Section shall be a Class A misdemeanor.

(H) If any such person violates the provisions of this Section an action may be brought in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, through the Attorney General of the State of Illinois, for an order enjoining such violation or for an order enforcing compliance with this Section. Upon filing of a verified petition in such court, the court may issue a temporary restraining order without notice or bond and may preliminarily or permanently enjoin such violation, and if it is established that such person has violated or is violating the injunction, the court may punish the offender for contempt of court. Proceedings under this paragraph shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties provided for by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; revised 7-20-21.)

Section 135. The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 is amended by changing Section 25.2a as follows:

(225 ILCS 115/25.2a)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 25.2a. Confidentiality. All information collected by the Department in the course of an examination or investigation of a licensee or applicant, including, but not limited to, any complaint against a licensee filed with the Department and information collected to investigate any such complaint, shall be maintained for the confidential use of the Department and shall not be disclosed. The Department may not disclose the information to anyone other than law enforcement officials, other regulatory agencies that have an appropriate regulatory interest as determined by the Secretary, or to a party presenting a lawful subpoena to the Department. Information and documents disclosed to a federal, State, county, or local law enforcement agency shall not be disclosed by the agency for any purpose to any other agency or person. A formal complaint filed against a licensee by the Department or any order issued by the Department against a licensee or applicant shall be a public record, except as otherwise prohibited by law.

(Source: P.A. 98-339, eff. 12-31-13; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 140. The Cemetery Oversight Act is amended by changing Section 25-10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 411/25-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 25-10. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license under this Act, for any one or combination of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act, except for Section 20-8.

(3) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation under the law of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a Class X felony or (ii) a felony, an essential element of which is fraud or dishonesty that is directly related to the practice of cemetery operations.

(4) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal.

(5) Incompetence or misconduct in the practice of cemetery operations.

(6) Gross malpractice.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.

(8) Failing, within 10 business days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(10) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other substances that results in the inability to practice pursuant to the provisions of this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety while acting under the provisions of this Act.

(11) Discipline by another state, territory, foreign country, the District of Columbia, the United States government, or any other government agency, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.

(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered.

(13) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation or failed to comply with such terms.

(14) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with any governmental agency or department.

(15) Inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of physical illness, including, but not limited to, loss of motor skill, mental illness, or disability.

(16) Failure to comply with an order, decision, or finding of the Department made pursuant to this Act.

(17) Directly or indirectly receiving compensation for any professional services not actually performed.

(18) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(19) Using or attempting to use an expired, inactive, suspended, or revoked license or impersonating another licensee.

(20) A finding by the Department that an applicant or licensee has failed to pay a fine imposed by the Department.

(21) Unjustified failure to honor its contracts.

(22) Negligent supervision of a cemetery manager, customer service employee, employee, or independent contractor.

(23) (Blank).

(24) (Blank).

(25) (Blank).

(b) No action may be taken under this Act against a person licensed under this Act for an occurrence or alleged occurrence that predates the enactment of this Act.

(c) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may order a licensee or applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, at the expense of the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning his or her examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Department. The licensee or applicant may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of a licensee or applicant to submit to any such examination when directed, without reasonable cause, shall be grounds for either immediate suspension suspending of his or her license or immediate denial of his or her application.

(1) If the Secretary immediately suspends the license of a licensee for his or her failure to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed, a hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay.

(2) If the Secretary otherwise suspends a license pursuant to the results of the licensee's mental or physical examination, a hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the licensee's record of treatment and counseling regarding the relevant impairment or impairments to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

(3) Any licensee suspended under this subsection shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with the acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(d) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension may end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the filing of a petition for restoration demonstrating fitness to practice.

(e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department shall refuse to issue or renew or shall revoke or suspend that person's license or shall take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) The Department shall refuse to issue or renew or shall revoke or suspend a person's license or shall take other disciplinary action against that person for his or her failure to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 6-25-21; revised 7-20-21.)

Section 145. The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002 is amended by changing Sections 1-5, 1-10, and 25-20 as follows:

(225 ILCS 458/1-5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 1-5. Legislative intent. The intent of the General Assembly in enacting this Act is to evaluate the competency of persons engaged in the appraisal of real estate and to license and regulate those persons for the protection of the public. Additionally, it is the intent of the General Assembly for this Act to be consistent with the provisions of Title XI of the federal Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989.

(Source: P.A. 98-1109, eff. 1-1-15; revised 8-2-21.)

(225 ILCS 458/1-10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 1-10. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Accredited college or university, junior college, or community college" means a college or university, junior college, or community college that is approved or accredited by the Board of Higher Education, a regional or national accreditation association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education.

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Applicant" means a person who applies to the Department for a license under this Act.

"Appraisal" means (noun) the act or process of developing an opinion of value; an opinion of value (adjective) of or pertaining to appraising and related functions, such as appraisal practice or appraisal services.

"Appraisal assignment" means a valuation service provided as a consequence of an agreement between an appraiser and a client.

"Appraisal consulting" means the act or process of developing an analysis, recommendation, or opinion to solve a problem, where an opinion of value is a component of the analysis leading to the assignment results.

"Appraisal firm" means an appraisal entity that is 100% owned and controlled by a person or persons licensed in Illinois as a certified general real estate appraiser or a certified residential real estate appraiser. "Appraisal firm" does not include an appraisal management company.

"Appraisal management company" means any corporation, limited liability company, partnership, sole proprietorship, subsidiary, unit, or other business entity that directly or indirectly: (1) provides appraisal management services to creditors or secondary mortgage market participants; (2) provides appraisal management services in connection with valuing the consumer's principal dwelling as security for a consumer credit transaction (including consumer credit transactions incorporated into securitizations); (3) within a given year, oversees an appraiser panel of any size of State-certified appraisers in Illinois; and (4) any appraisal management company that, within a given year, oversees an appraiser panel of 16 or more State-certified appraisers in Illinois or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in 2 or more jurisdictions shall be subject to the appraisal management company national registry fee in addition to the appraiser panel fee. "Appraisal management company" includes a hybrid entity.

"Appraisal practice" means valuation services performed by an individual acting as an appraiser, including, but not limited to, appraisal, appraisal review, or appraisal consulting.

"Appraisal report" means any communication, written or oral, of an appraisal or appraisal review that is transmitted to a client upon completion of an assignment.

"Appraisal review" means the act or process of developing and communicating an opinion about the quality of another appraiser's work that was performed as part of an appraisal, appraisal review, or appraisal assignment.

"Appraisal Subcommittee" means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council as established by Title XI.

"Appraiser" means a person who performs real estate or real property appraisals.

"AQB" means the Appraisal Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation.

"Associate real estate trainee appraiser" means an entry-level appraiser who holds a license of this classification under this Act with restrictions as to the scope of practice in accordance with this Act.

"Board" means the Real Estate Appraisal Administration and Disciplinary Board.

"Broker price opinion" means an estimate or analysis of the probable selling price of a particular interest in real estate, which may provide a varying level of detail about the property's condition, market, and neighborhood and information on comparable sales. The activities of a real estate broker or managing broker engaging in the ordinary course of business as a broker, as defined in this Section, shall not be considered a broker price opinion if no compensation is paid to the broker or managing broker, other than compensation based upon the sale or rental of real estate.

"Classroom hour" means 50 minutes of instruction out of each 60-minute 60 minute segment of coursework.

"Client" means the party or parties who engage an appraiser by employment or contract in a specific appraisal assignment.

"Comparative market analysis" is an analysis or opinion regarding pricing, marketing, or financial aspects relating to a specified interest or interests in real estate that may be based upon an analysis of comparative market data, the expertise of the real estate broker or managing broker, and such other factors as the broker or managing broker may deem appropriate in developing or preparing such analysis or opinion. The activities of a real estate broker or managing broker engaging in the ordinary course of business as a broker, as defined in this Section, shall not be considered a comparative market analysis if no compensation is paid to the broker or managing broker, other than compensation based upon the sale or rental of real estate.

"Coordinator" means the Coordinator of Real Estate Appraisal of the Division of Professional Regulation of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Federal financial institutions regulatory agencies" means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, and the National Credit Union Administration.

"Federally related transaction" means any real estate-related financial transaction in which a federal financial institutions regulatory agency engages in, contracts for, or regulates and requires the services of an appraiser.

"Financial institution" means any bank, savings bank, savings and loan association, credit union, mortgage broker, mortgage banker, licensee under the Consumer Installment Loan Act or the Sales Finance Agency Act, or a corporate fiduciary, subsidiary, affiliate, parent company, or holding company of any such licensee, or any institution involved in real estate financing that is regulated by state or federal law.

"Multi-state licensing system" means a web-based platform that allows an applicant to submit his or her application or license renewal application to the Department online.

"Person" means an individual, entity, sole proprietorship, corporation, limited liability company, partnership, and joint venture, foreign or domestic, except that when the context otherwise requires, the term may refer to more than one individual or other described entity.

"Real estate" means an identified parcel or tract of land, including any improvements.

"Real estate related financial transaction" means any transaction involving:

(1) the sale, lease, purchase, investment in, or exchange of real property, including interests in property or the financing thereof;

(2) the refinancing of real property or interests in real property; and

(3) the use of real property or interest in property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage backed securities.

"Real property" means the interests, benefits, and rights inherent in the ownership of real estate.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"State certified general real estate appraiser" means an appraiser who holds a license of this classification under this Act and such classification applies to the appraisal of all types of real property without restrictions as to the scope of practice.

"State certified residential real estate appraiser" means an appraiser who holds a license of this classification under this Act and such classification applies to the appraisal of one to 4 units of residential real property without regard to transaction value or complexity, but with restrictions as to the scope of practice in a federally related transaction in accordance with Title XI, the provisions of USPAP, criteria established by the AQB, and further defined by rule.

"Supervising appraiser" means either (i) an appraiser who holds a valid license under this Act as either a State certified general real estate appraiser or a State certified residential real estate appraiser, who co-signs an appraisal report for an associate real estate trainee appraiser or (ii) a State certified general real estate appraiser who holds a valid license under this Act who co-signs an appraisal report for a State certified residential real estate appraiser on properties other than one to 4 units of residential real property without regard to transaction value or complexity.

"Title XI" means Title XI of the federal Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989.

"USPAP" means the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice as promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board pursuant to Title XI and by rule.

"Valuation services" means services pertaining to aspects of property value.

(Source: P.A. 100-604, eff. 7-13-18; revised 7-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 1-10. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Accredited college or university, junior college, or community college" means a college or university, junior college, or community college that is approved or accredited by the Board of Higher Education, a regional or national accreditation association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education.

"Address of record" means the designated street address, which may not be a post office box, recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department.

"Applicant" means a person who applies to the Department for a license under this Act.

"Appraisal" means (noun) the act or process of developing an opinion of value; an opinion of value (adjective) of or pertaining to appraising and related functions, such as appraisal practice or appraisal services.

"Appraisal assignment" means a valuation service provided pursuant to an agreement between an appraiser and a client.

"Appraisal firm" means an appraisal entity that is 100% owned and controlled by a person or persons licensed in Illinois as a certified general real estate appraiser or a certified residential real estate appraiser. "Appraisal firm" does not include an appraisal management company.

"Appraisal management company" means any corporation, limited liability company, partnership, sole proprietorship, subsidiary, unit, or other business entity that directly or indirectly: (1) provides appraisal management services to creditors or secondary mortgage market participants, including affiliates; (2) provides appraisal management services in connection with valuing the consumer's principal dwelling as security for a consumer credit transaction (including consumer credit transactions incorporated into securitizations); and (3) any appraisal management company that, within a given 12-month period, oversees an appraiser panel of 16 or more State-certified appraisers in Illinois or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in 2 or more jurisdictions. "Appraisal management company" includes a hybrid entity.

"Appraisal practice" means valuation services performed by an individual acting as an appraiser, including, but not limited to, appraisal or appraisal review.

"Appraisal report" means any communication, written or oral, of an appraisal or appraisal review that is transmitted to a client upon completion of an assignment.

"Appraisal review" means the act or process of developing and communicating an opinion about the quality of another appraiser's work that was performed as part of an appraisal, appraisal review, or appraisal assignment.

"Appraisal Subcommittee" means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council as established by Title XI.

"Appraiser" means a person who performs real estate or real property appraisals competently and in a manner that is independent, impartial, and objective.

"Appraiser panel" means a network, list, or roster of licensed or certified appraisers approved by the appraisal management company or by the end-user client to perform appraisals as independent contractors for the appraisal management company. "Appraiser panel" includes both appraisers accepted by an appraisal management company for consideration for future appraisal assignments and appraisers engaged by an appraisal management company to perform one or more appraisals. For the purposes of determining the size of an appraiser panel, only independent contractors of hybrid entities shall be counted towards the appraiser panel.

"AQB" means the Appraisal Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation.

"Associate real estate trainee appraiser" means an entry-level appraiser who holds a license of this classification under this Act with restrictions as to the scope of practice in accordance with this Act.

"Automated valuation model" means an automated system that is used to derive a property value through the use of available property records and various analytic methodologies such as comparable sales prices, home characteristics, and price changes.

"Board" means the Real Estate Appraisal Administration and Disciplinary Board.

"Broker price opinion" means an estimate or analysis of the probable selling price of a particular interest in real estate, which may provide a varying level of detail about the property's condition, market, and neighborhood and information on comparable sales. The activities of a real estate broker or managing broker engaging in the ordinary course of business as a broker, as defined in this Section, shall not be considered a broker price opinion if no compensation is paid to the broker or managing broker, other than compensation based upon the sale or rental of real estate.

"Classroom hour" means 50 minutes of instruction out of each 60-minute 60 minute segment of coursework.

"Client" means the party or parties who engage an appraiser by employment or contract in a specific appraisal assignment.

"Comparative market analysis" is an analysis or opinion regarding pricing, marketing, or financial aspects relating to a specified interest or interests in real estate that may be based upon an analysis of comparative market data, the expertise of the real estate broker or managing broker, and such other factors as the broker or managing broker may deem appropriate in developing or preparing such analysis or opinion. The activities of a real estate broker or managing broker engaging in the ordinary course of business as a broker, as defined in this Section, shall not be considered a comparative market analysis if no compensation is paid to the broker or managing broker, other than compensation based upon the sale or rental of real estate.

"Coordinator" means the Real Estate Appraisal Coordinator created in Section 25-15.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Email address of record" means the designated email address recorded by the Department in the applicant's application file or the licensee's license file maintained by the Department.

"Evaluation" means a valuation permitted by the appraisal regulations of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council and its federal agencies for transactions that qualify for the appraisal threshold exemption, business loan exemption, or subsequent transaction exemption.

"Federal financial institutions regulatory agencies" means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, and the National Credit Union Administration.

"Federally related transaction" means any real estate-related financial transaction in which a federal financial institutions regulatory agency engages in, contracts for, or regulates and requires the services of an appraiser.

"Financial institution" means any bank, savings bank, savings and loan association, credit union, mortgage broker, mortgage banker, licensee under the Consumer Installment Loan Act or the Sales Finance Agency Act, or a corporate fiduciary, subsidiary, affiliate, parent company, or holding company of any such licensee, or any institution involved in real estate financing that is regulated by state or federal law.

"Hybrid entity" means an appraisal management company that hires an appraiser as an employee to perform an appraisal and engages an independent contractor to perform an appraisal.

"License" means the privilege conferred by the Department to a person that has fulfilled all requirements prerequisite to any type of licensure under this Act.

"Licensee" means any person, as defined in this Section, who holds a valid unexpired license.

"Multi-state licensing system" means a web-based platform that allows an applicant to submit the application or license renewal application to the Department online.

"Person" means an individual, entity, sole proprietorship, corporation, limited liability company, partnership, and joint venture, foreign or domestic, except that when the context otherwise requires, the term may refer to more than one individual or other described entity.

"Real estate" means an identified parcel or tract of land, including any improvements.

"Real estate related financial transaction" means any transaction involving:

(1) the sale, lease, purchase, investment in, or exchange of real property, including interests in property or the financing thereof;

(2) the refinancing of real property or interests in real property; and

(3) the use of real property or interest in property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage backed securities.

"Real property" means the interests, benefits, and rights inherent in the ownership of real estate.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Secretary's designee.

"State certified general real estate appraiser" means an appraiser who holds a license of this classification under this Act and such classification applies to the appraisal of all types of real property without restrictions as to the scope of practice.

"State certified residential real estate appraiser" means an appraiser who holds a license of this classification under this Act and such classification applies to the appraisal of one to 4 units of residential real property without regard to transaction value or complexity, but with restrictions as to the scope of practice in a federally related transaction in accordance with Title XI, the provisions of USPAP, criteria established by the AQB, and further defined by rule.

"Supervising appraiser" means either (i) an appraiser who holds a valid license under this Act as either a State certified general real estate appraiser or a State certified residential real estate appraiser, who co-signs an appraisal report for an associate real estate trainee appraiser or (ii) a State certified general real estate appraiser who holds a valid license under this Act who co-signs an appraisal report for a State certified residential real estate appraiser on properties other than one to 4 units of residential real property without regard to transaction value or complexity.

"Title XI" means Title XI of the federal Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989.

"USPAP" means the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice as promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board pursuant to Title XI and by rule.

"Valuation services" means services pertaining to aspects of property value.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; revised 7-20-21.)

(225 ILCS 458/25-20)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 25-20. Department; powers and duties. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall exercise the powers and duties prescribed by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois for the administration of licensing Acts and shall exercise such other powers and duties as are prescribed by this Act for the administration of this Act. The Department may contract with third parties for services necessary for the proper administration of this Act, including, without limitation, investigators with the proper knowledge, training, and skills to properly investigate complaints against real estate appraisers.

In addition, the Department may receive federal financial assistance, either directly from the federal government or indirectly through another source, public or private, for the administration of this Act. The Department may also receive transfers, gifts, grants, or donations from any source, public or private, in the form of funds, services, equipment, supplies, or materials. Any funds received pursuant to this Section shall be deposited in the Appraisal Administration Fund unless deposit in a different fund is otherwise mandated, and shall be used in accordance with the requirements of the federal financial assistance, gift, grant, or donation for purposes related to the powers and duties of the Department.

The Department shall maintain and update a registry of the names and addresses of all licensees and a listing of disciplinary orders issued pursuant to this Act and shall transmit the registry, along with any national registry fees that may be required, to the entity specified by, and in a manner consistent with, Title XI of the federal Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-17-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 25-20. Department; powers and duties. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall exercise the powers and duties prescribed by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois for the administration of licensing Acts and shall exercise such other powers and duties as are prescribed by this Act for the administration of this Act. The Department may contract with third parties for services necessary for the proper administration of this Act, including, without limitation, investigators with the proper knowledge, training, and skills to investigate complaints against real estate appraisers.

In addition, the Department may receive federal financial assistance, either directly from the federal government or indirectly through another source, public or private, for the administration of this Act. The Department may also receive transfers, gifts, grants, or donations from any source, public or private, in the form of funds, services, equipment, supplies, or materials. Any funds received pursuant to this Section shall be deposited in the Appraisal Administration Fund unless deposit in a different fund is otherwise mandated, and shall be used in accordance with the requirements of the federal financial assistance, gift, grant, or donation for purposes related to the powers and duties of the Department.

The Department shall maintain and update a registry of the names and addresses of all licensees and a listing of disciplinary orders issued pursuant to this Act and shall transmit the registry, along with any national registry fees that may be required, to the entity specified by, and in a manner consistent with, Title XI of the federal Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; revised 7-17-21.)

Section 150. The Appraisal Management Company Registration Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 459/10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-20)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Address of record" means the principal address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or registrant's application file or registration file maintained by the Department's registration maintenance unit.

"Applicant" means a person or entity who applies to the Department for a registration under this Act.

"Appraisal" means (noun) the act or process of developing an opinion of value; an opinion of value (adjective) of or pertaining to appraising and related functions.

"Appraisal firm" means an appraisal entity that is 100% owned and controlled by a person or persons licensed in Illinois as a certified general real estate appraiser or a certified residential real estate appraiser. An appraisal firm does not include an appraisal management company.

"Appraisal management company" means any corporation, limited liability company, partnership, sole proprietorship, subsidiary, unit, or other business entity that directly or indirectly: (1) provides appraisal management services to creditors or secondary mortgage market participants; (2) provides appraisal management services in connection with valuing the consumer's principal dwelling as security for a consumer credit transaction (including consumer credit transactions incorporated into securitizations); (3) within a given year, oversees an appraiser panel of any size of State-certified appraisers in Illinois; and (4) any appraisal management company that, within a given year, oversees an appraiser panel of 16 or more State-certified appraisers in Illinois or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in 2 or more jurisdictions shall be subject to the appraisal management company national registry fee in addition to the appraiser panel fee. "Appraisal management company" includes a hybrid entity.

"Appraisal management company national registry fee" means the fee implemented pursuant to Title XI of the federal Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 for an appraiser management company's national registry.

"Appraisal management services" means one or more of the following:

(1) recruiting, selecting, and retaining appraisers;

(2) contracting with State-certified or State-licensed appraisers to perform appraisal assignments;

(3) managing the process of having an appraisal performed, including providing administrative services such as receiving appraisal orders and appraisal reports; submitting completed appraisal reports to creditors and secondary market participants; collecting compensation from creditors, underwriters, or secondary market participants for services provided; or paying appraisers for services performed; or

(4) reviewing and verifying the work of appraisers.

"Appraiser panel" means a network, list, or roster of licensed or certified appraisers approved by the appraisal management company or by the end-user client to perform appraisals for the appraisal management company. "Appraiser panel" includes both appraisers accepted by an appraisal management company for consideration for future appraisal assignments and appraisers engaged by an appraisal management company to perform one or more appraisals.

"Appraiser panel fee" means the amount collected from a registrant that, where applicable, includes an appraisal management company's national registry fee.

"Appraisal report" means a written appraisal by an appraiser to a client.

"Appraisal practice service" means valuation services performed by an individual acting as an appraiser, including, but not limited to, appraisal or appraisal review.

"Appraisal subcommittee" means the appraisal subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council as established by Title XI.

"Appraiser" means a person who performs real estate or real property appraisals.

"Assignment result" means an appraiser's opinions and conclusions developed specific to an assignment.

"Audit" includes, but is not limited to, an annual or special audit, visit, or review necessary under this Act or required by the Secretary or the Secretary's authorized representative in carrying out the duties and responsibilities under this Act.

"Client" means the party or parties who engage an appraiser by employment or contract in a specific appraisal assignment.

"Controlling person Person" means:

(1) an owner, officer, or director of an entity seeking to offer appraisal management services;

(2) an individual employed, appointed, or authorized by an appraisal management company who has the authority to:

(A) enter into a contractual relationship with a client for the performance of an appraisal management service or appraisal practice service; and

(B) enter into an agreement with an appraiser for the performance of a real estate appraisal activity;

(3) an individual who possesses, directly or indirectly, the power to direct or cause the direction of the management or policies of an appraisal management company; or

(4) an individual who will act as the sole compliance officer with regard to this Act and any rules adopted under this Act.

"Coordinator" means the Coordinator of the Appraisal Management Company Registration Unit of the Department or his or her designee.

"Covered transaction" means a consumer credit transaction secured by a consumer's principal dwelling.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Email address of record" means the designated email address recorded by the Department in the applicant's application file or the registrant's registration file maintained by the Department's registration maintenance unit.

"Entity" means a corporation, a limited liability company, partnership, a sole proprietorship, or other entity providing services or holding itself out to provide services as an appraisal management company or an appraisal management service.

"End-user client" means any person who utilizes or engages the services of an appraiser through an appraisal management company.

"Federally regulated appraisal management company" means an appraisal management company that is owned and controlled by an insured depository institution, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813, or an insured credit union, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1752, and regulated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Reserve Board, the National Credit Union Association, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

"Financial institution" means any bank, savings bank, savings and loan association, credit union, mortgage broker, mortgage banker, registrant under the Consumer Installment Loan Act or the Sales Finance Agency Act, or a corporate fiduciary, subsidiary, affiliate, parent company, or holding company of any registrant, or any institution involved in real estate financing that is regulated by State or federal law.

"Foreign appraisal management company" means any appraisal management company organized under the laws of any other state of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any other jurisdiction of the United States.

"Hybrid entity" means an appraisal management company that hires an appraiser as an employee to perform an appraisal and engages an independent contractor to perform an appraisal.

"Multi-state licensing system" means a web-based platform that allows an applicant to submit his or her application or registration renewal to the Department online.

"Person" means individuals, entities, sole proprietorships, corporations, limited liability companies, and alien, foreign, or domestic partnerships, except that when the context otherwise requires, the term may refer to a single individual or other described entity.

"Principal dwelling" means a residential structure that contains one to 4 units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. "Principal dwelling" includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, manufactured home, mobile home, and trailer, if it is used as a residence.

"Principal office" means the actual, physical business address, which shall not be a post office box or a virtual business address, of a registrant, at which (i) the Department may contact the registrant and (ii) records required under this Act are maintained.

"Qualified to transact business in this State" means being in compliance with the requirements of the Business Corporation Act of 1983.

"Quality control review" means a review of an appraisal report for compliance and completeness, including grammatical, typographical, or other similar errors, unrelated to developing an opinion of value.

"Real estate" means an identified parcel or tract of land, including any improvements.

"Real estate related financial transaction" means any transaction involving:

(1) the sale, lease, purchase, investment in, or exchange of real property, including interests in property or the financing thereof;

(2) the refinancing of real property or interests in real property; and

(3) the use of real property or interest in property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage backed securities.

"Real property" means the interests, benefits, and rights inherent in the ownership of real estate.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"USPAP" means the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice as adopted by the Appraisal Standards Board under Title XI.

"Valuation" means any estimate of the value of real property in connection with a creditor's decision to provide credit, including those values developed under a policy of a government sponsored enterprise or by an automated valuation model or other methodology or mechanism.

"Written notice" means a communication transmitted by mail or by electronic means that can be verified between an appraisal management company and a licensed or certified real estate appraiser.

(Source: P.A. 100-604, eff. 7-13-18; revised 8-2-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-20)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Address of record" means the principal address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or registrant's application file or registration file maintained by the Department's registration maintenance unit.

"Applicant" means a person or entity who applies to the Department for a registration under this Act.

"Appraisal" means (noun) the act or process of developing an opinion of value; an opinion of value (adjective) of or pertaining to appraising and related functions.

"Appraisal firm" means an appraisal entity that is 100% owned and controlled by a person or persons licensed in Illinois as a certified general real estate appraiser or a certified residential real estate appraiser. An appraisal firm does not include an appraisal management company.

"Appraisal management company" means any corporation, limited liability company, partnership, sole proprietorship, subsidiary, unit, or other business entity that directly or indirectly: (1) provides appraisal management services to creditors or secondary mortgage market participants, including affiliates; (2) provides appraisal management services in connection with valuing the consumer's principal dwelling as security for a consumer credit transaction (including consumer credit transactions incorporated into securitizations); and (3) any appraisal management company that, within a given 12-month period, oversees an appraiser panel of 16 or more State-certified appraisers in Illinois or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in 2 or more jurisdictions. "Appraisal management company" includes a hybrid entity.

"Appraisal management company national registry fee" means the fee implemented pursuant to Title XI of the federal Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 for an appraiser management company's national registry.

"Appraisal management services" means one or more of the following:

(1) recruiting, selecting, and retaining appraisers;

(2) contracting with State-certified or State-licensed appraisers to perform appraisal assignments;

(3) managing the process of having an appraisal performed, including providing administrative services such as receiving appraisal orders and appraisal reports; submitting completed appraisal reports to creditors and secondary market participants; collecting compensation from creditors, underwriters, or secondary market participants for services provided; or paying appraisers for services performed; or

(4) reviewing and verifying the work of appraisers.

"Appraiser panel" means a network, list, or roster of licensed or certified appraisers approved by the appraisal management company or by the end-user client to perform appraisals as independent contractors for the appraisal management company. "Appraiser panel" includes both appraisers accepted by an appraisal management company for consideration for future appraisal assignments and appraisers engaged by an appraisal management company to perform one or more appraisals. For the purposes of determining the size of an appraiser panel, only independent contractors of hybrid entities shall be counted towards the appraiser panel.

"Appraiser panel fee" means the amount collected from a registrant that, where applicable, includes an appraisal management company's national registry fee.

"Appraisal report" means a written appraisal by an appraiser to a client.

"Appraisal practice service" means valuation services performed by an individual acting as an appraiser, including, but not limited to, appraisal or appraisal review.

"Appraisal subcommittee" means the appraisal subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council as established by Title XI.

"Appraiser" means a person who performs real estate or real property appraisals.

"Assignment result" means an appraiser's opinions and conclusions developed specific to an assignment.

"Audit" includes, but is not limited to, an annual or special audit, visit, or review necessary under this Act or required by the Secretary or the Secretary's authorized representative in carrying out the duties and responsibilities under this Act.

"Client" means the party or parties who engage an appraiser by employment or contract in a specific appraisal assignment.

"Controlling person Person" means:

(1) an owner, officer, or director of an entity seeking to offer appraisal management services;

(2) an individual employed, appointed, or authorized by an appraisal management company who has the authority to:

(A) enter into a contractual relationship with a client for the performance of an appraisal management service or appraisal practice service; and

(B) enter into an agreement with an appraiser for the performance of a real estate appraisal activity;

(3) an individual who possesses, directly or indirectly, the power to direct or cause the direction of the management or policies of an appraisal management company; or

(4) an individual who will act as the sole compliance officer with regard to this Act and any rules adopted under this Act.

"Covered transaction" means a consumer credit transaction secured by a consumer's principal dwelling.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Email address of record" means the designated email address recorded by the Department in the applicant's application file or the registrant's registration file maintained by the Department's registration maintenance unit.

"Entity" means a corporation, a limited liability company, partnership, a sole proprietorship, or other entity providing services or holding itself out to provide services as an appraisal management company or an appraisal management service.

"End-user client" means any person who utilizes or engages the services of an appraiser through an appraisal management company.

"Federally regulated appraisal management company" means an appraisal management company that is owned and controlled by an insured depository institution, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813, or an insured credit union, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1752, and regulated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Reserve Board, the National Credit Union Association, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

"Financial institution" means any bank, savings bank, savings and loan association, credit union, mortgage broker, mortgage banker, registrant under the Consumer Installment Loan Act or the Sales Finance Agency Act, or a corporate fiduciary, subsidiary, affiliate, parent company, or holding company of any registrant, or any institution involved in real estate financing that is regulated by State or federal law.

"Foreign appraisal management company" means any appraisal management company organized under the laws of any other state of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any other jurisdiction of the United States.

"Hybrid entity" means an appraisal management company that hires an appraiser as an employee to perform an appraisal and engages an independent contractor to perform an appraisal.

"Multi-state licensing system" means a web-based platform that allows an applicant to submit the application or registration renewal to the Department online.

"Person" means individuals, entities, sole proprietorships, corporations, limited liability companies, and alien, foreign, or domestic partnerships, except that when the context otherwise requires, the term may refer to a single individual or other described entity.

"Principal dwelling" means a residential structure that contains one to 4 units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. "Principal dwelling" includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, manufactured home, mobile home, and trailer, if it is used as a residence.

"Principal office" means the actual, physical business address, which shall not be a post office box or a virtual business address, of a registrant, at which (i) the Department may contact the registrant and (ii) records required under this Act are maintained.

"Qualified to transact business in this State" means being in compliance with the requirements of the Business Corporation Act of 1983.

"Quality control review" means a review of an appraisal report for compliance and completeness, including grammatical, typographical, or other similar errors, unrelated to developing an opinion of value.

"Real estate" means an identified parcel or tract of land, including any improvements.

"Real estate related financial transaction" means any transaction involving:

(1) the sale, lease, purchase, investment in, or exchange of real property, including interests in property or the financing thereof;

(2) the refinancing of real property or interests in real property; and

(3) the use of real property or interest in property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage backed securities.

"Real property" means the interests, benefits, and rights inherent in the ownership of real estate.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"USPAP" means the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice as adopted by the Appraisal Standards Board under Title XI.

"Valuation" means any estimate of the value of real property in connection with a creditor's decision to provide credit, including those values developed under a policy of a government sponsored enterprise or by an automated valuation model or other methodology or mechanism.

"Written notice" means a communication transmitted by mail or by electronic means that can be verified between an appraisal management company and a licensed or certified real estate appraiser.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; revised 8-2-21.)

Section 155. The Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act is amended by changing Section 1-77 as follows:

(225 ILCS 732/1-77)

Sec. 1-77. Chemical disclosure; trade secret protection.

(a) If the chemical disclosure information required by paragraph (8) of subsection (b) of Section 1-35 of this Act is not submitted at the time of permit application, then the permittee, applicant, or person who will perform high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations at the well shall submit this information to the Department in electronic format no less than 21 calendar days prior to performing the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations. The permittee shall not cause or allow any stimulation of the well if it is not in compliance with this Section. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the person performing high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations from adjusting or altering the contents of the fluid during the treatment process to respond to unexpected conditions, as long as the permittee or the person performing the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations notifies the Department by electronic mail within 24 hours of the departure from the initial treatment design and includes a brief explanation of the reason for the departure.

(b) No permittee shall use the services of another person to perform high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations unless the person is in compliance with this Section.

(c) Any person performing high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations within this State shall:

(1) be authorized to do business in this State; and

(2) maintain and disclose to the Department separate and up-to-date master lists of:

(A) the base fluid to be used during any high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations within this State;

(B) all hydraulic fracturing additives to be used during any high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations within this State; and

(C) all chemicals and associated Chemical Abstract Service numbers to be used in any high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations within this State.

(d) Persons performing high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations are prohibited from using any base fluid, hydraulic fracturing additive, or chemical not listed on their master lists disclosed under paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

(e) The Department shall assemble and post up-to-date copies of the master lists it receives under paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section on its website in accordance with Section 1-110 of this Act.

(f) Where an applicant, permittee, or the person performing high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations furnishes chemical disclosure information to the Department under this Section, Section 1-35, or Section 1-75 of this Act under a claim of trade secret, the applicant, permittee, or person performing high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations shall submit redacted and un-redacted copies of the documents containing the information to the Department and the Department shall use the redacted copies when posting materials on its website.

(g) Upon submission or within 5 calendar days of submission of chemical disclosure information to the Department under this Section, Section 1-35, or Section 1-75 of this Act under a claim of trade secret, the person that claimed trade secret protection shall provide a justification of the claim containing the following: a detailed description of the procedures used by the person to safeguard the information from becoming available to persons other than those selected by the person to have access to the information for limited purposes; a detailed statement identifying the persons or class of persons to whom the information has been disclosed; a certification that the person has no knowledge that the information has ever been published or disseminated or has otherwise become a matter of general public knowledge; a detailed discussion of why the person believes the information to be of competitive value; and any other information that shall support the claim.

(h) Chemical disclosure information furnished under this Section, Section 1-35, or Section 1-75 of this Act under a claim of trade secret shall be protected from disclosure as a trade secret if the Department determines that the statement of justification demonstrates that:

(1) the information has not been published, disseminated, or otherwise become a matter of general public knowledge; and

(2) the information has competitive value.

There is a rebuttable presumption that the information has not been published, disseminated, or otherwise become a matter of general public knowledge if the person has taken reasonable measures to prevent the information from becoming available to persons other than those selected by the person to have access to the information for limited purposes and the statement of justification contains a certification that the person has no knowledge that the information has ever been published, disseminated, or otherwise become a matter of general public knowledge.

(i) Denial of a trade secret request under this Section shall be appealable under the Administrative Review Law.

(j) A person whose request to inspect or copy a public record is denied, in whole or in part, because of a grant of trade secret protection may file a request for review with the Public Access Counselor under Section 9.5 of the Freedom of Information Act or for injunctive or declaratory relief under Section 11 of the Freedom of Information Act for the purpose of reviewing whether the Department properly determined that the trade secret protection should be granted.

(k) Except as otherwise provided in subsections (l) and (m) of this Section, the Department must maintain the confidentiality of chemical disclosure information furnished under this Section, Section 1-35, or Section 1-75 of this Act under a claim of trade secret, until the Department receives official notification of a final order by a reviewing body with proper jurisdiction that is not subject to further appeal rejecting a grant of trade secret protection for that information.

(l) The Department shall adopt rules for the provision of information furnished under a claim of trade secret to a health professional who states a need for the information and articulates why the information is needed. The health professional may share that information with other persons as may be professionally necessary, including, but not limited to, the affected patient, other health professionals involved in the treatment of the affected patient, the affected patient's family members if the affected patient is unconscious, is unable to make medical decisions, or is a minor, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other government public health agencies. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, any recipient of the information shall not use the information for purposes other than the health needs asserted in the request and shall otherwise maintain the information as confidential. Information so disclosed to a health professional shall in no way be construed as publicly available. The holder of the trade secret may request a confidentiality agreement consistent with the requirements of this Section from all health professionals to whom the information is disclosed as soon as circumstances permit. The rules adopted by the Department shall also establish procedures for providing the information in both emergency and non-emergency situations.

(m) In the event of a release of hydraulic fracturing fluid, a hydraulic fracturing additive, or hydraulic fracturing flowback, and when necessary to protect public health or the environment, the Department may disclose information furnished under a claim of trade secret to the relevant county public health director or emergency manager, the relevant fire department chief, the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health, the Director of the Illinois Department of Agriculture, and the Director of the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency upon request by that individual. The Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health, and the Director of the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, and the Director of the Illinois Department of Agriculture may disclose this information to staff members under the same terms and conditions as apply to the Director of Natural Resources. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, any recipient of the information shall not use the information for purposes other than to protect public health or the environment and shall otherwise maintain the information as confidential. Information disclosed to staff shall in no way be construed as publicly available. The holder of the trade secret information may request a confidentiality agreement consistent with the requirements of this Section from all persons to whom the information is disclosed as soon as circumstances permit.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 160. The Sports Wagering Act is amended by changing Section 25-90 as follows:

(230 ILCS 45/25-90)

Sec. 25-90. Tax; Sports Wagering Fund.

(a) For the privilege of holding a license to operate sports wagering under this Act, this State shall impose and collect 15% of a master sports wagering licensee's adjusted gross sports wagering receipts from sports wagering. The accrual method of accounting shall be used for purposes of calculating the amount of the tax owed by the licensee.

The taxes levied and collected pursuant to this subsection (a) are due and payable to the Board no later than the last day of the month following the calendar month in which the adjusted gross sports wagering receipts were received and the tax obligation was accrued.

(a-5) In addition to the tax imposed under subsection (a) of this Section, for the privilege of holding a license to operate sports wagering under this Act, the State shall impose and collect 2% of the adjusted gross receipts from sports wagers that are placed within a home rule county with a population of over 3,000,000 inhabitants, which shall be paid, subject to appropriation from the General Assembly, from the Sports Wagering Fund to that home rule county for the purpose of enhancing the county's criminal justice system.

(b) The Sports Wagering Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State treasury. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, all moneys collected under this Act by the Board shall be deposited into the Sports Wagering Fund. On the 25th of each month, any moneys remaining in the Sports Wagering Fund in excess of the anticipated monthly expenditures from the Fund through the next month, as certified by the Board to the State Comptroller, shall be transferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer to the Capital Projects Fund.

(c) Beginning with July 2021, and on a monthly basis thereafter, the Board shall certify to the State Comptroller the amount of license fees collected in the month for initial licenses issued under this Act, except for occupational licenses. As soon after certification as practicable, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the certified amount from the Sports Wagering Fund to the Rebuild Illinois Projects Fund.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 165. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-5.7a and 5-5e as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.7a)

Sec. 5-5.7a. Pandemic related stability payments for health care providers. Notwithstanding other provisions of law, and in accordance with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop a process to distribute pandemic related stability payments, from federal sources dedicated for such purposes, to health care providers that are providing care to recipients under the Medical Assistance Program. For provider types serving residents who are recipients of medical assistance under this Code and are funded by other State agencies, the Department will coordinate the distribution process of the pandemic related stability payments. Federal sources dedicated to pandemic related payments include, but are not limited to, funds distributed to the State of Illinois from the Coronavirus Relief Fund pursuant to the Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Security Act ("CARES Act") and from the Coronavirus State Fiscal Recovery Fund pursuant to Section 9901 of the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021, that are appropriated to the Department during Fiscal Years 2020, 2021, and 2022 for purposes permitted by those federal laws and related federal guidance.

(1) Pandemic related stability payments for these providers shall be separate and apart from any rate methodology otherwise defined in this Code to the extent permitted in accordance with Section 5001 of the CARES Act and Section 9901 of the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 and any related federal guidance.

(2) Payments made from moneys received from the Coronavirus Relief Fund shall be used exclusively for expenses incurred by the providers that are eligible for reimbursement from the Coronavirus Relief Fund in accordance with Section 5001 of the CARES Act and related federal guidance. Payments made from moneys received from the Coronavirus State Fiscal Recovery Fund shall be used exclusively for purposes permitted by Section 9901 of the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 and related federal guidance.

(3) All providers receiving pandemic related stability payments shall attest in a format to be created by the Department and be able to demonstrate that their expenses are pandemic related, were not part of their annual budgets established before March 1, 2020, and are directly associated with health care needs.

(4) Pandemic related stability payments will be distributed based on a schedule and framework to be established by the Department with recognition of the pandemic related acuity of the situation for each provider, taking into account the factors including, but not limited to, the following: ;

(A) the impact of the pandemic on patients served, impact on staff, and shortages of the personal protective equipment necessary for infection control efforts for all providers;

(B) COVID-19 positivity rates among staff, or patients, or both;

(C) pandemic related workforce challenges and costs associated with temporary wage increases associated with pandemic related hazard pay programs, or costs associated with which providers do not have enough staff to adequately provide care and protection to the residents and other staff;

(D) providers with significant reductions in utilization that result in corresponding reductions in revenue as a result of the pandemic, including, but not limited to, the cancellation or postponement of elective procedures and visits;

(E) pandemic related payments received directly by the providers through other federal resources;

(F) current efforts to respond to and provide services to communities disproportionately impacted by the COVID-19 public health emergency, including low-income and socially vulnerable communities that have seen the most severe health impacts and exacerbated health inequities along racial, ethnic, and socioeconomic lines; and

(G) provider needs for capital improvements to existing facilities, including upgrades to HVAC and ventilation systems and capital improvements for enhancing infection control or reducing crowding, which may include bed-buybacks.

(5) Pandemic related stability payments made from moneys received from the Coronavirus Relief Fund will be distributed to providers based on a methodology to be administered by the Department with amounts determined by a calculation of total federal pandemic related funds appropriated by the Illinois General Assembly for this purpose. Providers receiving the pandemic related stability payments will attest to their increased costs, declining revenues, and receipt of additional pandemic related funds directly from the federal government.

(6) Of the payments provided for by this Section made from moneys received from the Coronavirus Relief Fund, a minimum of 30% shall be allotted for health care providers that serve the ZIP codes located in the most disproportionately impacted areas of Illinois, based on positive COVID-19 cases based on data collected by the Department of Public Health and provided to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(7) From funds appropriated, directly or indirectly, from moneys received by the State from the Coronavirus State Fiscal Recovery Fund for Fiscal Years 2021 and 2022, the Department shall expend such funds only for purposes permitted by Section 9901 of the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 and related federal guidance. Such expenditures may include, but are not limited to: payments to providers for costs incurred due to the COVID-19 public health emergency; unreimbursed costs for testing and treatment of uninsured Illinois residents; costs of COVID-19 mitigation and prevention; medical expenses related to aftercare or extended care for COVID-19 patients with longer term symptoms and effects; costs of behavioral health care; costs of public health and safety staff; and expenditures permitted in order to address (i) disparities in public health outcomes, (ii) nursing and other essential health care workforce investments, (iii) exacerbation of pre-existing disparities, and (iv) promoting healthy childhood environments.

(8) From funds appropriated, directly or indirectly, from moneys received by the State from the Coronavirus State Fiscal Recovery Fund for Fiscal Years 2022 and 2023, the Department shall establish a program for making payments to long term care service providers and facilities, for purposes related to financial support for workers in the long term care industry, but only as permitted by either the CARES Act or Section 9901 of the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 and related federal guidance, including, but not limited to the following: monthly amounts of $25,000,000 per month for July 2021, August 2021, and September 2021 where at least 50% of the funds in July shall be passed directly to front line workers and an additional 12.5% more in each of the next 2 months; financial support programs for providers enhancing direct care staff recruitment efforts through the payment of education expenses; and financial support programs for providers offering enhanced and expanded training for all levels of the long term care healthcare workforce to achieve better patient outcomes, such as training on infection control, proper personal protective equipment, best practices in quality of care, and culturally competent patient communications. The Department shall have the authority to audit and potentially recoup funds not utilized as outlined and attested.

(9) From funds appropriated, directly or indirectly, from moneys received by the State from the Coronavirus State Fiscal Recovery Fund for Fiscal Years 2022 through 2024 the Department shall establish a program for making payments to facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act and facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. To the extent permitted by Section 9901 of the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 and related federal guidance, the program shall provide payments for making permanent improvements to resident rooms in order to improve resident outcomes and infection control. Funds may be used to reduce bed capacity and room occupancy. To be eligible for funding, a facility must submit an application to the Department as prescribed by the Department and as published on its website. A facility may need to receive approval from the Health Facilities and Services Review Board for the permanent improvements or the removal of the beds before it can receive payment under this paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-16-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5e)

Sec. 5-5e. Adjusted rates of reimbursement.

(a) Rates or payments for services in effect on June 30, 2012 shall be adjusted and services shall be affected as required by any other provision of Public Act 97-689. In addition, the Department shall do the following:

(1) Delink the per diem rate paid for supportive living facility services from the per diem rate paid for nursing facility services, effective for services provided on or after May 1, 2011 and before July 1, 2019.

(2) Cease payment for bed reserves in nursing facilities and specialized mental health rehabilitation facilities; for purposes of therapeutic home visits for individuals scoring as TBI on the MDS 3.0, beginning June 1, 2015, the Department shall approve payments for bed reserves in nursing facilities and specialized mental health rehabilitation facilities that have at least a 90% occupancy level and at least 80% of their residents are Medicaid eligible. Payment shall be at a daily rate of 75% of an individual's current Medicaid per diem and shall not exceed 10 days in a calendar month.

(2.5) Cease payment for bed reserves for purposes of inpatient hospitalizations to intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities, except in the instance of residents who are under 21 years of age.

(3) Cease payment of the $10 per day add-on payment to nursing facilities for certain residents with developmental disabilities.

(b) After the application of subsection (a), notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary and to the extent permitted by federal law, on and after July 1, 2012, the rates of reimbursement for services and other payments provided under this Code shall further be reduced as follows:

(1) Rates or payments for physician services, dental services, or community health center services reimbursed through an encounter rate, and services provided under the Medicaid Rehabilitation Option of the Illinois Title XIX State Plan shall not be further reduced, except as provided in Section 5-5b.1.

(2) Rates or payments, or the portion thereof, paid to a provider that is operated by a unit of local government or State University that provides the non-federal share of such services shall not be further reduced, except as provided in Section 5-5b.1.

(3) Rates or payments for hospital services delivered by a hospital defined as a Safety-Net Hospital under Section 5-5e.1 of this Code shall not be further reduced, except as provided in Section 5-5b.1.

(4) Rates or payments for hospital services delivered by a Critical Access Hospital, which is an Illinois hospital designated as a critical care hospital by the Department of Public Health in accordance with 42 CFR 485, Subpart F, shall not be further reduced, except as provided in Section 5-5b.1.

(5) Rates or payments for Nursing Facility Services shall only be further adjusted pursuant to Section 5-5.2 of this Code.

(6) Rates or payments for services delivered by long term care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act and developmental training services shall not be further reduced.

(7) Rates or payments for services provided under capitation rates shall be adjusted taking into consideration the rates reduction and covered services required by Public Act 97-689.

(8) For hospitals not previously described in this subsection, the rates or payments for hospital services provided before July 1, 2021, shall be further reduced by 3.5%, except for payments authorized under Section 5A-12.4 of this Code. For hospital services provided on or after July 1, 2021, all rates for hospital services previously reduced pursuant to Public Act P.A. 97-689 shall be increased to reflect the discontinuation of any hospital rate reductions authorized in this paragraph (8).

(9) For all other rates or payments for services delivered by providers not specifically referenced in paragraphs (1) through (7), rates or payments shall be further reduced by 2.7%.

(c) Any assessment imposed by this Code shall continue and nothing in this Section shall be construed to cause it to cease.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, subject to federal approval under Title XIX of the Social Security Act, for dates of service on and after July 1, 2014, rates or payments for services provided for the purpose of transitioning children from a hospital to home placement or other appropriate setting by a children's community-based health care center authorized under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act shall be $683 per day.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-649, eff. 7-7-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 170. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Section 55-28 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/55-28)

Sec. 55-28. Restricted cannabis zones.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Legal voter" means a person:

(1) who is duly registered to vote in a municipality with a population of over 500,000;

(2) whose name appears on a poll list compiled by the city board of election commissioners since the last preceding election, regardless of whether the election was a primary, general, or special election;

(3) who, at the relevant time, is a resident of the address at which he or she is registered to vote; and

(4) whose address, at the relevant time, is located in the precinct where such person seeks to file a notice of intent to initiate a petition process, circulate a petition, or sign a petition under this Section.

As used in the definition of "legal voter", "relevant time" means any time that:

(i) a notice of intent is filed, pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, to initiate the petition process under this Section;

(ii) the petition is circulated for signature in the applicable precinct; or

(iii) the petition is signed by registered voters in the applicable precinct.

"Petition" means the petition described in this Section.

"Precinct" means the smallest constituent territory within a municipality with a population of over 500,000 in which electors vote as a unit at the same polling place in any election governed by the Election Code.

"Restricted cannabis zone" means a precinct within which home cultivation, one or more types of cannabis business establishments, or both has been prohibited pursuant to an ordinance initiated by a petition under this Section.

(b) The legal voters of any precinct within a municipality with a population of over 500,000 may petition their local alderperson, using a petition form made available online by the city clerk, to introduce an ordinance establishing the precinct as a restricted zone. Such petition shall specify whether it seeks an ordinance to prohibit, within the precinct: (i) home cultivation; (ii) one or more types of cannabis business establishments; or (iii) home cultivation and one or more types of cannabis business establishments.

Upon receiving a petition containing the signatures of at least 25% of the registered voters of the precinct, and concluding that the petition is legally sufficient following the posting and review process in subsection (c) of this Section, the city clerk shall notify the local alderperson of the ward in which the precinct is located. Upon being notified, that alderperson, following an assessment of relevant factors within the precinct, including, but not limited to, its geography, density and character, the prevalence of residentially zoned property, current licensed cannabis business establishments in the precinct, the current amount of home cultivation in the precinct, and the prevailing viewpoint with regard to the issue raised in the petition, may introduce an ordinance to the municipality's governing body creating a restricted cannabis zone in that precinct.

(c) A person seeking to initiate the petition process described in this Section shall first submit to the city clerk notice of intent to do so, on a form made available online by the city clerk. That notice shall include a description of the potentially affected area and the scope of the restriction sought. The city clerk shall publicly post the submitted notice online.

To be legally sufficient, a petition must contain the requisite number of valid signatures and all such signatures must be obtained within 90 days of the date that the city clerk publicly posts the notice of intent. Upon receipt, the city clerk shall post the petition on the municipality's website for a 30-day comment period. The city clerk is authorized to take all necessary and appropriate steps to verify the legal sufficiency of a submitted petition. Following the petition review and comment period, the city clerk shall publicly post online the status of the petition as accepted or rejected, and if rejected, the reasons therefor. If the city clerk rejects a petition as legally insufficient, a minimum of 12 months must elapse from the time the city clerk posts the rejection notice before a new notice of intent for that same precinct may be submitted.

(c-5) Within 3 days after receiving an application for zoning approval to locate a cannabis business establishment within a municipality with a population of over 500,000, the municipality shall post a public notice of the filing on its website and notify the alderperson alderman of the ward in which the proposed cannabis business establishment is to be located of the filing. No action shall be taken on the zoning application for 7 business days following the notice of the filing for zoning approval.

If a notice of intent to initiate the petition process to prohibit the type of cannabis business establishment proposed in the precinct of the proposed cannabis business establishment is filed prior to the filing of the application or within the 7-day period after the filing of the application, the municipality shall not approve the application for at least 90 days after the city clerk publicly posts the notice of intent to initiate the petition process. If a petition is filed within the 90-day petition-gathering period described in subsection (c), the municipality shall not approve the application for an additional 90 days after the city clerk's receipt of the petition; provided that if the city clerk rejects a petition as legally insufficient, the municipality may approve the application prior to the end of the 90 days. If a petition is not submitted within the 90-day petition-gathering period described in subsection (c), the municipality may approve the application unless the approval is otherwise stayed pursuant to this subsection by a separate notice of intent to initiate the petition process filed timely within the 7-day period.

If no legally sufficient petition is timely filed, a minimum of 12 months must elapse before a new notice of intent for that same precinct may be submitted.

(d) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the municipality may enact an ordinance creating a restricted cannabis zone. The ordinance shall:

(1) identify the applicable precinct boundaries as of the date of the petition;

(2) state whether the ordinance prohibits within the defined boundaries of the precinct, and in what combination: (A) one or more types of cannabis business establishments; or (B) home cultivation;

(3) be in effect for 4 years, unless repealed earlier; and

(4) once in effect, be subject to renewal by ordinance at the expiration of the 4-year period without the need for another supporting petition.

(e) An Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License permitted to relocate under subsection (b-5) of Section 15-15 shall not relocate to a restricted cannabis zone.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; revised 8-3-21.)

Section 175. The Reimagine Public Safety Act is amended by changing Section 35-10 as follows:

(430 ILCS 69/35-10)

Sec. 35-10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Approved technical assistance and training provider" means an organization that has experience in improving the outcomes of local community-based organizations by providing supportive services that address the gaps in their resources and knowledge about content-based work or provide support and knowledge about the administration and management of organizations, or both. Approved technical assistance and training providers as defined in this Act are intended to assist community organizations with evaluating the need for evidence-based evidenced-based violence prevention services, promising violence prevention programs, starting up programming, and strengthening the quality of existing programming.

"Communities" means, for municipalities with a 1,000,000 or more population in Illinois, the 77 designated areas defined by the University of Chicago Social Science Research Committee as amended in 1980.

"Concentrated firearm violence" means the 17 most violent communities in Illinois municipalities greater than one million residents and the 10 most violent municipalities with less than 1,000,000 residents and greater than 25,000 residents with the most per capita firearm-shot incidents from January 1, 2016 through December 31, 2020.

"Criminal justice-involved" means an individual who has been arrested, indicted, convicted, adjudicated delinquent, or otherwise detained by criminal justice authorities for violation of Illinois criminal laws.

"Evidence-based high-risk youth intervention services" means programs that reduce involvement in the criminal justice system, increase school attendance, and refer high-risk teens into therapeutic programs that address trauma recovery and other mental health improvements based on best practices in the youth intervention services field.

"Evidence-based Evidenced-based violence prevention services" means coordinated programming and services that may include, but are not limited to, effective emotional or trauma related therapies, housing, employment training, job placement, family engagement, or wrap-around support services that are considered to be best practice for reducing violence within the field of violence intervention research and practice.

"Evidence-based youth development programs" means after-school and summer programming that provides services to teens to increase their school attendance, school performance, reduce involvement in the criminal justice system, and develop nonacademic interests that build social emotional persistence and intelligence based on best practices in the field of youth development services for high-risk youth.

"Options school" means a secondary school where 75% or more of attending students have either stopped attending or failed their secondary school courses since first attending ninth grade.

"Qualified violence prevention organization" means an organization that manages and employs qualified violence prevention professionals.

"Qualified violence prevention professional" means a community health worker who renders violence preventive services.

"Social organization" means an organization of individuals who form the organization for the purposes of enjoyment, work, and other mutual interests.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 180. The Judicial Districts Act of 2021 is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(705 ILCS 23/5)

Sec. 5. Legislative intent. The intent of this Act is to redraw the Judicial Districts to meet the requirements of the Illinois Constitution of 1970 by providing that outside of the First District the State "shall be divided by law into four Judicial Districts of substantially equal population, each of which shall be compact and composed of contiguous counties."

Section 2 of Article VI of the Illinois Constitution of 1970 divides the State into five Judicial Districts for the selection of Supreme and Appellate Court Judges, with Cook County comprising the First District and the remainder of the State "divided by law into four Judicial Districts of substantially equal population, each of which shall be compact and composed of contiguous counties." Further, Section 7 of Article VI provides that a Judicial Circuit must be located within one Judicial District, and also provides the First Judicial District is comprised of a judicial circuit and the remainder provided by law, subject to the requirement that Circuits composed of more than one county shall be compact and of contiguous counties. The current Judicial District map was enacted in 1963.

The current Judicial Districts do not meet the Constitution's requirement that four Districts other than the First District be of "substantially equal population." Using the American Community Survey data available at the time this Act is enacted, the population of the current First District is 5,198,212; the Second District is 3,204,960; the Third District is 1,782,863; the Fourth District is 1,299,747; and the Fifth District is 1,284,757.

Under this redistricting plan, the population, according to the American Community Survey, of the Second District will be 1,770,983; the Third District will be 1,950,349; the Fourth District will be 2,011,316; and the Fifth District will be 1,839,679. A similar substantially equitable result occurs using the 2010 U.S. Census data, the most recent decennial census data available at the time of this Act, with the population of the Second District being approximately 1,747,387; the Third District being 1,936,616; the Fourth District being 2,069,660; and the Fifth District being 1,882,294. Because of the constitutional requirement that a District be composed of whole counties, and given that actual population changes on a day-to-day basis, the populations are not and could never be exact, but the population of each of the four Districts created by this Act is substantially equal.

In addition to ensuring the population of the four Districts are substantially equal, this Act complies with Section 7 of Article VI of the Illinois Constitution of 1970, which provides that the First Judicial District shall be comprised of a Judicial Circuit, and the remaining Judicial Circuits shall be provided by law, and Circuits comprised of more than one county shall be compact and of contiguous counties. To comply with Section 7 of Article VI and minimize disruption to the administration of the Judicial Branch, this Act avoids changing the compositions and boundaries of the Judicial Circuits, while simultaneously creating substantially equally populated, compact, and contiguous Judicial Districts.

To further avoid any interruption to the administration of the Judicial Branch, this Act does not require that the Supreme Court change where the Appellate Courts currently reside. By Supreme Court Rule, the Second District Appellate Court currently sits in Elgin; the Third District Appellate Court currently sits in Ottawa; the Fourth District Appellate Court currently sits in Springfield; and the Fifth District Appellate Court currently sits in Mt. Vernon. Under this Act, the Supreme Court is not required to change where the Appellate Courts sit as those cities remain in the Second, Third, Fourth, and Fifth District respectively.

To ensure continuity of service and compliance with the Illinois Constitution of 1970, nothing in this Act is intended to affect the tenure of any Appellate or Supreme Court Judge elected or appointed prior to the effective date of this Act. In accordance with the Constitution, no change in the boundaries shall affect an incumbent judge's qualification for office or right to run for retention. Incumbent judges have the right to run for retention in the counties comprising the District that elected the judge, or in the counties comprising the new District where the judge resides, as the judge may elect. As provided by the Constitution, upon a vacancy in an elected Supreme or Appellate Court office, the Supreme Court may fill the vacancy until the vacancy is filled in the next general election in the counties comprising the District created by this Act.

Further, nothing in this Act is intended to alter or impair the ability of the Supreme Court to fulfill its obligations to ensure the proper administration of the Judicial Branch. For example, it remains within the purview of the Supreme Court to assign or reassign any judge to any court or determine assignment of additional judges to the Appellate Court. Section 1 of the Appellate Act provides that the "Supreme Court may assign additional judges to service in the Appellate Court from time to time as the business of the Appellate Court requires." Currently the Supreme Court has three judges on assignment to the Second District Appellate Court, whereas one judge is on assignment to the Third, Fourth, and Fifth Districts. Nothing in this Act seeks to alter any judicial assignments.

Finally, it is the intent of the General Assembly that any appealable order, as defined by Supreme Court Rules, entered prior to the effective date of this Act shall be subject to judicial review by the Judicial District in effect on the date the order was entered; however, the administrative and supervisory authority of the courts remains within the purview of the Supreme Court.

(Source: P.A. 102-11, eff. 6-4-21; revised 7-15-21.)

Section 185. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 7-5 and 7-5.5 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/7-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 7-5)

Sec. 7-5. Peace officer's use of force in making arrest.

(a) A peace officer, or any person whom he has summoned or directed to assist him, need not retreat or desist from efforts to make a lawful arrest because of resistance or threatened resistance to the arrest. He is justified in the use of any force which he reasonably believes, based on the totality of the circumstances, to be necessary to effect the arrest and of any force which he reasonably believes, based on the totality of the circumstances, to be necessary to defend himself or another from bodily harm while making the arrest. However, he is justified in using force likely to cause death or great bodily harm only when: (i) he reasonably believes, based on the totality of the circumstances, that such force is necessary to prevent death or great bodily harm to himself or such other person; or (ii) when he reasonably believes, based on the totality of the circumstances, both that:

(1) Such force is necessary to prevent the arrest from being defeated by resistance or escape and the officer reasonably believes that the person to be arrested is likely to cause great bodily harm to another; and

(2) The person to be arrested committed or attempted a forcible felony which involves the infliction or threatened infliction of great bodily harm or is attempting to escape by use of a deadly weapon, or otherwise indicates that he will endanger human life or inflict great bodily harm unless arrested without delay.

As used in this subsection, "retreat" does not mean tactical repositioning or other de-escalation tactics.

A peace officer is not justified in using force likely to cause death or great bodily harm when there is no longer an imminent threat of great bodily harm to the officer or another.

(a-5) Where feasible, a peace officer shall, prior to the use of force, make reasonable efforts to identify himself or herself as a peace officer and to warn that deadly force may be used.

(a-10) A peace officer shall not use deadly force against a person based on the danger that the person poses to himself or herself if a an reasonable officer would believe the person does not pose an imminent threat of death or great bodily harm to the peace officer or to another person.

(a-15) A peace officer shall not use deadly force against a person who is suspected of committing a property offense, unless that offense is terrorism or unless deadly force is otherwise authorized by law.

(b) A peace officer making an arrest pursuant to an invalid warrant is justified in the use of any force which he would be justified in using if the warrant were valid, unless he knows that the warrant is invalid.

(c) The authority to use physical force conferred on peace officers by this Article is a serious responsibility that shall be exercised judiciously and with respect for human rights and dignity and for the sanctity of every human life.

(d) Peace officers shall use deadly force only when reasonably necessary in defense of human life. In determining whether deadly force is reasonably necessary, officers shall evaluate each situation in light of the totality of circumstances of each case, including, but not limited to, the proximity in time of the use of force to the commission of a forcible felony, and the reasonable feasibility of safely apprehending a subject at a later time, and shall use other available resources and techniques, if reasonably safe and feasible to a reasonable officer.

(e) The decision by a peace officer to use force shall be evaluated carefully and thoroughly, in a manner that reflects the gravity of that authority and the serious consequences of the use of force by peace officers, in order to ensure that officers use force consistent with law and agency policies.

(f) The decision by a peace officer to use force shall be evaluated from the perspective of a reasonable officer in the same situation, based on the totality of the circumstances known to or perceived by the officer at the time of the decision, rather than with the benefit of hindsight, and that the totality of the circumstances shall account for occasions when officers may be forced to make quick judgments about using force.

(g) Law enforcement agencies are encouraged to adopt and develop policies designed to protect individuals with physical, mental health, developmental, or intellectual disabilities, or individuals who are significantly more likely to experience greater levels of physical force during police interactions, as these disabilities may affect the ability of a person to understand or comply with commands from peace officers.

(h) As used in this Section:

(1) "Deadly force" means any use of force that creates a substantial risk of causing death or great bodily harm, including, but not limited to, the discharge of a firearm.

(2) A threat of death or serious bodily injury is "imminent" when, based on the totality of the circumstances, a reasonable officer in the same situation would believe that a person has the present ability, opportunity, and apparent intent to immediately cause death or great bodily harm to the peace officer or another person. An imminent harm is not merely a fear of future harm, no matter how great the fear and no matter how great the likelihood of the harm, but is one that, from appearances, must be instantly confronted and addressed.

(3) "Totality of the circumstances" means all facts known to the peace officer at the time, or that would be known to a reasonable officer in the same situation, including the conduct of the officer and the subject leading up to the use of deadly force.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; revised 8-2-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/7-5.5)

Sec. 7-5.5. Prohibited use of force by a peace officer.

(a) A peace officer, or any other person acting under the color of law, shall not use a chokehold or restraint above the shoulders with risk of asphyxiation in the performance of his or her duties, unless deadly force is justified under this Article 7 of this Code.

(b) A peace officer, or any other person acting under the color of law, shall not use a chokehold or restraint above the shoulders with risk of asphyxiation, or any lesser contact with the throat or neck area of another, in order to prevent the destruction of evidence by ingestion.

(c) As used in this Section, "chokehold" means applying any direct pressure to the throat, windpipe, or airway of another. "Chokehold" does not include any holding involving contact with the neck that is not intended to reduce the intake of air such as a headlock where the only pressure applied is to the head.

(d) As used in this Section, "restraint above the shoulders with risk of positional asphyxiation" means a use of a technique used to restrain a person above the shoulders, including the neck or head, in a position which interferes with the person's ability to breathe after the person no longer poses a threat to the officer or any other person.

(e) A peace officer, or any other person acting under the color of law, shall not:

(i) use force as punishment or retaliation;

(ii) discharge kinetic impact projectiles and all other non-lethal or non-or less-lethal projectiles in a manner that targets the head, neck, groin, anterior pelvis, or back;

(iii) discharge conducted electrical weapons in a manner that targets the head, chest, neck, groin, or anterior pelvis;

(iv) discharge firearms or kinetic impact projectiles indiscriminately into a crowd;

(v) use chemical agents or irritants for crowd control, including pepper spray and tear gas, prior to issuing an order to disperse in a sufficient manner to allow for the order to be heard and repeated if necessary, followed by sufficient time and space to allow compliance with the order unless providing such time and space would unduly place an officer or another person at risk of death or great bodily harm; or

(vi) use chemical agents or irritants, including pepper spray and tear gas, prior to issuing an order in a sufficient manner to ensure the order is heard, and repeated if necessary, to allow compliance with the order unless providing such time and space would unduly place an officer or another person at risk of death or great bodily harm.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; revised 8-2-21.)

Section 190. The State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(725 ILCS 210/3) (from Ch. 14, par. 203)

Sec. 3. There is created the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor as a judicial agency of State state government.

(a) The Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall be governed by a board of governors which shall consist of 10 members as follows:

(1) Eight State's Attorneys, 2 to be elected from each District containing less than 3,000,000 inhabitants;

(2) The State's Attorney of Cook County or his or her designee; and

(3) One State's Attorney to be bi-annually appointed by the other 9 members.

(b) Voting for elected members shall be by District with each of the State's Attorneys voting from their respective district. Each board member must be duly elected or appointed and serving as State's Attorney in the district from which he was elected or appointed.

(c) Elected members shall serve for a term of 2 years commencing upon their election and until their successors are duly elected or appointed and qualified.

(d) A bi-annual An bi-annually election of members of the board shall be held within 30 days prior or subsequent to the beginning of the each odd numbered calendar year, and the board shall certify the results to the Secretary of State.

(e) The board shall promulgate rules of procedure for the election of its members and the conduct of its meetings and shall elect a Chairman and a Vice-Chairman and such other officers as it deems appropriate. The board shall meet at least once every 3 months, and in addition thereto as directed by the Chairman, or upon the special call of any 5 members of the board, in writing, sent to the Chairman, designating the time and place of the meeting.

(f) Five members of the board shall constitute a quorum for the purpose of transacting business.

(g) Members of the board shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

(h) A position shall be vacated by either a member's resignation, removal or inability to serve as State's Attorney.

(i) Vacancies on the board of elected members shall be filled within 90 days of the occurrence of the vacancy by a special election held by the State's Attorneys in the district where the vacancy occurred. Vacancies on the board of the appointed member shall be filled within 90 days of the occurrence of the vacancy by a special election by the members. In the case of a special election, the tabulation and certification of the results may be conducted at any regularly scheduled quarterly or special meeting called for that purpose. A member elected or appointed to fill such position shall serve for the unexpired term of the member whom he is succeeding. Any member may be re-elected or re-appointed for additional terms.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 195. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2-5.5, 5-8-1, and 5-8A-4 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2-5.5)

Sec. 3-2-5.5. Women's Division.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Gender-responsive" means taking into account gender specific differences that have been identified in women-centered research, including, but not limited to, socialization, psychological development, strengths, risk factors, pathways through systems, responses to treatment intervention, and other unique gender specific needs facing justice-involved women. Gender responsive policies, practices, programs, and services shall be implemented in a manner that is considered relational, culturally competent, family-centered, holistic, strength-based, and trauma-informed.

"Trauma-informed practices" means practices incorporating gender violence research and the impact of all forms of trauma in designing and implementing policies, practices, processes, programs, and services that involve understanding, recognizing, and responding to the effects of all types of trauma with emphasis on physical, psychological, and emotional safety.

(b) The Department shall create a permanent Women's Division under the direct supervision of the Director. The Women's Division shall have statewide authority and operational oversight for all of the Department's women's correctional centers and women's adult transition centers.

(c) The Director shall appoint a Chief Administrator for the Women's Division who has received nationally recognized specialized training in gender-responsive and trauma-informed practices. The Chief Administrator shall be responsible for:

(1) management and supervision of all employees assigned to the Women's Division correctional centers and adult transition centers;

(2) development and implementation of evidence-based evidenced-based, gender-responsive, and trauma-informed practices that govern Women's Division operations and programs;

(3) development of the Women's Division training, orientation, and cycle curriculum, which shall be updated as needed to align with gender responsive and trauma-informed practices;

(4) training all staff assigned to the Women's Division correctional centers and adult transition centers on gender-responsive and trauma-informed practices;

(5) implementation of validated gender-responsive classification and placement instruments;

(6) implementation of a gender-responsive risk, assets, and needs assessment tool and case management system for the Women's Division; and

(7) collaborating with the Chief Administrator of Parole to ensure staff responsible for supervision of females under mandatory supervised release are appropriately trained in evidence-based practices in community supervision, gender-responsive practices, and trauma-informed practices.

(Source: P.A. 100-527, eff. 6-1-18; 100-576, eff. 6-1-18; revised 7-16-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8-1)

Sec. 5-8-1. Natural life imprisonment; enhancements for use of a firearm; mandatory supervised release terms.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in the statute defining the offense or in Article 4.5 of Chapter V, a sentence of imprisonment for a felony shall be a determinate sentence set by the court under this Section, subject to Section 5-4.5-115 of this Code, according to the following limitations:

(1) for first degree murder,

(a) (blank),

(b) if a trier of fact finds beyond a reasonable doubt that the murder was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty or, except as set forth in subsection (a)(1)(c) of this Section, that any of the aggravating factors listed in subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 are present, the court may sentence the defendant, subject to Section 5-4.5-105, to a term of natural life imprisonment, or

(c) the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment if the defendant, at the time of the commission of the murder, had attained the age of 18, and:

(i) has previously been convicted of first degree murder under any state or federal law, or

(ii) is found guilty of murdering more than one victim, or

(iii) is found guilty of murdering a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker when the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the peace officer or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker from performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker, or

(iv) is found guilty of murdering an employee of an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency, when the employee was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the employee from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the employee performing his official duties, or

(v) is found guilty of murdering an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver or other medical assistance or first aid person while employed by a municipality or other governmental unit when the person was killed in the course of performing official duties or to prevent the person from performing official duties or in retaliation for performing official duties and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistant or first aid personnel, or

(vi) (blank), or

(vii) is found guilty of first degree murder and the murder was committed by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

For purposes of clause (v), "emergency medical technician - ambulance", "emergency medical technician - intermediate", "emergency medical technician - paramedic", have the meanings ascribed to them in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(d)(i) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(ii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(iii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(2) (blank);

(2.5) for a person who has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and who is convicted under the circumstances described in subdivision (b)(1)(B) of Section 11-1.20 or paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 12-13, subdivision (d)(2) of Section 11-1.30 or paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 12-14, subdivision (b)(1.2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (1.2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1, subdivision (b)(2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the sentence shall be a term of natural life imprisonment.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Subject to earlier termination under Section 3-3-8, the parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be written as part of the sentencing order and shall be as follows:

(1) for first degree murder or for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or before December 12, 2005, 3 years;

(1.5) except as provided in paragraph (7) of this subsection (d), for a Class X felony except for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) and except for the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B., 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, 18 months;

(2) except as provided in paragraph (7) of this subsection (d), for a Class 1 felony or a Class 2 felony except for the offense of criminal sexual assault if committed on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) and except for the offenses of manufacture and dissemination of child pornography under clauses (a)(1) and (a)(2) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, 12 months;

(3) except as provided in paragraph (4), (6), or (7) of this subsection (d), a mandatory supervised release term shall not be imposed for a Class 3 felony or a Class 4 felony; unless:

(A) the Prisoner Review Board, based on a validated risk and needs assessment, determines it is necessary for an offender to serve a mandatory supervised release term;

(B) if the Prisoner Review Board determines a mandatory supervised release term is necessary pursuant to subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (3), the Prisoner Review Board shall specify the maximum number of months of mandatory supervised release the offender may serve, limited to a term of: (i) 12 months for a Class 3 felony; and (ii) 12 months for a Class 4 felony;

(4) for defendants who commit the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault, on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, or who commit the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, manufacture of child pornography, or dissemination of child pornography after January 1, 2009, the term of mandatory supervised release shall range from a minimum of 3 years to a maximum of the natural life of the defendant;

(5) if the victim is under 18 years of age, for a second or subsequent offense of aggravated criminal sexual abuse or felony criminal sexual abuse, 4 years, at least the first 2 years of which the defendant shall serve in an electronic monitoring or home detention program under Article 8A of Chapter V of this Code;

(6) for a felony domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, and a felony violation of an order of protection, 4 years;

(7) for any felony described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii), (a)(2)(iii), (a)(2)(iv), (a)(2)(vi), (a)(2.1), (a)(2.3), (a)(2.4), (a)(2.5), or (a)(2.6) of Article 5, Section 3-6-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections requiring an inmate to serve a minimum of 85% of their court-imposed sentence, except for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) and except for the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B., 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009 and except as provided in paragraph (4) or paragraph (6) of this subsection (d), the term of mandatory supervised release shall be as follows:

(A) Class X felony, 3 years;

(B) Class 1 or Class 2 felonies, 2 years;

(C) Class 3 or Class 4 felonies, 1 year.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act and of Public Act 101-652: (i) the provisions of paragraph (3) of subsection (d) are effective on January 1, 2022 and shall apply to all individuals convicted on or after the effective date of paragraph (3) of subsection (d); and (ii) the provisions of paragraphs (1.5) and (2) of subsection (d) are effective on July 1, 2021 and shall apply to all individuals convicted on or after the effective date of paragraphs (1.5) and (2) of subsection (d).

(Source: P.A. 101-288, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; revised 8-2-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8A-4)

Sec. 5-8A-4. Program description. The supervising authority may promulgate rules that prescribe reasonable guidelines under which an electronic monitoring and home detention program shall operate. When using electronic monitoring for home detention these rules may include, but not be limited to, the following:

(A) The participant may be instructed to remain within the interior premises or within the property boundaries of his or her residence at all times during the hours designated by the supervising authority. Such instances of approved absences from the home shall include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) working or employment approved by the court or traveling to or from approved employment;

(2) unemployed and seeking employment approved for the participant by the court;

(3) undergoing medical, psychiatric, mental health treatment, counseling, or other treatment programs approved for the participant by the court;

(4) attending an educational institution or a program approved for the participant by the court;

(5) attending a regularly scheduled religious service at a place of worship;

(6) participating in community work release or community service programs approved for the participant by the supervising authority; or

(7) for another compelling reason consistent with the public interest, as approved by the supervising authority; or .

(8) purchasing groceries, food, or other basic necessities.

(A-1) At a minimum, any person ordered to pretrial home confinement with or without electronic monitoring must be provided with movement spread out over no fewer than two days per week, to participate in basic activities such as those listed in paragraph (A).

(B) The participant shall admit any person or agent designated by the supervising authority into his or her residence at any time for purposes of verifying the participant's compliance with the conditions of his or her detention.

(C) The participant shall make the necessary arrangements to allow for any person or agent designated by the supervising authority to visit the participant's place of education or employment at any time, based upon the approval of the educational institution employer or both, for the purpose of verifying the participant's compliance with the conditions of his or her detention.

(D) The participant shall acknowledge and participate with the approved electronic monitoring device as designated by the supervising authority at any time for the purpose of verifying the participant's compliance with the conditions of his or her detention.

(E) The participant shall maintain the following:

(1) access to a working telephone;

(2) a monitoring device in the participant's home, or on the participant's person, or both; and

(3) a monitoring device in the participant's home and on the participant's person in the absence of a telephone.

(F) The participant shall obtain approval from the supervising authority before the participant changes residence or the schedule described in subsection (A) of this Section. Such approval shall not be unreasonably withheld.

(G) The participant shall not commit another crime during the period of home detention ordered by the Court.

(H) Notice to the participant that violation of the order for home detention may subject the participant to prosecution for the crime of escape as described in Section 5-8A-4.1.

(I) The participant shall abide by other conditions as set by the supervising authority.

(J) This Section takes effect January 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; revised 8-3-21.)

Section 200. The Reporting of Deaths in Custody Act is amended by changing Section 3-5 as follows:

(730 ILCS 210/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Report of deaths of persons in custody in correctional institutions.

(a) In this Act, "law enforcement agency" includes each law enforcement entity within this State having the authority to arrest and detain persons suspected of, or charged with, committing a criminal offense, and each law enforcement entity that operates a lock up, jail, prison, or any other facility used to detain persons for legitimate law enforcement purposes.

(b) In any case in which a person dies:

(1) while in the custody of:

(A) a law enforcement agency;

(B) a local or State correctional facility in this State; or

(C) a peace officer; or

(2) as a result of the peace officer's use of force, the law enforcement agency shall investigate and report the death in writing to the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, no later than 30 days after the date on which the person in custody or incarcerated died. The written report shall contain the following information:

(A) the following facts concerning the death that are in the possession of the law enforcement agency in charge of the investigation and the correctional facility where the death occurred, race, age, gender, sexual orientation, and gender identity of the decedent, and a brief description of causes, contributing factors and the circumstances surrounding the death;

(B) if the death occurred in custody, the report shall also include the jurisdiction, the law enforcement agency providing the investigation, and the local or State facility where the death occurred;

(C) if the death occurred in custody the report shall also include if emergency care was requested by the law enforcement agency in response to any illness, injury, self-inflicted or otherwise, or other issue related to rapid deterioration of physical wellness or human subsistence, and details concerning emergency care that were provided to the decedent if emergency care was provided.

(c) The law enforcement agency and the involved correctional administrators shall make a good faith effort to obtain all relevant facts and circumstances relevant to the death and include those in the report.

(d) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall create a standardized form to be used for the purpose of collecting information as described in subsection (b). The information shall comply with this Act and the federal Federal Death in Custody Reporting Act of 2013.

(e) Law enforcement agencies shall use the form described in subsection (d) to report all cases in which a person dies:

(1) while in the custody of:

(A) a law enforcement agency;

(B) a local or State correctional facility in this State; or

(C) a peace officer; or

(2) as a result of the peace officer's use of force.

(f) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority may determine the manner in which the form is transmitted from a law enforcement agency to the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority. All state agencies that collect similar records as required under this Act, including the Illinois State Police, Illinois Department of Corrections, and Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice, shall collaborate with the Illinois Criminal Justice and Information Authority to collect the information in this Act.

(g) The reports shall be public records within the meaning of subsection (c) of Section 2 of the Freedom of Information Act and are open to public inspection, with the exception of any portion of the report that the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority determines is privileged or protected under Illinois or federal law.

(g-5) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall begin collecting this information by January 1, 2022. The reports and publications in subsections (h) and below shall begin by June 1, 2022.

(h) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall make available to the public information of all individual reports relating to deaths in custody through the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority's website to be updated on a quarterly basis.

(i) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall issue a public annual report tabulating and evaluating trends and information on deaths in custody, including, but not limited to:

(1) information regarding the race, gender, sexual orientation, and gender identity of the decedent; and a brief description of the circumstances surrounding the death;

(2) if the death occurred in custody, the report shall also include the jurisdiction, law enforcement agency providing the investigation, and local or State facility where the death occurred; and

(3) recommendations and State and local efforts underway to reduce deaths in custody.

The report shall be submitted to the Governor and General Assembly and made available to the public on the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority's website the first week of February of each year.

(j) So that the State may oversee the healthcare provided to any person in the custody of each law enforcement agency within this State, provision of medical services to these persons, general care and treatment, and any other factors that may contribute to the death of any of these persons, the following information shall be made available to the public on the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority's website:

(1) the number of deaths that occurred during the preceding calendar year;

(2) the known, or discoverable upon reasonable inquiry, causes and contributing factors of each of the in-custody deaths as defined in subsection (b); and

(3) the law enforcement agency's policies, procedures, and protocols related to:

(A) treatment of a person experiencing withdrawal from alcohol or substance use;

(B) the facility's provision, or lack of provision, of medications used to treat, mitigate, or address a person's symptoms; and

(C) notifying an inmate's next of kin after the inmate's in-custody death.

(k) The family, next of kin, or any other person reasonably nominated by the decedent as an emergency contact shall be notified as soon as possible in a suitable manner giving an accurate factual account of the cause of death and circumstances surrounding the death in custody in accordance with State and federal law.

(l) The law enforcement agency or correctional facility shall name a staff person to act as dedicated family liaison officer to be a point of contact for the family, to make and maintain contact with the family, to report ongoing developments and findings of investigations, and to provide information and practical support. If requested by the deceased's next of kin, the law enforcement agency or correctional facility shall arrange for a chaplain, counselor, or other suitable staff member to meet with the family and discuss any faith considerations or concerns. The family has a right to the medical records of a family member who has died in custody and these records shall be disclosed to them in accordance with State and federal law.

(m) Each department shall assign an employee or employees to file reports under this Section. It is unlawful for a person who is required under this Section to investigate a death or file a report to fail to include in the report facts known or discovered in the investigation to the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority. A violation of this Section is a petty offense, with a fine not to exceed $500.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; revised 8-3-21.)

Section 205. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing Section 11a-4 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/11a-4)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-72)

Sec. 11a-4. Temporary guardian.

(a) Prior to the appointment of a guardian under this Article, pending an appeal in relation to the appointment, or pending the completion of a citation proceeding brought pursuant to Section 23-3 of this Act, or upon a guardian's death, incapacity, or resignation, the court may appoint a temporary guardian upon a showing of the necessity therefor for the immediate welfare and protection of the alleged person with a disability or his or her estate and subject to such conditions as the court may prescribe. A petition for the appointment of a temporary guardian for an alleged person with a disability shall be filed at the time of or subsequent to the filing of a petition for adjudication of disability and appointment of a guardian. The petition for the appointment of a temporary guardian shall state the facts upon which it is based and the name, the post office address, and, in the case of an individual, the age and occupation of the proposed temporary guardian. In determining the necessity for temporary guardianship, the immediate welfare and protection of the alleged person with a disability and his or her estate shall be of paramount concern, and the interests of the petitioner, any care provider, or any other party shall not outweigh the interests of the alleged person with a disability. The temporary guardian shall have the limited powers and duties of a guardian of the person or of the estate which are specifically enumerated by court order. The court order shall state the actual harm identified by the court that necessitates temporary guardianship or any extension thereof.

(a-5) Notice of the time and place of the hearing on a petition for the appointment of a temporary guardian shall be given, not less than 3 days before the hearing, by mail or in person to the alleged person with a disability, to the proposed temporary guardian, and to those persons whose names and addresses are listed in the petition for adjudication of disability and appointment of a guardian under Section 11a-8. The court, upon a finding of good cause, may waive the notice requirement under this subsection.

(a-10) Notice of the time and place of the hearing on a petition to revoke the appointment of a temporary guardian shall be given, not less than 3 days before the hearing, by mail or in person to the temporary guardian, to the petitioner on whose petition the temporary guardian was appointed, and to those persons whose names and addresses are listed in the petition for adjudication of disability and appointment of a guardian under Section 11a-8. The court, upon a finding of good cause, may waive the notice requirements under this subsection.

(b) The temporary guardianship shall expire within 60 days after the appointment or whenever a guardian is regularly appointed, whichever occurs first. No extension shall be granted except:

(1) In a case where there has been an adjudication of disability, an extension shall be granted:

(i) pending the disposition on appeal of an adjudication of disability;

(ii) pending the completion of a citation proceeding brought pursuant to Section 23-3;

(iii) pending the appointment of a successor guardian in a case where the former guardian has resigned, has become incapacitated, or is deceased; or

(iv) where the guardian's powers have been suspended pursuant to a court order.

(2) In a case where there has not been an adjudication of disability, an extension shall be granted pending the disposition of a petition brought pursuant to Section 11a-8 so long as the court finds it is in the best interest of the alleged person with a disability to extend the temporary guardianship so as to protect the alleged person with a disability from any potential abuse, neglect, self-neglect, exploitation, or other harm and such extension lasts no more than 120 days from the date the temporary guardian was originally appointed.

The ward shall have the right any time after the appointment of a temporary guardian is made to petition the court to revoke the appointment of the temporary guardian.

(Source: P.A. 102-120, eff. 7-23-21; revised 8-3-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-72)

Sec. 11a-4. Temporary guardian.

(a) Prior to the appointment of a guardian under this Article, pending an appeal in relation to the appointment, or pending the completion of a citation proceeding brought pursuant to Section 23-3 of this Act, or upon a guardian's death, incapacity, or resignation, the court may appoint a temporary guardian upon a showing of the necessity therefor for the immediate welfare and protection of the alleged person with a disability or his or her estate and subject to such conditions as the court may prescribe. A petition for the appointment of a temporary guardian for an alleged person with a disability shall be filed at the time of or subsequent to the filing of a petition for adjudication of disability and appointment of a guardian. The petition for the appointment of a temporary guardian shall state the facts upon which it is based and the name, the post office address, and, in the case of an individual, the age and occupation of the proposed temporary guardian. In determining the necessity for temporary guardianship, the immediate welfare and protection of the alleged person with a disability and his or her estate shall be of paramount concern, and the interests of the petitioner, any care provider, or any other party shall not outweigh the interests of the alleged person with a disability. The temporary guardian shall have the limited powers and duties of a guardian of the person or of the estate which are specifically enumerated by court order. The court order shall state the actual harm identified by the court that necessitates temporary guardianship or any extension thereof.

(a-5) Notice of the time and place of the hearing on a petition for the appointment of a temporary guardian shall be given, not less than 3 days before the hearing, by mail or in person to the alleged person with a disability, to the proposed temporary guardian, and to those persons whose names and addresses are listed in the petition for adjudication of disability and appointment of a guardian under Section 11a-8. The court, upon a finding of good cause, may waive the notice requirement under this subsection.

(a-10) Notice of the time and place of the hearing on a petition to revoke the appointment of a temporary guardian shall be given, not less than 3 days before the hearing, by mail or in person to the temporary guardian, to the petitioner on whose petition the temporary guardian was appointed, and to those persons whose names and addresses are listed in the petition for adjudication of disability and appointment of a guardian under Section 11a-8. The court, upon a finding of good cause, may waive the notice requirements under this subsection.

(b) The temporary guardianship shall expire within 60 days after the appointment or whenever a guardian is regularly appointed, whichever occurs first. No extension shall be granted except:

(1) In a case where there has been an adjudication of disability, an extension shall be granted:

(i) pending the disposition on appeal of an adjudication of disability;

(ii) pending the completion of a citation proceeding brought pursuant to Section 23-3;

(iii) pending the appointment of a successor guardian in a case where the former guardian has resigned, has become incapacitated, or is deceased; or

(iv) where the guardian's powers have been suspended pursuant to a court order.

(2) In a case where there has not been an adjudication of disability, an extension shall be granted pending the disposition of a petition brought pursuant to Section 11a-8 so long as the court finds it is in the best interests of the alleged person with a disability to extend the temporary guardianship so as to protect the alleged person with a disability from any potential abuse, neglect, self-neglect, exploitation, or other harm and such extension lasts no more than 120 days from the date the temporary guardian was originally appointed.

The ward shall have the right any time after the appointment of a temporary guardian is made to petition the court to revoke the appointment of the temporary guardian.

(Source: P.A. 102-72, eff. 1-1-22; 102-120, eff 7-23-21; revised 8-3-21.)

Section 210. The Self-Service Storage Facility Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(770 ILCS 95/4) (from Ch. 114, par. 804)

Sec. 4. Enforcement of lien. An owner's lien as provided for in Section 3 of this Act for a claim which has become due may be satisfied as follows:

(A) The occupant shall be notified. ;

(B) The notice shall be delivered:

(1) in person; or

(2) by verified mail or by electronic mail to the last known address of the occupant. ;

(C) The notice shall include:

(1) An itemized statement of the owner's claim showing the sum due at the time of the notice and the date when the sum became due;

(2) The name of the facility, address, telephone number, date, time, location, and manner of the lien sale, and the occupant's name and unit number;

(3) A notice of denial of access to the personal property, if such denial is permitted under the terms of the rental agreement, which provides the name, street address, and telephone number of the owner, or his designated agent, whom the occupant may contact to respond to this notice;

(3.5) Except as otherwise provided by a rental agreement and until a lien sale, the exclusive care, custody, and control of all personal property stored in the leased self-service storage space remains vested in the occupant. No bailment or higher level of liability is created if the owner over-locks the occupant's lock, thereby denying the occupant access to the storage space. Rent and other charges related to the lien continue to accrue during the period of time when access is denied because of non-payment;

(4) A demand for payment within a specified time not less than 14 days after delivery of the notice;

(5) A conspicuous statement that unless the claim is paid within the time stated in the notice, the personal property will be advertised for sale or other disposition, and will be sold or otherwise disposed of at a specified time and place.

(D) Any notice made pursuant to this Section shall be presumed delivered when it is deposited with the United States Postal Service, and properly addressed with postage prepaid or sent by electronic mail and the owner receives a receipt of delivery to the occupant's last known address, except if the owner does not receive a receipt of delivery for the notice sent by electronic mail, the notice is presumed delivered when it is sent to the occupant by verified mail to the occupant's last known mailing address. ;

(E) After the expiration of the time given in the notice, an advertisement of the sale or other disposition shall be published once a week for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation where the self-service storage facility is located. The advertisement shall include:

(1) The name of the facility, address, telephone number, date, time, location, and manner of lien sale and the occupant's name and unit number.

(2) (Blank).

(3) The sale or other disposition shall take place not sooner than 15 days after the first publication. If there is no newspaper of general circulation where the self-service storage facility is located, the advertisement shall be posted at least 10 days before the date of the sale or other disposition in not less than 6 conspicuous places in the neighborhood where the self-service storage facility is located.

(F) Any sale or other disposition of the personal property shall conform to the terms of the notification as provided for in this Section. ;

(G) Any sale or other disposition of the personal property shall be held at the self-service storage facility, or at the nearest suitable place to where the personal property is held or stored. A sale under this Section shall be deemed to be held at the self-service storage facility where the personal property is stored if the sale is held on a publicly accessible online website. ;

(G-5) If the property upon which the lien is claimed is a motor vehicle or watercraft and rent or other charges related to the property remain unpaid or unsatisfied for 60 days, the owner may have the property towed from the self-service storage facility. If a motor vehicle or watercraft is towed, the owner shall not be liable for any damage to the motor vehicle or watercraft, once the tower takes possession of the property. After the motor vehicle or watercraft is towed, the owner may pursue other collection options against the delinquent occupant for any outstanding debt. If the owner chooses to sell a motor vehicle, aircraft, mobile home, moped, motorcycle, snowmobile, trailer, or watercraft, the owner shall contact the Secretary of State and any other governmental agency as reasonably necessary to determine the name and address of the title holder or lienholder of the item, and the owner shall notify every identified title holder or lienholder of the time and place of the proposed sale. The owner is required to notify the holder of a security interest only if the security interest is filed under the name of the person signing the rental agreement or an occupant. An owner who fails to make the lien searches required by this Section is liable only to valid lienholders injured by that failure as provided in Section 3. ;

(H) Before any sale or other disposition of personal property pursuant to this Section, the occupant may pay the amount necessary to satisfy the lien, and the reasonable expenses incurred under this Section, and thereby redeem the personal property. Upon receipt of such payment, the owner shall return the personal property, and thereafter the owner shall have no liability to any person with respect to such personal property. ;

(I) A purchaser in good faith of the personal property sold to satisfy a lien, as provided for in Section 3 of this Act, takes the property free of any rights of persons against whom the lien was valid, despite noncompliance by the owner with the requirements of this Section. ;

(J) In the event of a sale under this Section, the owner may satisfy his lien from the proceeds of the sale, but shall hold the balance, if any, for delivery on demand to the occupant. If the occupant does not claim the balance of the proceeds within one year of the date of sale, it shall become the property of the owner without further recourse by the occupant.

(K) The lien on any personal property created by this Act shall be terminated as to any such personal property which is sold or otherwise disposed of pursuant to this Act and any such personal property which is removed from the self-service storage facility.

(L) If 3 or more bidders who are unrelated to the owner are in attendance at a sale held under this Section, the sale and its proceeds are deemed to be commercially reasonable.

(Source: P.A. 97-599, eff. 8-26-11; 98-1106, eff. 1-1-15; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 215. The Predatory Loan Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 15-1-1 as follows:

(815 ILCS 123/15-1-1)

Sec. 15-1-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the Predatory Loan Prevention Act. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

(Source: P.A. 101-658, eff. 3-23-21; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 220. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by changing Section 2Z.5 as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2Z.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on August 1, 2022)

Sec. 2Z.5. Dissemination of a sealed a court file.

(a) A private entity or person who violates Section 9-121.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(b) This Section is repealed on August 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 102-5, eff. 5-17-21; revised 7-16-21.)

Section 225. The Unemployment Insurance Act is amended by changing Section 612 as follows:

(820 ILCS 405/612) (from Ch. 48, par. 442)

Sec. 612. Academic personnel; ineligibility personnel - ineligibility between academic years or terms.

A. Benefits based on wages for services which are employment under the provisions of Sections 211.1, 211.2, and 302C shall be payable in the same amount, on the same terms, and subject to the same conditions as benefits payable on the basis of wages for other services which are employment under this Act; except that:

1. An individual shall be ineligible for benefits, on the basis of wages for employment in an instructional, research, or principal administrative capacity performed for an institution of higher education, for any week which begins during the period between two successive academic years, or during a similar period between two regular terms, whether or not successive, or during a period of paid sabbatical leave provided for in the individual's contract, if the individual has a contract or contracts to perform services in any such capacity for any institution or institutions of higher education for both such academic years or both such terms.

This paragraph 1 shall apply with respect to any week which begins prior to January 1, 1978.

2. An individual shall be ineligible for benefits, on the basis of wages for service in employment in any capacity other than those referred to in paragraph 1, performed for an institution of higher learning, for any week which begins after September 30, 1983, during a period between two successive academic years or terms, if the individual performed such service in the first of such academic years or terms and there is a reasonable assurance that the individual will perform such service in the second of such academic years or terms.

3. An individual shall be ineligible for benefits, on the basis of wages for service in employment in any capacity other than those referred to in paragraph 1, performed for an institution of higher education, for any week which begins after January 5, 1985, during an established and customary vacation period or holiday recess, if the individual performed such service in the period immediately before such vacation period or holiday recess and there is a reasonable assurance that the individual will perform such service in the period immediately following such vacation period or holiday recess.

B. Benefits based on wages for services which are employment under the provisions of Sections 211.1 and 211.2 shall be payable in the same amount, on the same terms, and subject to the same conditions, as benefits payable on the basis of wages for other services which are employment under this Act, except that:

1. An individual shall be ineligible for benefits, on the basis of wages for service in employment in an instructional, research, or principal administrative capacity performed for an educational institution, for any week which begins after December 31, 1977, during a period between two successive academic years, or during a similar period between two regular terms, whether or not successive, or during a period of paid sabbatical leave provided for in the individual's contract, if the individual performed such service in the first of such academic years (or terms) and if there is a contract or a reasonable assurance that the individual will perform service in any such capacity for any educational institution in the second of such academic years (or terms).

2. An individual shall be ineligible for benefits, on the basis of wages for service in employment in any capacity other than those referred to in paragraph 1, performed for an educational institution, for any week which begins after December 31, 1977, during a period between two successive academic years or terms, if the individual performed such service in the first of such academic years or terms and there is a reasonable assurance that the individual will perform such service in the second of such academic years or terms.

3. An individual shall be ineligible for benefits, on the basis of wages for service in employment in any capacity performed for an educational institution, for any week which begins after January 5, 1985, during an established and customary vacation period or holiday recess, if the individual performed such service in the period immediately before such vacation period or holiday recess and there is a reasonable assurance that the individual will perform such service in the period immediately following such vacation period or holiday recess.

4. An individual shall be ineligible for benefits on the basis of wages for service in employment in any capacity performed in an educational institution while in the employ of an educational service agency for any week which begins after January 5, 1985, (a) during a period between two successive academic years or terms, if the individual performed such service in the first of such academic years or terms and there is a reasonable assurance that the individual will perform such service in the second of such academic years or terms; and (b) during an established and customary vacation period or holiday recess, if the individual performed such service in the period immediately before such vacation period or holiday recess and there is a reasonable assurance that the individual will perform such service in the period immediately following such vacation period or holiday recess. The term "educational service agency" means a governmental agency or governmental entity which is established and operated exclusively for the purpose of providing such services to one or more educational institutions.

C. 1. If benefits are denied to any individual under the provisions of paragraph 2 of either subsection A or B of this Section for any week which begins on or after September 3, 1982 and such individual is not offered a bona fide opportunity to perform such services for the educational institution for the second of such academic years or terms, such individual shall be entitled to a retroactive payment of benefits for each week for which the individual filed a timely claim for benefits as determined by the rules and regulations issued by the Director for the filing of claims for benefits, provided that such benefits were denied solely because of the provisions of paragraph 2 of either subsection A or B of this Section.

2. If benefits on the basis of wages for service in employment in other than an instructional, research, or principal administrative capacity performed in an educational institution while in the employ of an educational service agency are denied to any individual under the provisions of subparagraph (a) of paragraph 4 of subsection B and such individual is not offered a bona fide opportunity to perform such services in an educational institution while in the employ of an educational service agency for the second of such academic years or terms, such individual shall be entitled to a retroactive payment of benefits for each week for which the individual filed a timely claim for benefits as determined by the rules and regulations issued by the Director for the filing of claims for benefits, provided that such benefits were denied solely because of subparagraph (a) of paragraph 4 of subsection B of this Section.

D. Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section or paragraph 2 of subsection C of Section 500 to the contrary, with respect to a week of unemployment beginning on or after March 15, 2020, and before September 4, 2021, (including any week of unemployment beginning on or after January 1, 2021 and on or before June 25, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-26) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly), benefits shall be payable to an individual on the basis of wages for employment in other than an instructional, research, or principal administrative capacity performed for an educational institution or an educational service agency under any of the circumstances described in this Section, to the extent permitted under Section 3304(a)(6) of the Federal Unemployment Tax Act, as long as the individual is otherwise eligible for benefits.

(Source: P.A. 101-633, eff. 6-5-20; 102-26, eff. 6-25-21; revised 8-3-21.)

Section 240. Continuation of provisions; validation.

(a) The General Assembly finds and declares that Public Act 102-28 and this Act manifest the intention of the General Assembly to have Section 1-2-12.1 of the Illinois Municipal Code and Sections 110-5.1, 110-6.3, 110-6.5, 110-7, 110-8, 110-9, 110-13, 110-14, 110-15, 110-16, 110-17, and 110-18 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 continue in effect until January 1, 2023.

(b) Section 1-2-12.1 of the Illinois Municipal Code and Sections 110-5.1, 110-6.3, 110-6.5, 110-7, 110-8, 110-9, 110-13, 110-14, 110-15, 110-16, 110-17, and 110-18 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 are deemed to have been in continuous effect and shall continue to be in effect until January 1, 2023. All actions taken in reliance on or under Section 1-2-12.1 of the Illinois Municipal Code and Sections 110-5.1, 110-6.3, 110-6.5, 110-7, 110-8, 110-9, 110-13, 110-14, 110-15, 110-16, 110-17, and 110-18 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 by any person or entity before the effective date of this Act are hereby validated.

(c) To ensure the continuing effectiveness of Section 1-2-12.1 of the Illinois Municipal Code and Sections 110-5.1, 110-6.3, 110-6.5, 110-7, 110-8, 110-9, 110-13, 110-14, 110-15, 110-16, 110-17, and 110-18 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, those Sections are set forth in full and reenacted by this Act. Striking and underscoring are used only to show changes being made to the base text. This reenactment is intended as a continuation of this Act. This reenactment is not intended to supersede any amendment to this Act that may be made by any other Public Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

Section 245. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by reenacting and changing Section 1-2-12.1 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/1-2-12.1)

Sec. 1-2-12.1. Municipal bond fees. A municipality may impose a fee up to $20 for bail processing against any person arrested for violating a bailable municipal ordinance or a State or federal law.

This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 97-368, eff. 8-15-11; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

Section 250. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by reenacting and changing Sections 110-5.1, 110-6.3, 110-6.5, 110-7, 110-8, 110-9, 110-13, 110-14, 110-15, 110-16, 110-17, and 110-18 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/110-5.1)

Sec. 110-5.1. Bail; certain persons charged with violent crimes against family or household members.

(a) Subject to subsection (c), a person who is charged with a violent crime shall appear before the court for the setting of bail if the alleged victim was a family or household member at the time of the alleged offense, and if any of the following applies:

(1) the person charged, at the time of the alleged offense, was subject to the terms of an order of protection issued under Section 112A-14 of this Code or Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or previously was convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a violent crime if the victim was a family or household member at the time of the offense or a violation of a substantially similar municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States if the victim was a family or household member at the time of the offense;

(2) the arresting officer indicates in a police report or other document accompanying the complaint any of the following:

(A) that the arresting officer observed on the alleged victim objective manifestations of physical harm that the arresting officer reasonably believes are a result of the alleged offense;

(B) that the arresting officer reasonably believes that the person had on the person's person at the time of the alleged offense a deadly weapon;

(C) that the arresting officer reasonably believes that the person presents a credible threat of serious physical harm to the alleged victim or to any other person if released on bail before trial.

(b) To the extent that information about any of the following is available to the court, the court shall consider all of the following, in addition to any other circumstances considered by the court, before setting bail for a person who appears before the court pursuant to subsection (a):

(1) whether the person has a history of domestic violence or a history of other violent acts;

(2) the mental health of the person;

(3) whether the person has a history of violating the orders of any court or governmental entity;

(4) whether the person is potentially a threat to any other person;

(5) whether the person has access to deadly weapons or a history of using deadly weapons;

(6) whether the person has a history of abusing alcohol or any controlled substance;

(7) the severity of the alleged violence that is the basis of the alleged offense, including, but not limited to, the duration of the alleged violent incident, and whether the alleged violent incident involved serious physical injury, sexual assault, strangulation, abuse during the alleged victim's pregnancy, abuse of pets, or forcible entry to gain access to the alleged victim;

(8) whether a separation of the person from the alleged victim or a termination of the relationship between the person and the alleged victim has recently occurred or is pending;

(9) whether the person has exhibited obsessive or controlling behaviors toward the alleged victim, including, but not limited to, stalking, surveillance, or isolation of the alleged victim;

(10) whether the person has expressed suicidal or homicidal ideations;

(11) any information contained in the complaint and any police reports, affidavits, or other documents accompanying the complaint.

(c) Upon the court's own motion or the motion of a party and upon any terms that the court may direct, a court may permit a person who is required to appear before it by subsection (a) to appear by video conferencing equipment. If, in the opinion of the court, the appearance in person or by video conferencing equipment of a person who is charged with a misdemeanor and who is required to appear before the court by subsection (a) is not practicable, the court may waive the appearance and release the person on bail on one or both of the following types of bail in an amount set by the court:

(1) a bail bond secured by a deposit of 10% of the amount of the bond in cash;

(2) a surety bond, a bond secured by real estate or securities as allowed by law, or the deposit of cash, at the option of the person.

Subsection (a) does not create a right in a person to appear before the court for the setting of bail or prohibit a court from requiring any person charged with a violent crime who is not described in subsection (a) from appearing before the court for the setting of bail.

(d) As used in this Section:

(1) "Violent crime" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(2) "Family or household member" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 112A-3 of this Code.

(e) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-6.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-6.3)

Sec. 110-6.3. Denial of bail in stalking and aggravated stalking offenses.

(a) Upon verified petition by the State, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether bail should be denied to a defendant who is charged with stalking or aggravated stalking, when it is alleged that the defendant's admission to bail poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense, and denial of release on bail or personal recognizance is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based.

(1) A petition may be filed without prior notice to the defendant at the first appearance before a judge, or within 21 calendar days, except as provided in Section 110-6, after arrest and release of the defendant upon reasonable notice to defendant; provided that while the petition is pending before the court, the defendant if previously released shall not be detained.

(2) The hearing shall be held immediately upon the defendant's appearance before the court, unless for good cause shown the defendant or the State seeks a continuance. A continuance on motion of the defendant may not exceed 5 calendar days, and the defendant may be held in custody during the continuance. A continuance on the motion of the State may not exceed 3 calendar days; however, the defendant may be held in custody during the continuance under this provision if the defendant has been previously found to have violated an order of protection or has been previously convicted of, or granted court supervision for, any of the offenses set forth in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, against the same person as the alleged victim of the stalking or aggravated stalking offense.

(b) The court may deny bail to the defendant when, after the hearing, it is determined that:

(1) the proof is evident or the presumption great that the defendant has committed the offense of stalking or aggravated stalking; and

(2) the defendant poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense; and

(3) the denial of release on bail or personal recognizance is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based; and

(4) the court finds that no condition or combination of conditions set forth in subsection (b) of Section 110-10 of this Code, including mental health treatment at a community mental health center, hospital, or facility of the Department of Human Services, can reasonably assure the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense.

(c) Conduct of the hearings.

(1) The hearing on the defendant's culpability and threat to the alleged victim of the offense shall be conducted in accordance with the following provisions:

(A) Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered at the hearing may be by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or by defendant. Defendant has the right to be represented by counsel, and if he is indigent, to have counsel appointed for him. Defendant shall have the opportunity to testify, to present witnesses in his own behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses if any are called by the State. The defendant has the right to present witnesses in his favor. When the ends of justice so require, the court may exercise its discretion and compel the appearance of a complaining witness. The court shall state on the record reasons for granting a defense request to compel the presence of a complaining witness. Cross-examination of a complaining witness at the pretrial detention hearing for the purpose of impeaching the witness' credibility is insufficient reason to compel the presence of the witness. In deciding whether to compel the appearance of a complaining witness, the court shall be considerate of the emotional and physical well-being of the witness. The pretrial detention hearing is not to be used for the purposes of discovery, and the post arraignment rules of discovery do not apply. The State shall tender to the defendant, prior to the hearing, copies of defendant's criminal history, if any, if available, and any written or recorded statements and the substance of any oral statements made by any person, if relied upon by the State. The rules concerning the admissibility of evidence in criminal trials do not apply to the presentation and consideration of information at the hearing. At the trial concerning the offense for which the hearing was conducted neither the finding of the court nor any transcript or other record of the hearing shall be admissible in the State's case in chief, but shall be admissible for impeachment, or as provided in Section 115-10.1 of this Code, or in a perjury proceeding.

(B) A motion by the defendant to suppress evidence or to suppress a confession shall not be entertained. Evidence that proof may have been obtained as the result of an unlawful search and seizure or through improper interrogation is not relevant to this state of the prosecution.

(2) The facts relied upon by the court to support a finding that:

(A) the defendant poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense; and

(B) the denial of release on bail or personal recognizance is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based;

shall be supported by clear and convincing evidence presented by the State.

(d) Factors to be considered in making a determination of the threat to the alleged victim of the offense. The court may, in determining whether the defendant poses, at the time of the hearing, a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense, consider but shall not be limited to evidence or testimony concerning:

(1) The nature and circumstances of the offense charged;

(2) The history and characteristics of the defendant including:

(A) Any evidence of the defendant's prior criminal history indicative of violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior. The evidence may include testimony or documents received in juvenile proceedings, criminal, quasi-criminal, civil commitment, domestic relations or other proceedings;

(B) Any evidence of the defendant's psychological, psychiatric or other similar social history that tends to indicate a violent, abusive, or assaultive nature, or lack of any such history.

(3) The nature of the threat which is the basis of the charge against the defendant;

(4) Any statements made by, or attributed to the defendant, together with the circumstances surrounding them;

(5) The age and physical condition of any person assaulted by the defendant;

(6) Whether the defendant is known to possess or have access to any weapon or weapons;

(7) Whether, at the time of the current offense or any other offense or arrest, the defendant was on probation, parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release or other release from custody pending trial, sentencing, appeal or completion of sentence for an offense under federal or state law;

(8) Any other factors, including those listed in Section 110-5 of this Code, deemed by the court to have a reasonable bearing upon the defendant's propensity or reputation for violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior.

(e) The court shall, in any order denying bail to a person charged with stalking or aggravated stalking:

(1) briefly summarize the evidence of the defendant's culpability and its reasons for concluding that the defendant should be held without bail;

(2) direct that the defendant be committed to the custody of the sheriff for confinement in the county jail pending trial;

(3) direct that the defendant be given a reasonable opportunity for private consultation with counsel, and for communication with others of his choice by visitation, mail and telephone; and

(4) direct that the sheriff deliver the defendant as required for appearances in connection with court proceedings.

(f) If the court enters an order for the detention of the defendant under subsection (e) of this Section, the defendant shall be brought to trial on the offense for which he is detained within 90 days after the date on which the order for detention was entered. If the defendant is not brought to trial within the 90 day period required by this subsection (f), he shall not be held longer without bail. In computing the 90 day period, the court shall omit any period of delay resulting from a continuance granted at the request of the defendant. The court shall immediately notify the alleged victim of the offense that the defendant has been admitted to bail under this subsection.

(g) Any person shall be entitled to appeal any order entered under this Section denying bail to the defendant.

(h) The State may appeal any order entered under this Section denying any motion for denial of bail.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall be construed as modifying or limiting in any way the defendant's presumption of innocence in further criminal proceedings.

(j) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-6.5)

Sec. 110-6.5. Drug testing program. The Chief Judge of the circuit may establish a drug testing program as provided by this Section in any county in the circuit if the county board has approved the establishment of the program and the county probation department or pretrial services agency has consented to administer it. The drug testing program shall be conducted under the following provisions:

(a) The court, in the case of a defendant charged with a felony offense or any offense involving the possession or delivery of cannabis or a controlled substance, shall:

(1) not consider the release of the defendant on his or her own recognizance, unless the defendant consents to periodic drug testing during the period of release on his or her own recognizance, in accordance with this Section;

(2) consider the consent of the defendant to periodic drug testing during the period of release on bail in accordance with this Section as a favorable factor for the defendant in determining the amount of bail, the conditions of release or in considering the defendant's motion to reduce the amount of bail.

(b) The drug testing shall be conducted by the pretrial services agency or under the direction of the probation department when a pretrial services agency does not exist in accordance with this Section.

(c) A defendant who consents to periodic drug testing as set forth in this Section shall sign an agreement with the court that, during the period of release, the defendant shall refrain from using illegal drugs and that the defendant will comply with the conditions of the testing program. The agreement shall be on a form prescribed by the court and shall be executed at the time of the bail hearing. This agreement shall be made a specific condition of bail.

(d) The drug testing program shall be conducted as follows:

(1) The testing shall be done by urinalysis for the detection of phencyclidine, heroin, cocaine, methadone and amphetamines.

(2) The collection of samples shall be performed under reasonable and sanitary conditions.

(3) Samples shall be collected and tested with due regard for the privacy of the individual being tested and in a manner reasonably calculated to prevent substitutions or interference with the collection or testing of reliable samples.

(4) Sample collection shall be documented, and the documentation procedures shall include:

(i) Labeling of samples so as to reasonably preclude the probability of erroneous identification of test results; and

(ii) An opportunity for the defendant to provide information on the identification of prescription or nonprescription drugs used in connection with a medical condition.

(5) Sample collection, storage, and transportation to the place of testing shall be performed so as to reasonably preclude the probability of sample contamination or adulteration.

(6) Sample testing shall conform to scientifically accepted analytical methods and procedures. Testing shall include verification or confirmation of any positive test result by a reliable analytical method before the result of any test may be used as a basis for any action by the court.

(e) The initial sample shall be collected before the defendant's release on bail. Thereafter, the defendant shall report to the pretrial services agency or probation department as required by the agency or department. The pretrial services agency or probation department shall immediately notify the court of any defendant who fails to report for testing.

(f) After the initial test, a subsequent confirmed positive test result indicative of continued drug use shall result in the following:

(1) Upon the first confirmed positive test result, the pretrial services agency or probation department, shall place the defendant on a more frequent testing schedule and shall warn the defendant of the consequences of continued drug use.

(2) A second confirmed positive test result shall be grounds for a hearing before the judge who authorized the release of the defendant in accordance with the provisions of subsection (g) of this Section.

(g) The court shall, upon motion of the State or upon its own motion, conduct a hearing in connection with any defendant who fails to appear for testing, fails to cooperate with the persons conducting the testing program, attempts to submit a sample not his or her own or has had a confirmed positive test result indicative of continued drug use for the second or subsequent time after the initial test. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures of Section 110-6.

Upon a finding by the court that the State has established by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant has violated the drug testing conditions of bail, the court may consider any of the following sanctions:

(1) increase the amount of the defendant's bail or conditions of release;

(2) impose a jail sentence of up to 5 days;

(3) revoke the defendant's bail; or

(4) enter such other orders which are within the power of the court as deemed appropriate.

(h) The results of any drug testing conducted under this Section shall not be admissible on the issue of the defendant's guilt in connection with any criminal charge.

(i) The court may require that the defendant pay for the cost of drug testing.

(j) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 88-677, eff. 12-15-94; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-7)

Sec. 110-7. Deposit of bail security.

(a) The person for whom bail has been set shall execute the bail bond and deposit with the clerk of the court before which the proceeding is pending a sum of money equal to 10% of the bail, but in no event shall such deposit be less than $25. The clerk of the court shall provide a space on each form for a person other than the accused who has provided the money for the posting of bail to so indicate and a space signed by an accused who has executed the bail bond indicating whether a person other than the accused has provided the money for the posting of bail. The form shall also include a written notice to such person who has provided the defendant with the money for the posting of bail indicating that the bail may be used to pay costs, attorney's fees, fines, or other purposes authorized by the court and if the defendant fails to comply with the conditions of the bail bond, the court shall enter an order declaring the bail to be forfeited. The written notice must be: (1) distinguishable from the surrounding text; (2) in bold type or underscored; and (3) in a type size at least 2 points larger than the surrounding type. When a person for whom bail has been set is charged with an offense under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act which is a Class X felony, or making a terrorist threat in violation of Section 29D-20 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or an attempt to commit the offense of making a terrorist threat, the court may require the defendant to deposit a sum equal to 100% of the bail. Where any person is charged with a forcible felony while free on bail and is the subject of proceedings under Section 109-3 of this Code the judge conducting the preliminary examination may also conduct a hearing upon the application of the State pursuant to the provisions of Section 110-6 of this Code to increase or revoke the bail for that person's prior alleged offense.

(b) Upon depositing this sum and any bond fee authorized by law, the person shall be released from custody subject to the conditions of the bail bond.

(c) Once bail has been given and a charge is pending or is thereafter filed in or transferred to a court of competent jurisdiction the latter court shall continue the original bail in that court subject to the provisions of Section 110-6 of this Code.

(d) After conviction the court may order that the original bail stand as bail pending appeal or deny, increase or reduce bail subject to the provisions of Section 110-6.2.

(e) After the entry of an order by the trial court allowing or denying bail pending appeal either party may apply to the reviewing court having jurisdiction or to a justice thereof sitting in vacation for an order increasing or decreasing the amount of bail or allowing or denying bail pending appeal subject to the provisions of Section 110-6.2.

(f) When the conditions of the bail bond have been performed and the accused has been discharged from all obligations in the cause the clerk of the court shall return to the accused or to the defendant's designee by an assignment executed at the time the bail amount is deposited, unless the court orders otherwise, 90% of the sum which had been deposited and shall retain as bail bond costs 10% of the amount deposited. However, in no event shall the amount retained by the clerk as bail bond costs be less than $5. Notwithstanding the foregoing, in counties with a population of 3,000,000 or more, in no event shall the amount retained by the clerk as bail bond costs exceed $100. Bail bond deposited by or on behalf of a defendant in one case may be used, in the court's discretion, to satisfy financial obligations of that same defendant incurred in a different case due to a fine, court costs, restitution or fees of the defendant's attorney of record. In counties with a population of 3,000,000 or more, the court shall not order bail bond deposited by or on behalf of a defendant in one case to be used to satisfy financial obligations of that same defendant in a different case until the bail bond is first used to satisfy court costs and attorney's fees in the case in which the bail bond has been deposited and any other unpaid child support obligations are satisfied. In counties with a population of less than 3,000,000, the court shall not order bail bond deposited by or on behalf of a defendant in one case to be used to satisfy financial obligations of that same defendant in a different case until the bail bond is first used to satisfy court costs in the case in which the bail bond has been deposited.

At the request of the defendant the court may order such 90% of defendant's bail deposit, or whatever amount is repayable to defendant from such deposit, to be paid to defendant's attorney of record.

(g) If the accused does not comply with the conditions of the bail bond the court having jurisdiction shall enter an order declaring the bail to be forfeited. Notice of such order of forfeiture shall be mailed forthwith to the accused at his last known address. If the accused does not appear and surrender to the court having jurisdiction within 30 days from the date of the forfeiture or within such period satisfy the court that appearance and surrender by the accused is impossible and without his fault the court shall enter judgment for the State if the charge for which the bond was given was a felony or misdemeanor, or if the charge was quasi-criminal or traffic, judgment for the political subdivision of the State which prosecuted the case, against the accused for the amount of the bail and costs of the court proceedings; however, in counties with a population of less than 3,000,000, instead of the court entering a judgment for the full amount of the bond the court may, in its discretion, enter judgment for the cash deposit on the bond, less costs, retain the deposit for further disposition or, if a cash bond was posted for failure to appear in a matter involving enforcement of child support or maintenance, the amount of the cash deposit on the bond, less outstanding costs, may be awarded to the person or entity to whom the child support or maintenance is due. The deposit made in accordance with paragraph (a) shall be applied to the payment of costs. If judgment is entered and any amount of such deposit remains after the payment of costs it shall be applied to payment of the judgment and transferred to the treasury of the municipal corporation wherein the bond was taken if the offense was a violation of any penal ordinance of a political subdivision of this State, or to the treasury of the county wherein the bond was taken if the offense was a violation of any penal statute of this State. The balance of the judgment may be enforced and collected in the same manner as a judgment entered in a civil action.

(h) After a judgment for a fine and court costs or either is entered in the prosecution of a cause in which a deposit had been made in accordance with paragraph (a) the balance of such deposit, after deduction of bail bond costs, shall be applied to the payment of the judgment.

(i) When a court appearance is required for an alleged violation of the Criminal Code of 1961, the Criminal Code of 2012, the Illinois Vehicle Code, the Wildlife Code, the Fish and Aquatic Life Code, the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a comparable offense of a unit of local government as specified in Supreme Court Rule 551, and if the accused does not appear in court on the date set for appearance or any date to which the case may be continued and the court issues an arrest warrant for the accused, based upon his or her failure to appear when having so previously been ordered to appear by the court, the accused upon his or her admission to bail shall be assessed by the court a fee of $75. Payment of the fee shall be a condition of release unless otherwise ordered by the court. The fee shall be in addition to any bail that the accused is required to deposit for the offense for which the accused has been charged and may not be used for the payment of court costs or fines assessed for the offense. The clerk of the court shall remit $70 of the fee assessed to the arresting agency who brings the offender in on the arrest warrant. If the Department of State Police is the arresting agency, $70 of the fee assessed shall be remitted by the clerk of the court to the State Treasurer within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund. The clerk of the court shall remit $5 of the fee assessed to the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund as provided in Section 27.3d of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(j) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 99-412, eff. 1-1-16; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-8)

Sec. 110-8. Cash, stocks, bonds and real estate as security for bail.

(a) In lieu of the bail deposit provided for in Section 110-7 of this Code any person for whom bail has been set may execute the bail bond with or without sureties which bond may be secured:

(1) By a deposit, with the clerk of the court, of an amount equal to the required bail, of cash, or stocks and bonds in which trustees are authorized to invest trust funds under the laws of this State; or

(2) By real estate situated in this State with unencumbered equity not exempt owned by the accused or sureties worth double the amount of bail set in the bond.

(b) If the bail bond is secured by stocks and bonds the accused or sureties shall file with the bond a sworn schedule which shall be approved by the court and shall contain:

(1) A list of the stocks and bonds deposited describing each in sufficient detail that it may be identified;

(2) The market value of each stock and bond;

(3) The total market value of the stocks and bonds listed;

(4) A statement that the affiant is the sole owner of the stocks and bonds listed and they are not exempt from the enforcement of a judgment thereon;

(5) A statement that such stocks and bonds have not previously been used or accepted as bail in this State during the 12 months preceding the date of the bail bond; and

(6) A statement that such stocks and bonds are security for the appearance of the accused in accordance with the conditions of the bail bond.

(c) If the bail bond is secured by real estate the accused or sureties shall file with the bond a sworn schedule which shall contain:

(1) A legal description of the real estate;

(2) A description of any and all encumbrances on the real estate including the amount of each and the holder thereof;

(3) The market value of the unencumbered equity owned by the affiant;

(4) A statement that the affiant is the sole owner of such unencumbered equity and that it is not exempt from the enforcement of a judgment thereon;

(5) A statement that the real estate has not previously been used or accepted as bail in this State during the 12 months preceding the date of the bail bond; and

(6) A statement that the real estate is security for the appearance of the accused in accordance with the conditions of the bail bond.

(d) The sworn schedule shall constitute a material part of the bail bond. The affiant commits perjury if in the sworn schedule he makes a false statement which he does not believe to be true. He shall be prosecuted and punished accordingly, or, he may be punished for contempt.

(e) A certified copy of the bail bond and schedule of real estate shall be filed immediately in the office of the registrar of titles or recorder of the county in which the real estate is situated and the State shall have a lien on such real estate from the time such copies are filed in the office of the registrar of titles or recorder. The registrar of titles or recorder shall enter, index and record (or register as the case may be) such bail bonds and schedules without requiring any advance fee, which fee shall be taxed as costs in the proceeding and paid out of such costs when collected.

(f) When the conditions of the bail bond have been performed and the accused has been discharged from his obligations in the cause, the clerk of the court shall return to him or his sureties the deposit of any cash, stocks or bonds. If the bail bond has been secured by real estate the clerk of the court shall forthwith notify in writing the registrar of titles or recorder and the lien of the bail bond on the real estate shall be discharged.

(g) If the accused does not comply with the conditions of the bail bond the court having jurisdiction shall enter an order declaring the bail to be forfeited. Notice of such order of forfeiture shall be mailed forthwith by the clerk of the court to the accused and his sureties at their last known address. If the accused does not appear and surrender to the court having jurisdiction within 30 days from the date of the forfeiture or within such period satisfy the court that appearance and surrender by the accused is impossible and without his fault the court shall enter judgment for the State against the accused and his sureties for the amount of the bail and costs of the proceedings; however, in counties with a population of less than 3,000,000, if the defendant has posted a cash bond, instead of the court entering a judgment for the full amount of the bond the court may, in its discretion, enter judgment for the cash deposit on the bond, less costs, retain the deposit for further disposition or, if a cash bond was posted for failure to appear in a matter involving enforcement of child support or maintenance, the amount of the cash deposit on the bond, less outstanding costs, may be awarded to the person or entity to whom the child support or maintenance is due.

(h) When judgment is entered in favor of the State on any bail bond given for a felony or misdemeanor, or judgement for a political subdivision of the state on any bail bond given for a quasi-criminal or traffic offense, the State's Attorney or political subdivision's attorney shall forthwith obtain a certified copy of the judgment and deliver same to the sheriff to be enforced by levy on the stocks or bonds deposited with the clerk of the court and the real estate described in the bail bond schedule. Any cash forfeited under subsection (g) of this Section shall be used to satisfy the judgment and costs and, without necessity of levy, ordered paid into the treasury of the municipal corporation wherein the bail bond was taken if the offense was a violation of any penal ordinance of a political subdivision of this State, or into the treasury of the county wherein the bail bond was taken if the offense was a violation of any penal statute of this State, or to the person or entity to whom child support or maintenance is owed if the bond was taken for failure to appear in a matter involving child support or maintenance. The stocks, bonds and real estate shall be sold in the same manner as in sales for the enforcement of a judgment in civil actions and the proceeds of such sale shall be used to satisfy all court costs, prior encumbrances, if any, and from the balance a sufficient amount to satisfy the judgment shall be paid into the treasury of the municipal corporation wherein the bail bond was taken if the offense was a violation of any penal ordinance of a political subdivision of this State, or into the treasury of the county wherein the bail bond was taken if the offense was a violation of any penal statute of this State. The balance shall be returned to the owner. The real estate so sold may be redeemed in the same manner as real estate may be redeemed after judicial sales or sales for the enforcement of judgments in civil actions.

(i) No stocks, bonds or real estate may be used or accepted as bail bond security in this State more than once in any 12 month period.

(j) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 89-469, eff. 1-1-97; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-9)

Sec. 110-9. Taking of bail by peace officer. When bail has been set by a judicial officer for a particular offense or offender any sheriff or other peace officer may take bail in accordance with the provisions of Section 110-7 or 110-8 of this Code and release the offender to appear in accordance with the conditions of the bail bond, the Notice to Appear or the Summons. The officer shall give a receipt to the offender for the bail so taken and within a reasonable time deposit such bail with the clerk of the court having jurisdiction of the offense. A sheriff or other peace officer taking bail in accordance with the provisions of Section 110-7 or 110-8 of this Code shall accept payments made in the form of currency, and may accept other forms of payment as the sheriff shall by rule authorize. For purposes of this Section, "currency" has the meaning provided in subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Currency Reporting Act.

This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 99-618, eff. 1-1-17; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-13) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-13)

Sec. 110-13. Persons prohibited from furnishing bail security. No attorney at law practicing in this State and no official authorized to admit another to bail or to accept bail shall furnish any part of any security for bail in any criminal action or any proceeding nor shall any such person act as surety for any accused admitted to bail.

This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: Laws 1963, p. 2836; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-14)

Sec. 110-14. Credit for incarceration on bailable offense; credit against monetary bail for certain offenses.

(a) Any person incarcerated on a bailable offense who does not supply bail and against whom a fine is levied on conviction of the offense shall be allowed a credit of $30 for each day so incarcerated upon application of the defendant. However, in no case shall the amount so allowed or credited exceed the amount of the fine.

(b) Subsection (a) does not apply to a person incarcerated for sexual assault as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 5-9-1.7 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(c) A person subject to bail on a Category B offense shall have $30 deducted from his or her 10% cash bond amount every day the person is incarcerated. The sheriff shall calculate and apply this $30 per day reduction and send notice to the circuit clerk if a defendant's 10% cash bond amount is reduced to $0, at which point the defendant shall be released upon his or her own recognizance.

(d) The court may deny the incarceration credit in subsection (c) of this Section if the person has failed to appear as required before the court and is incarcerated based on a warrant for failure to appear on the same original criminal offense.

(e) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 100-1, eff. 1-1-18; 100-929, eff. 1-1-19; 101-408, eff. 1-1-20; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-15) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-15)

Sec. 110-15. Applicability of provisions for giving and taking bail. The provisions of Sections 110-7 and 110-8 of this Code are exclusive of other provisions of law for the giving, taking, or enforcement of bail. In all cases where a person is admitted to bail the provisions of Sections 110-7 and 110-8 of this Code shall be applicable.

However, the Supreme Court may, by rule or order, prescribe a uniform schedule of amounts of bail in all but felony offenses. The uniform schedule shall not require a person cited for violating the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance for which a violation is a petty offense as defined by Section 5-1-17 of the Unified Code of Corrections, excluding business offenses as defined by Section 5-1-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections or a violation of Section 15-111 or subsection (d) of Section 3-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, to post bond to secure bail for his or her release. Such uniform schedule may provide that the cash deposit provisions of Section 110-7 shall not apply to bail amounts established for alleged violations punishable by fine alone, and the schedule may further provide that in specified traffic cases a valid Illinois chauffeur's or operator's license must be deposited, in addition to 10% of the amount of the bail specified in the schedule.

This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 98-870, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1134, eff. 1-1-15; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-16) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-16)

Sec. 110-16. Bail bond-forfeiture in same case or absents self during trial-not bailable. If a person admitted to bail on a felony charge forfeits his bond and fails to appear in court during the 30 days immediately after such forfeiture, on being taken into custody thereafter he shall not be bailable in the case in question, unless the court finds that his absence was not for the purpose of obstructing justice or avoiding prosecution.

This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 77-1447; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-17) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-17)

Sec. 110-17. Unclaimed bail deposits. Any sum of money deposited by any person to secure his or her release from custody which remains unclaimed by the person entitled to its return for 3 years after the conditions of the bail bond have been performed and the accused has been discharged from all obligations in the cause shall be presumed to be abandoned and subject to disposition under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-929, eff. 1-1-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-18) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-18)

Sec. 110-18. Reimbursement. The sheriff of each county shall certify to the treasurer of each county the number of days that persons had been detained in the custody of the sheriff without a bond being set as a result of an order entered pursuant to Section 110-6.1 of this Code. The county treasurer shall, no later than January 1, annually certify to the Supreme Court the number of days that persons had been detained without bond during the twelve-month period ending November 30. The Supreme Court shall reimburse, from funds appropriated to it by the General Assembly for such purposes, the treasurer of each county an amount of money for deposit in the county general revenue fund at a rate of $50 per day for each day that persons were detained in custody without bail as a result of an order entered pursuant to Section 110-6.1 of this Code.

This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 85-892; P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21. Repealed by P.A. 102-28, eff. 1-1-23.)

Section 255. The Statute on Statutes is amended by adding Section 9 as follows:

(5 ILCS 70/9 new)

Sec. 9. Stated repeal date; presentation to Governor. If a bill that changes or eliminates the stated repeal date of an Act or an Article or Section of an Act is presented to the Governor by the General Assembly before the stated repeal date and, after the stated repeal date, either the Governor approves the bill, the General Assembly overrides the Governor's veto of the bill, or the bill becomes law because it is not returned by the Governor within 60 calendar days after it is presented to the Governor, then the Act, Article, or Section shall be deemed to remain in full force and effect from the stated repeal date through the date the Governor approves the bill, the General Assembly overrides the Governor's veto of the bill, or the bill becomes law because it is not returned by the Governor within 60 calendar days after it is presented to the Governor.

Any action taken in reliance on the continuous effect of such an Act, Article, or Section by any person or entity is hereby validated.

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.