|
health and that support access to the full scope of quality |
reproductive health care for all in our State; and |
(2) To permit regulation of reproductive health care, |
including contraception, abortion, and maternity care, |
only to the extent that such regulation is narrowly |
tailored to protect a compelling State interest, which for |
the purposes of this Act means: consistent with accepted |
standards of clinical practice, evidence based, and |
narrowly tailored for the limited purpose of protecting the |
health of people seeking such care and in the manner that |
least restricts a person's autonomous decision-making. |
Section 1-10. Definitions. As used in this Act: |
"Abortion" means the use of any instrument, medicine, drug, |
or any other substance or device to terminate the pregnancy of |
an individual known to be pregnant with an intention other than |
to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the |
life or health of the child after live birth, or to remove a |
dead fetus. |
"Advanced practice registered nurse" has the same meaning |
as it does in Section 50-10 of the Nurse Practice Act. |
"Department" means the Illinois Department of Public |
Health. |
"Fetal viability" means that, in the professional judgment |
of the attending health care professional, based on the |
particular facts of the case, there is a significant likelihood |
|
of a fetus' sustained survival outside the uterus without the |
application of extraordinary medical measures. |
"Health care professional" means a person who is licensed |
as a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or |
physician assistant. |
"Health of the patient" means all factors that are relevant |
to the patient's health and well-being, including, but not |
limited to, physical, emotional, psychological, and familial |
health and age. |
"Maternity care" means the health care provided in relation |
to pregnancy, labor and childbirth, and the postpartum period, |
and includes prenatal care, care during labor and birthing, and |
postpartum care extending through one-year postpartum. |
Maternity care shall, seek to optimize positive outcomes for |
the patient, and be provided on the basis of the physical and |
psychosocial needs of the patient. Notwithstanding any of the |
above, all care shall be subject to the informed and voluntary |
consent of the patient, or the patient's legal proxy, when the |
patient is unable to give consent. |
"Physician" means any person licensed to practice medicine |
in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987. |
"Physician assistant" has the same meaning as it does in |
Section 4 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. |
"Pregnancy" means the human reproductive process, |
beginning with the implantation of an embryo. |
"Prevailing party" has the same meaning as in the Illinois |
|
Civil Rights Act of 2003. |
"Reproductive health care" means health care offered, |
arranged, or furnished for the purpose of preventing pregnancy, |
terminating a pregnancy, managing pregnancy loss, or improving |
maternal health and birth outcomes. Reproductive health care |
includes, but is not limited to: contraception; sterilization; |
preconception care; maternity care; abortion care; and |
counseling regarding reproductive health care. |
"State" includes any branch, department, agency, |
instrumentality, and official or other person acting under |
color of law of this State or a political subdivision of the |
State, including any unit of local government (including a home |
rule unit), school district, instrumentality, or public |
subdivision. |
Section 1-15. Fundamental reproductive health rights. |
(a) Every individual has a fundamental right to make |
autonomous decisions about the individual's own reproductive |
health, including the fundamental right to use or refuse |
reproductive health care. |
(b) Every individual who becomes pregnant has a fundamental |
right to continue the pregnancy and give birth or to have an |
abortion, and to make autonomous decisions about how to |
exercise that right. |
(c) A fertilized egg, embryo, or fetus does not have |
independent rights under the laws of this State. |
|
Section 1-20. Prohibited State actions; causes of action. |
(a)The State shall not: |
(1) deny, restrict, interfere with, or discriminate |
against an individual's exercise of the fundamental rights |
set forth in this Act, including individuals under State |
custody, control, or supervision; or |
(2) prosecute, punish, or otherwise deprive any |
individual of the individual's rights for any act or |
failure to act during the individual's own pregnancy, if |
the predominant basis for such prosecution, punishment, or |
deprivation of rights is the potential, actual, or |
perceived impact on the pregnancy or its outcomes or on the |
pregnant individual's own health. |
(b) Any party aggrieved by conduct or regulation in |
violation of this Act may bring a civil lawsuit, in a federal |
district court or State circuit court, against the offending |
unit of government. Any State claim brought in federal district |
court shall be a supplemental claim to a federal claim. |
(c) Upon motion, a court shall award reasonable attorney's |
fees and costs, including expert witness fees and other |
litigation expenses, to a plaintiff who is a prevailing party |
in any action brought pursuant to this Section. In awarding |
reasonable attorney's fees, the court shall consider the degree |
to which the relief obtained relates to the relief sought. |
|
Section 1-25. Reporting of abortions performed by health |
care professionals. |
(a) A health care professional may provide abortion care in |
accordance with the health care professional's professional |
judgment and training and based on accepted standards of |
clinical practice consistent with the scope of his or her |
practice under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse |
Practice Act, or the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. |
If the health care professional determines that there is fetal |
viability, the health care professional may provide abortion |
care only if, in the professional judgment of the health care |
professional, the abortion is necessary to protect the life or |
health of the patient. |
(b) A report of each abortion performed by a health care |
professional shall be made to the Department on forms |
prescribed by it. Such reports shall be transmitted to the |
Department not later than 10 days following the end of the |
month in which the abortion is performed. |
(c) The abortion reporting forms prescribed by the |
Department shall not request or require information that |
identifies a patient by name or any other identifying |
information, and the Department shall secure anonymity of all |
patients and health care professionals. |
(d) All reports received by the Department pursuant to this |
Section shall be treated as confidential and exempt from the |
Freedom of Information Act. Access to such reports shall be |
|
limited to authorized Department staff who shall use the |
reports for statistical purposes only. Such reports must be |
destroyed within 2 years after date of receipt. |
Section 1-30. Application. |
(a) This Act applies to all State laws, ordinances, |
policies, procedures, practices, and governmental actions and |
their implementation, whether statutory or otherwise and |
whether adopted before or after the effective date of this Act. |
(b) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize the |
State to burden any individual's fundamental rights relating to |
reproductive health care. |
Section 1-35. Home rule powers limitation. A unit of local |
government may enact ordinances, standards, rules, or |
regulations that protect an individual's ability to freely |
exercise the fundamental rights set forth in this Act in a |
manner or to an extent equal to or greater than the protection |
provided in this Act. A unit of local government may not |
regulate an individual's ability to freely exercise the |
fundamental rights set forth in this Act in a manner more |
restrictive than that set forth in this Act. This Section is a |
limitation under subsection
(i) of Section 6 of Article VII of |
the Illinois Constitution
on the concurrent exercise by home |
rule units of powers and
functions exercised by the State. |
|
Section 905-30. The Abortion Performance Refusal Act is |
repealed. |
Article 910. AMENDMENTS |
Section 910-5. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of |
1971 is amended by changing Section 6.11 as follows:
|
(5 ILCS 375/6.11)
|
(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-1170 ) |
Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance |
Code
requirements. The program of health
benefits shall provide |
the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered
by a |
policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of |
the Illinois
Insurance Code. The program of health benefits |
shall provide the coverage
required under Sections 356g, |
356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m,
356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, |
356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, |
356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.22, 356z.25, and |
356z.26, and 356z.29 , and 356z.32 of the
Illinois Insurance |
Code.
The program of health benefits must comply with Sections |
155.22a, 155.37, 355b, 356z.19, 370c, and 370c.1 of the
|
Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall |
enforce the requirements of this Section.
|
Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if |
any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance |
|
with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure |
Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on |
Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for |
whatever reason, is unauthorized. |
(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; |
100-138, eff. 8-18-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1024, eff. |
1-1-19; 100-1057, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19; revised |
1-8-19.) |
(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-1170 ) |
Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance |
Code
requirements. The program of health
benefits shall provide |
the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered
by a |
policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of |
the Illinois
Insurance Code. The program of health benefits |
shall provide the coverage
required under Sections 356g, |
356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m,
356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, |
356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, |
356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, |
356z.29, and 356z.32 of the
Illinois Insurance Code.
The |
program of health benefits must comply with Sections 155.22a, |
155.37, 355b, 356z.19, 370c, and 370c.1 of the
Illinois |
Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the |
requirements of this Section with respect to Sections 370c and |
370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code; all other requirements |
of this Section shall be enforced by the Department of Central |
|
Management Services.
|
Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if |
any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance |
with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure |
Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on |
Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for |
whatever reason, is unauthorized. |
(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; |
100-138, eff. 8-18-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1024, eff. |
1-1-19; 100-1057, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19; |
100-1170, eff. 6-1-19.) |
Section 910-10. The Children and Family Services Act is |
amended by changing Section 5 as follows:
|
(20 ILCS 505/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5005)
|
Sec. 5. Direct child welfare services; Department of |
Children and Family
Services. To provide direct child welfare |
services when not available
through other public or private |
child care or program facilities.
|
(a) For purposes of this Section:
|
(1) "Children" means persons found within the State who |
are under the
age of 18 years. The term also includes |
persons under age 21 who:
|
(A) were committed to the Department pursuant to |
the
Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of |
|
1987, as amended, prior to
the age of 18 and who |
continue under the jurisdiction of the court; or
|
(B) were accepted for care, service and training by
|
the Department prior to the age of 18 and whose best |
interest in the
discretion of the Department would be |
served by continuing that care,
service and training |
because of severe emotional disturbances, physical
|
disability, social adjustment or any combination |
thereof, or because of the
need to complete an |
educational or vocational training program.
|
(2) "Homeless youth" means persons found within the
|
State who are under the age of 19, are not in a safe and |
stable living
situation and cannot be reunited with their |
families.
|
(3) "Child welfare services" means public social |
services which are
directed toward the accomplishment of |
the following purposes:
|
(A) protecting and promoting the health, safety |
and welfare of
children,
including homeless, dependent |
or neglected children;
|
(B) remedying, or assisting in the solution
of |
problems which may result in, the neglect, abuse, |
exploitation or
delinquency of children;
|
(C) preventing the unnecessary separation of |
children
from their families by identifying family |
problems, assisting families in
resolving their |
|
problems, and preventing the breakup of the family
|
where the prevention of child removal is desirable and |
possible when the
child can be cared for at home |
without endangering the child's health and
safety;
|
(D) restoring to their families children who have |
been
removed, by the provision of services to the child |
and the families when the
child can be cared for at |
home without endangering the child's health and
|
safety;
|
(E) placing children in suitable adoptive homes, |
in
cases where restoration to the biological family is |
not safe, possible or
appropriate;
|
(F) assuring safe and adequate care of children |
away from their
homes, in cases where the child cannot |
be returned home or cannot be placed
for adoption. At |
the time of placement, the Department shall consider
|
concurrent planning,
as described in subsection (l-1) |
of this Section so that permanency may
occur at the |
earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so |
that if
reunification fails or is delayed, the |
placement made is the best available
placement to |
provide permanency for the child;
|
(G) (blank);
|
(H) (blank); and
|
(I) placing and maintaining children in facilities |
that provide
separate living quarters for children |
|
under the age of 18 and for children
18 years of age |
and older, unless a child 18 years of age is in the |
last
year of high school education or vocational |
training, in an approved
individual or group treatment |
program, in a licensed shelter facility,
or secure |
child care facility.
The Department is not required to |
place or maintain children:
|
(i) who are in a foster home, or
|
(ii) who are persons with a developmental |
disability, as defined in
the Mental
Health and |
Developmental Disabilities Code, or
|
(iii) who are female children who are |
pregnant, pregnant and
parenting or parenting, or
|
(iv) who are siblings, in facilities that |
provide separate living quarters for children 18
|
years of age and older and for children under 18 |
years of age.
|
(b) (Blank). Nothing in this Section shall be construed to |
authorize the
expenditure of public funds for the purpose of |
performing abortions.
|
(c) The Department shall establish and maintain |
tax-supported child
welfare services and extend and seek to |
improve voluntary services
throughout the State, to the end |
that services and care shall be available
on an equal basis |
throughout the State to children requiring such services.
|
(d) The Director may authorize advance disbursements for |
|
any new program
initiative to any agency contracting with the |
Department. As a
prerequisite for an advance disbursement, the |
contractor must post a
surety bond in the amount of the advance |
disbursement and have a
purchase of service contract approved |
by the Department. The Department
may pay up to 2 months |
operational expenses in advance. The amount of the
advance |
disbursement shall be prorated over the life of the contract
or |
the remaining months of the fiscal year, whichever is less, and |
the
installment amount shall then be deducted from future |
bills. Advance
disbursement authorizations for new initiatives |
shall not be made to any
agency after that agency has operated |
during 2 consecutive fiscal years.
The requirements of this |
Section concerning advance disbursements shall
not apply with |
respect to the following: payments to local public agencies
for |
child day care services as authorized by Section 5a of this |
Act; and
youth service programs receiving grant funds under |
Section 17a-4.
|
(e) (Blank).
|
(f) (Blank).
|
(g) The Department shall establish rules and regulations |
concerning
its operation of programs designed to meet the goals |
of child safety and
protection,
family preservation, family |
reunification, and adoption, including but not
limited to:
|
(1) adoption;
|
(2) foster care;
|
(3) family counseling;
|
|
(4) protective services;
|
(5) (blank);
|
(6) homemaker service;
|
(7) return of runaway children;
|
(8) (blank);
|
(9) placement under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court |
Act or
Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 , or 5-740 of the Juvenile |
Court Act of 1987 in
accordance with the federal Adoption |
Assistance and Child Welfare Act of
1980; and
|
(10) interstate services.
|
Rules and regulations established by the Department shall |
include
provisions for training Department staff and the staff |
of Department
grantees, through contracts with other agencies |
or resources, in screening techniques to identify substance use |
disorders, as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, |
approved by the Department of Human
Services, as a successor to |
the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse,
for the |
purpose of identifying children and adults who
should be |
referred for an assessment at an organization appropriately |
licensed by the Department of Human Services for substance use |
disorder treatment.
|
(h) If the Department finds that there is no appropriate |
program or
facility within or available to the Department for a |
youth in care and that no
licensed private facility has an |
adequate and appropriate program or none
agrees to accept the |
youth in care, the Department shall create an appropriate
|
|
individualized, program-oriented plan for such youth in care. |
The
plan may be developed within the Department or through |
purchase of services
by the Department to the extent that it is |
within its statutory authority
to do.
|
(i) Service programs shall be available throughout the |
State and shall
include but not be limited to the following |
services:
|
(1) case management;
|
(2) homemakers;
|
(3) counseling;
|
(4) parent education;
|
(5) day care; and
|
(6) emergency assistance and advocacy.
|
In addition, the following services may be made available |
to assess and
meet the needs of children and families:
|
(1) comprehensive family-based services;
|
(2) assessments;
|
(3) respite care; and
|
(4) in-home health services.
|
The Department shall provide transportation for any of the |
services it
makes available to children or families or for |
which it refers children
or families.
|
(j) The Department may provide categories of financial |
assistance and
education assistance grants, and shall
|
establish rules and regulations concerning the assistance and |
grants, to
persons who
adopt children with physical or mental |
|
disabilities, children who are older, or other hard-to-place
|
children who (i) immediately prior to their adoption were youth |
in care or (ii) were determined eligible for financial |
assistance with respect to a
prior adoption and who become |
available for adoption because the
prior adoption has been |
dissolved and the parental rights of the adoptive
parents have |
been
terminated or because the child's adoptive parents have |
died.
The Department may continue to provide financial |
assistance and education assistance grants for a child who was |
determined eligible for financial assistance under this |
subsection (j) in the interim period beginning when the child's |
adoptive parents died and ending with the finalization of the |
new adoption of the child by another adoptive parent or |
parents. The Department may also provide categories of |
financial
assistance and education assistance grants, and
|
shall establish rules and regulations for the assistance and |
grants, to persons
appointed guardian of the person under |
Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court
Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, |
4-25 , or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987
for children |
who were youth in care for 12 months immediately
prior to the |
appointment of the guardian.
|
The amount of assistance may vary, depending upon the needs |
of the child
and the adoptive parents,
as set forth in the |
annual
assistance agreement. Special purpose grants are |
allowed where the child
requires special service but such costs |
may not exceed the amounts
which similar services would cost |
|
the Department if it were to provide or
secure them as guardian |
of the child.
|
Any financial assistance provided under this subsection is
|
inalienable by assignment, sale, execution, attachment, |
garnishment, or any
other remedy for recovery or collection of |
a judgment or debt.
|
(j-5) The Department shall not deny or delay the placement |
of a child for
adoption
if an approved family is available |
either outside of the Department region
handling the case,
or |
outside of the State of Illinois.
|
(k) The Department shall accept for care and training any |
child who has
been adjudicated neglected or abused, or |
dependent committed to it pursuant
to the Juvenile Court Act or |
the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
|
(l) The Department shall
offer family preservation |
services, as defined in Section 8.2 of the Abused
and
Neglected |
Child
Reporting Act, to help families, including adoptive and |
extended families.
Family preservation
services shall be |
offered (i) to prevent the
placement
of children in
substitute |
care when the children can be cared for at home or in the |
custody of
the person
responsible for the children's welfare,
|
(ii) to
reunite children with their families, or (iii) to
|
maintain an adoptive placement. Family preservation services |
shall only be
offered when doing so will not endanger the |
children's health or safety. With
respect to children who are |
in substitute care pursuant to the Juvenile Court
Act of 1987, |
|
family preservation services shall not be offered if a goal |
other
than those of subdivisions (A), (B), or (B-1) of |
subsection (2) of Section 2-28
of
that Act has been set, except |
that reunification services may be offered as provided in |
paragraph (F) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act.
|
Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to create a |
private right of
action or claim on the part of any individual |
or child welfare agency, except that when a child is the |
subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act |
of 1987 and the child's service plan calls for services to |
facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court |
hearing the action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act |
of 1987 may order the Department to provide the services set |
out in the plan, if those services are not provided with |
reasonable promptness and if those services are available.
|
The Department shall notify the child and his family of the
|
Department's
responsibility to offer and provide family |
preservation services as
identified in the service plan. The |
child and his family shall be eligible
for services as soon as |
the report is determined to be "indicated". The
Department may |
offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a
|
report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been filed, |
prior to
concluding its investigation under Section 7.12 of the |
Abused and Neglected
Child Reporting Act. However, the child's |
or family's willingness to
accept services shall not be |
considered in the investigation. The
Department may also |
|
provide services to any child or family who is the
subject of |
any report of suspected child abuse or neglect or may refer |
such
child or family to services available from other agencies |
in the community,
even if the report is determined to be |
unfounded, if the conditions in the
child's or family's home |
are reasonably likely to subject the child or
family to future |
reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance
of such |
services shall be voluntary. The Department may also provide |
services to any child or family after completion of a family |
assessment, as an alternative to an investigation, as provided |
under the "differential response program" provided for in |
subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected |
Child Reporting Act.
|
The Department may, at its discretion except for those |
children also
adjudicated neglected or dependent, accept for |
care and training any child
who has been adjudicated addicted, |
as a truant minor in need of
supervision or as a minor |
requiring authoritative intervention, under the
Juvenile Court |
Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but no such child
shall |
be committed to the Department by any court without the |
approval of
the Department. On and after January 1, 2015 (the |
effective date of Public Act 98-803) and before January 1, |
2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the |
Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or |
adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or
|
committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor |
|
less than 16 years
of age committed to the Department under |
Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court
Act
of 1987, (ii) a minor |
for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency |
exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a |
minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to |
reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 |
of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. On and after January 1, |
2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the |
Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or |
adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or
|
committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor |
less than 15 years
of age committed to the Department under |
Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court
Act
of 1987, ii) a minor |
for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency |
exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a |
minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to |
reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 |
of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. An independent basis exists |
when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or |
dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or |
circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of |
delinquency. The Department shall
assign a caseworker to attend |
any hearing involving a youth in
the care and custody of the |
Department who is placed on aftercare release, including |
hearings
involving sanctions for violation of aftercare |
release
conditions and aftercare release revocation hearings.
|
|
As soon as is possible after August 7, 2009 (the effective |
date of Public Act 96-134), the Department shall develop and |
implement a special program of family preservation services to |
support intact, foster, and adoptive families who are |
experiencing extreme hardships due to the difficulty and stress |
of caring for a child who has been diagnosed with a pervasive |
developmental disorder if the Department determines that those |
services are necessary to ensure the health and safety of the |
child. The Department may offer services to any family whether |
or not a report has been filed under the Abused and Neglected |
Child Reporting Act. The Department may refer the child or |
family to services available from other agencies in the |
community if the conditions in the child's or family's home are |
reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future |
reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of |
these services shall be voluntary. The Department shall develop |
and implement a public information campaign to alert health and |
social service providers and the general public about these |
special family preservation services. The nature and scope of |
the services offered and the number of families served under |
the special program implemented under this paragraph shall be |
determined by the level of funding that the Department annually |
allocates for this purpose. The term "pervasive developmental |
disorder" under this paragraph means a neurological condition, |
including but not limited to, Asperger's Syndrome and autism, |
as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and |
|
Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American |
Psychiatric Association. |
(l-1) The legislature recognizes that the best interests of |
the child
require that
the child be placed in the most |
permanent living arrangement as soon as is
practically
|
possible. To achieve this goal, the legislature directs the |
Department of
Children and
Family Services to conduct |
concurrent planning so that permanency may occur at
the
|
earliest opportunity. Permanent living arrangements may |
include prevention of
placement of a child outside the home of |
the family when the child can be cared
for at
home without |
endangering the child's health or safety; reunification with |
the
family,
when safe and appropriate, if temporary placement |
is necessary; or movement of
the child
toward the most |
permanent living arrangement and permanent legal status.
|
When determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect |
to a child, as
described in this
subsection, and in making such |
reasonable efforts, the child's health and
safety shall be the
|
paramount concern.
|
When a child is placed in foster care, the Department shall |
ensure and
document that reasonable efforts were made to |
prevent or eliminate the need to
remove the child from the |
child's home. The Department must make
reasonable efforts to |
reunify the family when temporary placement of the child
occurs
|
unless otherwise required, pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act |
of 1987.
At any time after the dispositional hearing where the |
|
Department believes
that further reunification services would |
be ineffective, it may request a
finding from the court that |
reasonable efforts are no longer appropriate. The
Department is |
not required to provide further reunification services after |
such
a
finding.
|
A decision to place a child in substitute care shall be |
made with
considerations of the child's health, safety, and |
best interests. At the
time of placement, consideration should |
also be given so that if reunification
fails or is delayed, the |
placement made is the best available placement to
provide |
permanency for the child.
|
The Department shall adopt rules addressing concurrent |
planning for
reunification and permanency. The Department |
shall consider the following
factors when determining |
appropriateness of concurrent planning:
|
(1) the likelihood of prompt reunification;
|
(2) the past history of the family;
|
(3) the barriers to reunification being addressed by |
the family;
|
(4) the level of cooperation of the family;
|
(5) the foster parents' willingness to work with the |
family to reunite;
|
(6) the willingness and ability of the foster family to |
provide an
adoptive
home or long-term placement;
|
(7) the age of the child;
|
(8) placement of siblings.
|
|
(m) The Department may assume temporary custody of any |
child if:
|
(1) it has received a written consent to such temporary |
custody
signed by the parents of the child or by the parent |
having custody of the
child if the parents are not living |
together or by the guardian or
custodian of the child if |
the child is not in the custody of either
parent, or
|
(2) the child is found in the State and neither a |
parent,
guardian nor custodian of the child can be located.
|
If the child is found in his or her residence without a parent, |
guardian,
custodian or responsible caretaker, the Department |
may, instead of removing
the child and assuming temporary |
custody, place an authorized
representative of the Department |
in that residence until such time as a
parent, guardian or |
custodian enters the home and expresses a willingness
and |
apparent ability to ensure the child's health and safety and |
resume
permanent
charge of the child, or until a
relative |
enters the home and is willing and able to ensure the child's |
health
and
safety and assume charge of the
child until a |
parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses
|
such willingness and ability to ensure the child's safety and |
resume
permanent charge. After a caretaker has remained in the |
home for a period not
to exceed 12 hours, the Department must |
follow those procedures outlined in
Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or |
5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act
of 1987.
|
The Department shall have the authority, responsibilities |
|
and duties that
a legal custodian of the child would have |
pursuant to subsection (9) of
Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court |
Act of 1987. Whenever a child is taken
into temporary custody |
pursuant to an investigation under the Abused and
Neglected |
Child Reporting Act, or pursuant to a referral and acceptance
|
under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of a minor in limited |
custody, the
Department, during the period of temporary custody |
and before the child
is brought before a judicial officer as |
required by Section 2-9, 3-11,
4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile |
Court Act of 1987, shall have
the authority, responsibilities |
and duties that a legal custodian of the child
would have under |
subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of
|
1987.
|
The Department shall ensure that any child taken into |
custody
is scheduled for an appointment for a medical |
examination.
|
A parent, guardian or custodian of a child in the temporary |
custody of the
Department who would have custody of the child |
if he were not in the
temporary custody of the Department may |
deliver to the Department a signed
request that the Department |
surrender the temporary custody of the child.
The Department |
may retain temporary custody of the child for 10 days after
the |
receipt of the request, during which period the Department may |
cause to
be filed a petition pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act |
of 1987. If a
petition is so filed, the Department shall retain |
temporary custody of the
child until the court orders |
|
otherwise. If a petition is not filed within
the 10-day period, |
the child shall be surrendered to the custody of the
requesting |
parent, guardian or custodian not later than the expiration of
|
the 10-day period, at which time the authority and duties of |
the Department
with respect to the temporary custody of the |
child shall terminate.
|
(m-1) The Department may place children under 18 years of |
age in a secure
child care facility licensed by the Department |
that cares for children who are
in need of secure living |
arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being
after a |
determination is made by the facility director and the Director |
or the
Director's designate prior to admission to the facility |
subject to Section
2-27.1 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. |
This subsection (m-1) does not apply
to a child who is subject |
to placement in a correctional facility operated
pursuant to |
Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the
|
child is a youth in care who was placed in the care of the |
Department before being
subject to placement in a correctional |
facility and a court of competent
jurisdiction has ordered |
placement of the child in a secure care facility.
|
(n) The Department may place children under 18 years of age |
in
licensed child care facilities when in the opinion of the |
Department,
appropriate services aimed at family preservation |
have been unsuccessful and
cannot ensure the child's health and |
safety or are unavailable and such
placement would be for their |
best interest. Payment
for board, clothing, care, training and |
|
supervision of any child placed in
a licensed child care |
facility may be made by the Department, by the
parents or |
guardians of the estates of those children, or by both the
|
Department and the parents or guardians, except that no |
payments shall be
made by the Department for any child placed |
in a licensed child care
facility for board, clothing, care, |
training and supervision of such a
child that exceed the |
average per capita cost of maintaining and of caring
for a |
child in institutions for dependent or neglected children |
operated by
the Department. However, such restriction on |
payments does not apply in
cases where children require |
specialized care and treatment for problems of
severe emotional |
disturbance, physical disability, social adjustment, or
any |
combination thereof and suitable facilities for the placement |
of such
children are not available at payment rates within the |
limitations set
forth in this Section. All reimbursements for |
services delivered shall be
absolutely inalienable by |
assignment, sale, attachment, garnishment or
otherwise.
|
(n-1) The Department shall provide or authorize child |
welfare services, aimed at assisting minors to achieve |
sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults, for any |
minor eligible for the reinstatement of wardship pursuant to |
subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of |
1987, whether or not such reinstatement is sought or allowed, |
provided that the minor consents to such services and has not |
yet attained the age of 21. The Department shall have |
|
responsibility for the development and delivery of services |
under this Section. An eligible youth may access services under |
this Section through the Department of Children and Family |
Services or by referral from the Department of Human Services. |
Youth participating in services under this Section shall |
cooperate with the assigned case manager in developing an |
agreement identifying the services to be provided and how the |
youth will increase skills to achieve self-sufficiency. A |
homeless shelter is not considered appropriate housing for any |
youth receiving child welfare services under this Section. The |
Department shall continue child welfare services under this |
Section to any eligible minor until the minor becomes 21 years |
of age, no longer consents to participate, or achieves |
self-sufficiency as identified in the minor's service plan. The |
Department of Children and Family Services shall create clear, |
readable notice of the rights of former foster youth to child |
welfare services under this Section and how such services may |
be obtained. The Department of Children and Family Services and |
the Department of Human Services shall disseminate this |
information statewide. The Department shall adopt regulations |
describing services intended to assist minors in achieving |
sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults. |
(o) The Department shall establish an administrative |
review and appeal
process for children and families who request |
or receive child welfare
services from the Department. Youth in |
care who are placed by private child welfare agencies, and |
|
foster families with whom
those youth are placed, shall be |
afforded the same procedural and appeal
rights as children and |
families in the case of placement by the Department,
including |
the right to an initial review of a private agency decision by
|
that agency. The Department shall ensure that any private child |
welfare
agency, which accepts youth in care for placement, |
affords those
rights to children and foster families. The |
Department shall accept for
administrative review and an appeal |
hearing a complaint made by (i) a child
or foster family |
concerning a decision following an initial review by a
private |
child welfare agency or (ii) a prospective adoptive parent who |
alleges
a violation of subsection (j-5) of this Section. An |
appeal of a decision
concerning a change in the placement of a |
child shall be conducted in an
expedited manner. A court |
determination that a current foster home placement is necessary |
and appropriate under Section 2-28 of the Juvenile Court Act of |
1987 does not constitute a judicial determination on the merits |
of an administrative appeal, filed by a former foster parent, |
involving a change of placement decision.
|
(p) (Blank).
|
(q) The Department may receive and use, in their entirety, |
for the
benefit of children any gift, donation or bequest of |
money or other
property which is received on behalf of such |
children, or any financial
benefits to which such children are |
or may become entitled while under
the jurisdiction or care of |
the Department.
|
|
The Department shall set up and administer no-cost, |
interest-bearing accounts in appropriate financial |
institutions
for children for whom the Department is legally |
responsible and who have been
determined eligible for Veterans' |
Benefits, Social Security benefits,
assistance allotments from |
the armed forces, court ordered payments, parental
voluntary |
payments, Supplemental Security Income, Railroad Retirement
|
payments, Black Lung benefits, or other miscellaneous |
payments. Interest
earned by each account shall be credited to |
the account, unless
disbursed in accordance with this |
subsection.
|
In disbursing funds from children's accounts, the |
Department
shall:
|
(1) Establish standards in accordance with State and |
federal laws for
disbursing money from children's |
accounts. In all
circumstances,
the Department's |
"Guardianship Administrator" or his or her designee must
|
approve disbursements from children's accounts. The |
Department
shall be responsible for keeping complete |
records of all disbursements for each account for any |
purpose.
|
(2) Calculate on a monthly basis the amounts paid from |
State funds for the
child's board and care, medical care |
not covered under Medicaid, and social
services; and |
utilize funds from the child's account, as
covered by |
regulation, to reimburse those costs. Monthly, |
|
disbursements from
all children's accounts, up to 1/12 of |
$13,000,000, shall be
deposited by the Department into the |
General Revenue Fund and the balance over
1/12 of |
$13,000,000 into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.
|
(3) Maintain any balance remaining after reimbursing |
for the child's costs
of care, as specified in item (2). |
The balance shall accumulate in accordance
with relevant |
State and federal laws and shall be disbursed to the child |
or his
or her guardian, or to the issuing agency.
|
(r) The Department shall promulgate regulations |
encouraging all adoption
agencies to voluntarily forward to the |
Department or its agent names and
addresses of all persons who |
have applied for and have been approved for
adoption of a |
hard-to-place child or child with a disability and the names of |
such
children who have not been placed for adoption. A list of |
such names and
addresses shall be maintained by the Department |
or its agent, and coded
lists which maintain the |
confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the
child and of |
the child shall be made available, without charge, to every
|
adoption agency in the State to assist the agencies in placing |
such
children for adoption. The Department may delegate to an |
agent its duty to
maintain and make available such lists. The |
Department shall ensure that
such agent maintains the |
confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the
child and of |
the child.
|
(s) The Department of Children and Family Services may |
|
establish and
implement a program to reimburse Department and |
private child welfare
agency foster parents licensed by the |
Department of Children and Family
Services for damages |
sustained by the foster parents as a result of the
malicious or |
negligent acts of foster children, as well as providing third
|
party coverage for such foster parents with regard to actions |
of foster
children to other individuals. Such coverage will be |
secondary to the
foster parent liability insurance policy, if |
applicable. The program shall
be funded through appropriations |
from the General Revenue Fund,
specifically designated for such |
purposes.
|
(t) The Department shall perform home studies and |
investigations and
shall exercise supervision over visitation |
as ordered by a court pursuant
to the Illinois Marriage and |
Dissolution of Marriage Act or the Adoption
Act only if:
|
(1) an order entered by an Illinois court specifically
|
directs the Department to perform such services; and
|
(2) the court has ordered one or both of the parties to
|
the proceeding to reimburse the Department for its |
reasonable costs for
providing such services in accordance |
with Department rules, or has
determined that neither party |
is financially able to pay.
|
The Department shall provide written notification to the |
court of the
specific arrangements for supervised visitation |
and projected monthly costs
within 60 days of the court order. |
The Department shall send to the court
information related to |
|
the costs incurred except in cases where the court
has |
determined the parties are financially unable to pay. The court |
may
order additional periodic reports as appropriate.
|
(u) In addition to other information that must be provided, |
whenever the Department places a child with a prospective |
adoptive parent or parents or in a licensed foster home,
group |
home, child care institution, or in a relative home, the |
Department
shall provide to the prospective adoptive parent or |
parents or other caretaker:
|
(1) available detailed information concerning the |
child's educational
and health history, copies of |
immunization records (including insurance
and medical card |
information), a history of the child's previous |
placements,
if any, and reasons for placement changes |
excluding any information that
identifies or reveals the |
location of any previous caretaker;
|
(2) a copy of the child's portion of the client service |
plan, including
any visitation arrangement, and all |
amendments or revisions to it as
related to the child; and
|
(3) information containing details of the child's |
individualized
educational plan when the child is |
receiving special education services.
|
The caretaker shall be informed of any known social or |
behavioral
information (including, but not limited to, |
criminal background, fire
setting, perpetuation of
sexual |
abuse, destructive behavior, and substance abuse) necessary to |
|
care
for and safeguard the children to be placed or currently |
in the home. The Department may prepare a written summary of |
the information required by this paragraph, which may be |
provided to the foster or prospective adoptive parent in |
advance of a placement. The foster or prospective adoptive |
parent may review the supporting documents in the child's file |
in the presence of casework staff. In the case of an emergency |
placement, casework staff shall at least provide known |
information verbally, if necessary, and must subsequently |
provide the information in writing as required by this |
subsection.
|
The information described in this subsection shall be |
provided in writing. In the case of emergency placements when |
time does not allow prior review, preparation, and collection |
of written information, the Department shall provide such |
information as it becomes available. Within 10 business days |
after placement, the Department shall obtain from the |
prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker a |
signed verification of receipt of the information provided. |
Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall |
provide to the child's guardian ad litem a copy of the |
information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or |
parents or other caretaker. The information provided to the |
prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker shall |
be reviewed and approved regarding accuracy at the supervisory |
level.
|
|
(u-5) Effective July 1, 1995, only foster care placements |
licensed as
foster family homes pursuant to the Child Care Act |
of 1969 shall be eligible to
receive foster care payments from |
the Department.
Relative caregivers who, as of July 1, 1995, |
were approved pursuant to approved
relative placement rules |
previously promulgated by the Department at 89 Ill.
Adm. Code |
335 and had submitted an application for licensure as a foster |
family
home may continue to receive foster care payments only |
until the Department
determines that they may be licensed as a |
foster family home or that their
application for licensure is |
denied or until September 30, 1995, whichever
occurs first.
|
(v) The Department shall access criminal history record |
information
as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction |
Information Act and information
maintained in the adjudicatory |
and dispositional record system as defined in
Section 2605-355 |
of the
Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-355)
|
if the Department determines the information is necessary to |
perform its duties
under the Abused and Neglected Child |
Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969,
and the Children and |
Family Services Act. The Department shall provide for
|
interactive computerized communication and processing |
equipment that permits
direct on-line communication with the |
Department of State Police's central
criminal history data |
repository. The Department shall comply with all
certification |
requirements and provide certified operators who have been
|
trained by personnel from the Department of State Police. In |
|
addition, one
Office of the Inspector General investigator |
shall have training in the use of
the criminal history |
information access system and have
access to the terminal. The |
Department of Children and Family Services and its
employees |
shall abide by rules and regulations established by the |
Department of
State Police relating to the access and |
dissemination of
this information.
|
(v-1) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the |
Department shall conduct a criminal records background check of |
the prospective foster or adoptive parent, including |
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information |
databases. Final approval for placement shall not be granted if |
the record check reveals a felony conviction for child abuse or |
neglect, for spousal abuse, for a crime against children, or |
for a crime involving violence, including rape, sexual assault, |
or homicide, but not including other physical assault or |
battery, or if there is a felony conviction for physical |
assault, battery, or a drug-related offense committed within |
the past 5 years. |
(v-2) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the |
Department shall check its child abuse and neglect registry for |
information concerning prospective foster and adoptive |
parents, and any adult living in the home. If any prospective |
foster or adoptive parent or other adult living in the home has |
resided in another state in the preceding 5 years, the |
Department shall request a check of that other state's child |
|
abuse and neglect registry.
|
(w) Within 120 days of August 20, 1995 (the effective date |
of Public Act
89-392), the Department shall prepare and submit |
to the Governor and the
General Assembly, a written plan for |
the development of in-state licensed
secure child care |
facilities that care for children who are in need of secure
|
living
arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being. |
For purposes of this
subsection, secure care facility shall |
mean a facility that is designed and
operated to ensure that |
all entrances and exits from the facility, a building
or a |
distinct part of the building, are under the exclusive control |
of the
staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the |
freedom of movement
within the perimeter of the facility, |
building, or distinct part of the
building. The plan shall |
include descriptions of the types of facilities that
are needed |
in Illinois; the cost of developing these secure care |
facilities;
the estimated number of placements; the potential |
cost savings resulting from
the movement of children currently |
out-of-state who are projected to be
returned to Illinois; the |
necessary geographic distribution of these
facilities in |
Illinois; and a proposed timetable for development of such
|
facilities. |
(x) The Department shall conduct annual credit history |
checks to determine the financial history of children placed |
under its guardianship pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of |
1987. The Department shall conduct such credit checks starting |
|
when a youth in care turns 12 years old and each year |
thereafter for the duration of the guardianship as terminated |
pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department |
shall determine if financial exploitation of the child's |
personal information has occurred. If financial exploitation |
appears to have taken place or is presently ongoing, the |
Department shall notify the proper law enforcement agency, the |
proper State's Attorney, or the Attorney General. |
(y) Beginning on July 22, 2010 (the effective date of |
Public Act 96-1189), a child with a disability who receives |
residential and educational services from the Department shall |
be eligible to receive transition services in accordance with |
Article 14 of the School Code from the age of 14.5 through age |
21, inclusive, notwithstanding the child's residential |
services arrangement. For purposes of this subsection, "child |
with a disability" means a child with a disability as defined |
by the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education |
Improvement Act of 2004. |
(z) The Department shall access criminal history record |
information as defined as "background information" in this |
subsection and criminal history record information as defined |
in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act for each |
Department employee or Department applicant. Each Department |
employee or Department applicant shall submit his or her |
fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and |
manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These |
|
fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records |
now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and |
the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records |
databases. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee |
for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall |
be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not |
exceed the actual cost of the record check. The Department of |
State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive |
identification, all Illinois conviction information to the |
Department of Children and Family Services. |
For purposes of this subsection: |
"Background information" means all of the following: |
(i) Upon the request of the Department of Children and |
Family Services, conviction information obtained from the |
Department of State Police as a result of a |
fingerprint-based criminal history records check of the |
Illinois criminal history records database and the Federal |
Bureau of Investigation criminal history records database |
concerning a Department employee or Department applicant. |
(ii) Information obtained by the Department of |
Children and Family Services after performing a check of |
the Department of State Police's Sex Offender Database, as |
authorized by Section 120 of the Sex Offender Community |
Notification Law, concerning a Department employee or |
Department applicant. |
(iii) Information obtained by the Department of |
|
Children and Family Services after performing a check of |
the Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System (CANTS) |
operated and maintained by the Department. |
"Department employee" means a full-time or temporary |
employee coded or certified within the State of Illinois |
Personnel System. |
"Department applicant" means an individual who has |
conditional Department full-time or part-time work, a |
contractor, an individual used to replace or supplement staff, |
an academic intern, a volunteer in Department offices or on |
Department contracts, a work-study student, an individual or |
entity licensed by the Department, or an unlicensed service |
provider who works as a condition of a contract or an agreement |
and whose work may bring the unlicensed service provider into |
contact with Department clients or client records. |
(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; |
100-159, eff. 8-18-17; 100-522, eff. 9-22-17; 100-759, eff. |
1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-978, eff. 8-19-18; revised |
10-3-18.) |
Section 910-15. The Freedom of Information Act is amended |
by changing Section 7.5 as follows: |
(5 ILCS 140/7.5) |
Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for |
by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt |
|
from inspection and copying: |
(a) All information determined to be confidential |
under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and |
Development Act. |
(b) Library circulation and order records identifying |
library users with specific materials under the Library |
Records Confidentiality Act. |
(c) Applications, related documents, and medical |
records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation |
Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records |
prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation |
Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it |
has received. |
(d) Information and records held by the Department of |
Public Health and its authorized representatives relating |
to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible |
disease or any information the disclosure of which is |
restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible |
Disease Control Act. |
(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted |
under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act. |
(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of |
the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying |
Qualifications Based Selection Act. |
(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted |
and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid |
|
Tuition Act. |
(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted |
under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and |
records of any lawfully created State or local inspector |
general's office that would be exempt if created or |
obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under |
that Act. |
(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy |
plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local |
emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under |
Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code. |
(j) Information and data concerning the distribution |
of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers |
under the Emergency Telephone System Act. |
(k) Law enforcement officer identification information |
or driver identification information compiled by a law |
enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation |
under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. |
(l) Records and information provided to a residential |
health care facility resident sexual assault and death |
review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse |
Prevention Review Team Act. |
(m) Information provided to the predatory lending |
database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential |
Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent |
authorized under that Article. |
|
(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of |
compensation and expenses for court appointed trial |
counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital |
Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply |
until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the |
prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior |
to trial or sentencing. |
(o) Information that is prohibited from being |
disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and |
Hazardous Substances Registry Act. |
(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, |
investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or |
information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the |
Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of |
the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair |
County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety |
Act. |
(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the |
Personnel Record Records Review Act. |
(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the |
Illinois School Student Records Act. |
(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted |
under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.
|
(t) All identified or deidentified health information |
in the form of health data or medical records contained in, |
stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from |
|
the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified |
or deidentified health information in the form of health |
data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information |
Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health |
Information Exchange Authority due to its administration |
of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms |
"identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same |
meaning as in the Health Insurance Portability and |
Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any |
subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations |
promulgated thereunder. |
(u) Records and information provided to an independent |
team of experts under the Developmental Disability and |
Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law ) . |
(v) Names and information of people who have applied |
for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under |
the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for |
or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm |
Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the |
Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the |
Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry |
Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry |
Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the |
Firearm Concealed Carry Act. |
(w) Personally identifiable information which is |
exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section |
|
19.1 of the Toll Highway Act. |
(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure |
under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section |
8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code. |
(y) Confidential information under the Adult |
Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling |
statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including |
information about the identity and administrative finding |
against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated |
decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an |
eligible adult maintained in the Registry established |
under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act. |
(z) Records and information provided to a fatality |
review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory |
Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services |
Act. |
(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure |
under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code. |
(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from |
disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. |
(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement |
Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent |
authorized under that Act. |
(dd) Information that is prohibited from being |
disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common |
Interest Community Ombudsperson Act. |
|
(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure |
under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act. |
(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure |
under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. |
(gg) Information that is prohibited from being |
disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle |
Code. |
(hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under |
Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code. |
(ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure |
under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of |
the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. |
(jj) Information and reports that are required to be |
submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day and |
temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from |
disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day |
and Temporary Labor Services Act. |
(kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the |
Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act. |
(ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted |
and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public |
Aid Code. |
(mm) (ll) Records that are exempt from disclosure under |
Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act. |
(nn) (ll) Information that is exempt from disclosure |
under Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance |
|
Act. |
(oo) Information and records held by the Department of |
Public Health and its authorized representatives collected |
under the Reproductive Health Act. |
(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-298, eff. 8-6-15; 99-352, |
eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-776, eff. 8-12-16; |
99-863, eff. 8-19-16; 100-20, eff. 7-1-17; 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; |
100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-373, eff. 1-1-18; 100-464, eff. |
8-28-17; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-517, |
eff. 6-1-18; 100-646, eff. 7-27-18; 100-690, eff. 1-1-19; |
100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-887, eff. 8-14-18; revised |
10-12-18.) |
Section 910-20. The Counties Code is amended by changing |
Section 3-3013 as follows:
|
(55 ILCS 5/3-3013) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3013)
|
Sec. 3-3013. Preliminary investigations; blood and urine |
analysis;
summoning jury; reports. Every coroner, whenever, as |
soon as he knows or is
informed that the dead body of any |
person is found, or lying within his
county, whose death is |
suspected of being:
|
(a) A sudden or violent death, whether apparently |
suicidal,
homicidal or accidental, including but not |
limited to deaths apparently
caused or contributed to by |
thermal, traumatic, chemical, electrical or
radiational |
|
injury, or a complication of any of them, or by drowning or
|
suffocation, or as a result of domestic violence as defined |
in the Illinois
Domestic
Violence Act of 1986;
|
(b) A maternal or fetal death due to abortion, or any |
death due to a
sex crime or a crime against nature ;
|
(c) A death where the circumstances are suspicious, |
obscure,
mysterious or otherwise unexplained or where, in |
the written opinion of
the attending physician, the cause |
of death is not determined;
|
(d) A death where addiction to alcohol or to any drug |
may have been
a contributory cause; or
|
(e) A death where the decedent was not attended by a |
licensed
physician;
|
shall go to the place where the dead body is, and take charge |
of the
same and shall make a preliminary investigation into the |
circumstances
of the death. In the case of death without |
attendance by a licensed
physician the body may be moved with |
the coroner's consent from the
place of death to a mortuary in |
the same county. Coroners in their
discretion shall notify such |
physician as is designated in accordance
with Section 3-3014 to |
attempt to ascertain the cause of death, either by
autopsy or |
otherwise.
|
In cases of accidental death involving a motor vehicle in |
which the
decedent was (1) the operator or a suspected operator |
of a motor
vehicle, or (2) a pedestrian 16 years of age or |
older, the coroner shall
require that a blood specimen of at |
|
least 30 cc., and if medically
possible a urine specimen of at |
least 30 cc. or as much as possible up
to 30 cc., be withdrawn |
from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion after
the |
accident causing his death, by such physician as has been |
designated
in accordance with Section 3-3014, or by the coroner |
or deputy coroner or
a qualified person designated by such |
physician, coroner, or deputy coroner. If the county
does not |
maintain laboratory facilities for making such analysis, the
|
blood and urine so drawn shall be sent to the Department of |
State Police or any other accredited or State-certified |
laboratory
for analysis of the alcohol, carbon monoxide, and |
dangerous or
narcotic drug content of such blood and urine |
specimens. Each specimen
submitted shall be accompanied by |
pertinent information concerning the
decedent upon a form |
prescribed by such laboratory. Any
person drawing blood and |
urine and any person making any examination of
the blood and |
urine under the terms of this Division shall be immune from all
|
liability, civil or criminal, that might otherwise be incurred |
or
imposed.
|
In all other cases coming within the jurisdiction of the |
coroner and
referred to in subparagraphs (a) through (e) above, |
blood, and whenever
possible, urine samples shall be analyzed |
for the presence of alcohol
and other drugs. When the coroner |
suspects that drugs may have been
involved in the death, either |
directly or indirectly, a toxicological
examination shall be |
performed which may include analyses of blood, urine,
bile, |
|
gastric contents and other tissues. When the coroner suspects
a |
death is due to toxic substances, other than drugs, the coroner |
shall
consult with the toxicologist prior to collection of |
samples. Information
submitted to the toxicologist shall |
include information as to height,
weight, age, sex and race of |
the decedent as well as medical history,
medications used by |
and the manner of death of decedent.
|
When the coroner or medical examiner finds that the cause |
of death is due to homicidal means, the coroner or medical |
examiner shall cause blood and buccal specimens (tissue may be |
submitted if no uncontaminated blood or buccal specimen can be |
obtained), whenever possible, to be withdrawn from the body of |
the decedent in a timely fashion. For proper preservation of |
the specimens, collected blood and buccal specimens shall be |
dried and tissue specimens shall be frozen if available |
equipment exists. As soon as possible, but no later than 30 |
days after the collection of the specimens, the coroner or |
medical examiner shall release those specimens to the police |
agency responsible for investigating the death. As soon as |
possible, but no later than 30 days after the receipt from the |
coroner or medical examiner, the police agency shall submit the |
specimens using the agency case number to a National DNA Index |
System (NDIS) participating laboratory within this State, such |
as the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of |
Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic |
marker groupings. The results of the analysis and categorizing |
|
into genetic marker groupings shall be provided to the Illinois |
Department of State Police and shall be maintained by the |
Illinois Department of State Police in the State central |
repository in the same manner, and subject to the same |
conditions, as provided in Section 5-4-3 of the Unified Code of |
Corrections. The requirements of this paragraph are in addition |
to any other findings, specimens, or information that the |
coroner or medical examiner is required to provide during the |
conduct of a criminal investigation.
|
In all counties, in cases of apparent
suicide, homicide, or |
accidental death or in other cases, within the
discretion of |
the coroner, the coroner may summon 8 persons of lawful age
|
from those persons drawn for petit jurors in the county. The |
summons shall
command these persons to present themselves |
personally at such a place and
time as the coroner shall |
determine, and may be in any form which the
coroner shall |
determine and may incorporate any reasonable form of request
|
for acknowledgement which the coroner deems practical and |
provides a
reliable proof of service. The summons may be served |
by first class mail.
From the 8 persons so summoned, the |
coroner shall select 6 to serve as the
jury for the inquest. |
Inquests may be continued from time
to time, as the coroner may |
deem necessary. The 6 jurors selected in
a given case may view |
the body of the deceased.
If at any continuation of an inquest |
one or more of the original jurors
shall be unable to continue |
to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or
vacancies. A |
|
juror serving pursuant to this paragraph shall receive
|
compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of |
compensation
that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the |
county. The coroner shall
furnish to each juror without fee at |
the time of his discharge a
certificate of the number of days |
in attendance at an inquest, and, upon
being presented with |
such certificate, the county treasurer shall pay to
the juror |
the sum provided for his services.
|
In counties which have a jury commission, in cases of |
apparent suicide or
homicide or of accidental death, the |
coroner may conduct an inquest. The jury commission shall |
provide
at least 8 jurors to the coroner, from whom the coroner |
shall select any 6
to serve as the jury for the inquest. |
Inquests may be continued from time
to time as the coroner may |
deem necessary. The 6 jurors originally chosen
in a given case |
may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation
of an |
inquest one or more of the 6 jurors originally chosen shall be |
unable
to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy |
or vacancies. At
the coroner's discretion, additional jurors to |
fill such vacancies shall be
supplied by the jury commission. A |
juror serving pursuant to this
paragraph in such county shall |
receive compensation from the county at the
same rate as the |
rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors
in |
the county.
|
In every case in which a fire is determined to be
a
|
contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the |
|
death to the
Office of the State Fire Marshal. The coroner |
shall provide a copy of the death certificate (i) within 30 |
days after filing the permanent death certificate and (ii) in a |
manner that is agreed upon by the coroner and the State Fire |
Marshal. |
In every case in which a drug overdose is determined to be |
the cause or a contributing factor in the death, the coroner or |
medical examiner shall report the death to the Department of |
Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall adopt |
rules regarding specific information that must be reported in |
the event of such a death. If possible, the coroner shall |
report the cause of the overdose. As used in this Section, |
"overdose" has the same meaning as it does in Section 414 of |
the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. The Department of |
Public Health shall issue a semiannual report to the General |
Assembly summarizing the reports received. The Department |
shall also provide on its website a monthly report of overdose |
death figures organized by location, age, and any other |
factors, the Department deems appropriate. |
In addition, in every case in which domestic violence is |
determined to be
a
contributing factor in a death, the coroner |
shall report the death to the
Department of State Police.
|
All deaths in State institutions and all deaths of wards of |
the State or youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the |
Children and Family Services Act in
private care facilities or |
in programs funded by the Department of Human
Services under |
|
its powers relating to mental health and developmental
|
disabilities or alcoholism and substance
abuse or funded by the |
Department of Children and Family Services shall
be reported to |
the coroner of the county in which the facility is
located. If |
the coroner has reason to believe that an investigation is
|
needed to determine whether the death was caused by |
maltreatment or
negligent care of the ward of the State or |
youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and |
Family Services Act, the coroner may conduct a
preliminary |
investigation of the circumstances of such death as in cases of
|
death under circumstances set forth in paragraphs (a) through |
(e) of this
Section.
|
(Source: P.A. 99-354, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, |
eff. 7-28-16; 100-159, eff. 8-18-17.)
|
Section 910-25. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center |
Act is amended by changing Section 2, and 3 as follows:
|
(210 ILCS 5/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 157-8.2)
|
Sec. 2.
It is declared to be the public policy that the |
State has a legitimate
interest in assuring that all medical |
procedures , including abortions, are
performed under |
circumstances that insure maximum safety. Therefore, the
|
purpose of this Act is to provide for the better protection of |
the public
health through the development, establishment, and |
enforcement of standards
(1) for the care of individuals in |
|
ambulatory surgical treatment centers,
and (2) for the |
construction, maintenance and operation of ambulatory
surgical |
treatment centers, which, in light of advancing knowledge, will
|
promote safe and adequate treatment of such individuals in |
ambulatory
surgical treatment centers.
|
(Source: P.A. 78-227 .)
|
(210 ILCS 5/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 157-8.3)
|
Sec. 3.
As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise |
requires, the
following words and phrases shall have the |
meanings ascribed to them:
|
(A) "Ambulatory surgical treatment center" means any |
institution, place
or building devoted primarily to the |
maintenance and operation of
facilities for the performance of |
surgical procedures. "Ambulatory surgical treatment center" |
includes any place that meets and complies with the definition |
of an ambulatory surgical treatment center under the rules |
adopted by the Department or any facility in
which a medical or |
surgical procedure is utilized to terminate a pregnancy,
|
irrespective of whether the facility is devoted primarily to |
this purpose .
Such facility shall not provide beds or other |
accommodations for the
overnight stay of patients; however, |
facilities devoted exclusively to the
treatment of children may |
provide accommodations and beds for their patients
for up to 23 |
hours following admission. Individual patients shall be
|
discharged in an ambulatory condition without danger to the |
|
continued well
being of the patients or shall be transferred to |
a hospital.
|
The term "ambulatory surgical treatment center" does not |
include any of the
following:
|
(1) Any institution, place, building or agency |
required to be licensed
pursuant to the "Hospital Licensing |
Act", approved July 1, 1953, as amended.
|
(2) Any person or institution required to be licensed |
pursuant to the
Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized |
Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD |
Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act.
|
(3) Hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers |
maintained by the
State or any department or agency |
thereof, where such department or agency
has authority |
under law to establish and enforce standards for the
|
hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers under |
its management and
control.
|
(4) Hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers |
maintained by the
Federal Government or agencies thereof.
|
(5) Any place, agency, clinic, or practice, public or |
private, whether
organized for profit or not, devoted |
exclusively to the performance of
dental or oral surgical |
procedures.
|
(6) Any facility in which the performance of abortion |
procedures, including procedures to terminate a pregnancy |
or to manage pregnancy loss, is limited to those performed |
|
without general, epidural, or spinal anesthesia, and which |
is not otherwise required to be an ambulatory surgical |
treatment center. For purposes of this paragraph, |
"general, epidural, or spinal anesthesia" does not include |
local anesthesia or intravenous sedation. Nothing in this |
paragraph shall be construed to limit any such facility |
from voluntarily electing to apply for licensure as an |
ambulatory surgical treatment center. |
(B) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, |
corporation,
company, association, or joint stock association, |
or the legal successor
thereof.
|
(C) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of |
the State of
Illinois.
|
(D) "Director" means the Director of the Department of |
Public Health of
the State of Illinois.
|
(E) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice |
medicine in all of
its branches in the State of Illinois.
|
(F) "Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry |
under the
Illinois Dental Practice Act.
|
(G) "Podiatric physician" means a person licensed to |
practice podiatry under
the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of |
1987.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-1123, eff. 1-1-15; |
99-180, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
Section 910-30. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by |
|
changing Section 356z.4 and adding 356z.4a as follows:
|
(215 ILCS 5/356z.4)
|
Sec. 356z.4. Coverage for contraceptives. |
(a)(1) The General Assembly hereby finds and declares all |
of the following: |
(A) Illinois has a long history of expanding timely |
access to birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy. |
(B) The federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care |
Act includes a contraceptive coverage guarantee as part of |
a broader requirement for health insurance to cover key |
preventive care services without out-of-pocket costs for |
patients. |
(C) The General Assembly intends to build on existing |
State and federal law to promote gender equity and women's |
health and to ensure greater contraceptive coverage equity |
and timely access to all federal Food and Drug |
Administration approved methods of birth control for all |
individuals covered by an individual or group health |
insurance policy in Illinois. |
(D) Medical management techniques such as denials, |
step therapy, or prior authorization in public and private |
health care coverage can impede access to the most |
effective contraceptive methods. |
(2) As used in this subsection (a): |
"Contraceptive services" includes consultations, |
|
examinations, procedures, and medical services related to the |
use of contraceptive methods (including natural family |
planning) to prevent an unintended pregnancy. |
"Medical necessity", for the purposes of this subsection |
(a), includes, but is not limited to, considerations such as |
severity of side effects, differences in permanence and |
reversibility of contraceptive, and ability to adhere to the |
appropriate use of the item or service, as determined by the |
attending provider. |
"Therapeutic equivalent version" means drugs, devices, or |
products that can be expected to have the same clinical effect |
and safety profile when administered to patients under the |
conditions specified in the labeling and satisfy the following |
general criteria: |
(i) they are approved as safe and effective; |
(ii) they are pharmaceutical equivalents in that they |
(A) contain identical amounts of the same active drug |
ingredient in the same dosage form and route of |
administration and (B) meet compendial or other applicable |
standards of strength, quality, purity, and identity; |
(iii) they are bioequivalent in that (A) they do not |
present a known or potential bioequivalence problem and |
they meet an acceptable in vitro standard or (B) if they do |
present such a known or potential problem, they are shown |
to meet an appropriate bioequivalence standard; |
(iv) they are adequately labeled; and |
|
(v) they are manufactured in compliance with Current |
Good Manufacturing Practice regulations. |
(3) An individual or group policy of accident and health |
insurance amended,
delivered, issued, or renewed in this State |
after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th |
General Assembly shall provide coverage for all of the |
following services and contraceptive methods: |
(A) All contraceptive drugs, devices, and other |
products approved by the United States Food and Drug |
Administration. This includes all over-the-counter |
contraceptive drugs, devices, and products approved by the |
United States Food and Drug Administration, excluding male |
condoms. The following apply: |
(i) If the United States Food and Drug |
Administration has approved one or more therapeutic |
equivalent versions of a contraceptive drug, device, |
or product, a policy is not required to include all |
such therapeutic equivalent versions in its formulary, |
so long as at least one is included and covered without |
cost-sharing and in accordance with this Section. |
(ii) If an individual's attending provider |
recommends a particular service or item approved by the |
United States Food and Drug Administration based on a |
determination of medical necessity with respect to |
that individual, the plan or issuer must cover that |
service or item without cost sharing. The plan or |
|
issuer must defer to the determination of the attending |
provider. |
(iii) If a drug, device, or product is not covered, |
plans and issuers must have an easily accessible, |
transparent, and sufficiently expedient process that |
is not unduly burdensome on the individual or a |
provider or other individual acting as a patient's |
authorized representative to ensure coverage without |
cost sharing. |
(iv) This coverage must provide for the dispensing |
of 12 months' worth of contraception at one time. |
(B) Voluntary sterilization procedures. |
(C) Contraceptive services, patient education, and |
counseling on contraception. |
(D) Follow-up services related to the drugs, devices, |
products, and procedures covered under this Section, |
including, but not limited to, management of side effects, |
counseling for continued adherence, and device insertion |
and removal. |
(4) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (a), a |
policy subject to this subsection (a) shall not impose a |
deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing |
requirement on the coverage provided. The provisions of this |
paragraph do not apply to coverage of voluntary male |
sterilization procedures to the extent such coverage would |
disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a |
|
health savings account pursuant to the federal Internal Revenue |
Code, 26 U.S.C. 223. |
(5) Except as otherwise authorized under this subsection |
(a), a policy shall not impose any restrictions or delays on |
the coverage required under this subsection (a). |
(6) If, at any time, the Secretary of the United States |
Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor |
agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the |
Federal Register or publishes a comment in the Federal Register |
or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would |
require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient |
Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), |
including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any |
successor provision, to defray the cost of any coverage |
outlined in this subsection (a), then this subsection (a) is |
inoperative with respect to all coverage outlined in this |
subsection (a) other than that authorized under Section 1902 of |
the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall |
not assume any obligation for the cost of the coverage set |
forth in this subsection (a). |
(b) This subsection (b) shall become operative if and only |
if subsection (a) becomes inoperative. |
An individual or group policy of accident and health |
insurance amended,
delivered, issued, or renewed in this State |
after the date this subsection (b) becomes operative that |
provides coverage for
outpatient services and outpatient |
|
prescription drugs or devices must provide
coverage for the |
insured and any
dependent of the
insured covered by the policy |
for all outpatient contraceptive services and
all outpatient |
contraceptive drugs and devices approved by the Food and
Drug |
Administration. Coverage required under this Section may not |
impose any
deductible, coinsurance, waiting period, or other |
cost-sharing or limitation
that is greater than that required |
for any outpatient service or outpatient
prescription drug or |
device otherwise covered by the policy.
|
Nothing in this subsection (b) shall be construed to |
require an insurance
company to cover services related to |
permanent sterilization that requires a
surgical procedure. |
As used in this subsection (b), "outpatient contraceptive |
service" means
consultations, examinations, procedures, and |
medical services, provided on an
outpatient basis and related |
to the use of contraceptive methods (including
natural family |
planning) to prevent an unintended pregnancy.
|
(c) (Blank). Nothing in this Section shall be construed to |
require an insurance
company to cover services related to an |
abortion as the term "abortion" is
defined in the Illinois |
Abortion Law of 1975.
|
(d) If a plan or issuer utilizes a network of providers, |
nothing in this Section shall be construed to require coverage |
or to prohibit the plan or issuer from imposing cost-sharing |
for items or services described in this Section that are |
provided or delivered by an out-of-network provider, unless the |
|
plan or issuer does not have in its network a provider who is |
able to or is willing to provide the applicable items or |
services.
|
(Source: P.A. 99-672, eff. 1-1-17; 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19 .)
|
(215 ILCS 5/356z.4a new) |
Sec. 356z.4a. Coverage for abortion. |
(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, no |
individual or group policy of accident and health insurance |
that provides pregnancy-related benefits may be issued, |
amended, delivered, or renewed in this State after the |
effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General |
Assembly unless the policy provides a covered person with |
coverage for abortion care. |
(b) Coverage for abortion care may not impose any |
deductible, coinsurance, waiting period, or other cost-sharing |
limitation that is greater than that required for other |
pregnancy-related benefits covered by the policy. |
(c) Except as otherwise authorized under this Section, a |
policy shall not impose any restrictions or delays on the |
coverage required under this Section. |
(d) This Section does not, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. |
18054(a)(6), apply to a multistate plan that does not provide |
coverage for abortion. |
(e) If the Department concludes that enforcement of this |
Section may adversely affect the allocation of federal funds to |
|
this State, the Department may grant an exemption to the |
requirements, but only to the minimum extent necessary to |
ensure the continued receipt of federal funds. |
Section 910-35. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is |
amended by changing Section 5-3 as follows:
|
(215 ILCS 125/5-3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1411.2)
|
Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.
|
(a) Health Maintenance Organizations
shall be subject to |
the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1,
|
141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151,
152, 153, 154, |
154.5, 154.6,
154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.22a, 355.2, 355.3, |
355b, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y,
356z.2, 356z.4, |
356z.4a, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, |
356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.18, 356z.19, |
356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.32, |
364, 364.01, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, |
368e, 370c,
370c.1, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A,
408, 408.2, |
409, 412, 444,
and
444.1,
paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of |
Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2,
XII,
XII 1/2, XIII, |
XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code.
|
(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for |
Sections 444
and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health |
Maintenance Organizations in
the following categories are |
deemed to be "domestic companies":
|
|
(1) a corporation authorized under the
Dental Service |
Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;
|
(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this |
State; or
|
(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another |
state, 30% or more
of the enrollees of which are residents |
of this State, except a
corporation subject to |
substantially the same requirements in its state of
|
organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII |
1/2 of the
Illinois Insurance Code.
|
(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other |
acquisition of
control of a Health Maintenance Organization |
pursuant to Article VIII 1/2
of the Illinois Insurance Code,
|
(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to |
the continuation of
benefits to enrollees and the financial |
conditions of the acquired Health
Maintenance Organization |
after the merger, consolidation, or other
acquisition of |
control takes effect;
|
(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of |
Section 131.8 of
the Illinois Insurance Code shall not |
apply and (ii) the Director, in making
his determination |
with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other
|
acquisition of control, need not take into account the |
effect on
competition of the merger, consolidation, or |
other acquisition of control;
|
(3) the Director shall have the power to require the |
|
following
information:
|
(A) certification by an independent actuary of the |
adequacy
of the reserves of the Health Maintenance |
Organization sought to be acquired;
|
(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the |
combined balance
sheets of the acquiring company and |
the Health Maintenance Organization sought
to be |
acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of |
a date 90 days
prior to the acquisition, as well as pro |
forma financial statements
reflecting projected |
combined operation for a period of 2 years;
|
(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an |
acquiring party's plans with
respect to the operation |
of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to
be |
acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and
|
(D) such other information as the Director shall |
require.
|
(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois |
Insurance Code
and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by |
any health maintenance
organization of greater than 10% of its
|
enrollee population (including without limitation the health |
maintenance
organization's right, title, and interest in and to |
its health care
certificates).
|
(e) In considering any management contract or service |
agreement subject
to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance |
Code, the Director (i) shall, in
addition to the criteria |
|
specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois
Insurance Code, take |
into account the effect of the management contract or
service |
agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the
|
financial condition of the health maintenance organization to |
be managed or
serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the |
effect of the management
contract or service agreement on |
competition.
|
(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the |
Small Employer
Rating, Renewability and Portability Health |
Insurance Act and except for
medicare supplement policies as |
defined in Section 363 of the Illinois
Insurance Code, a Health |
Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a
group or |
other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional |
premiums
under the following terms and conditions:
|
(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with |
respect to, the
refund or additional premium are set forth |
in the group or enrollment unit
contract agreed in advance |
of the period for which a refund is to be paid or
|
additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not |
be less than one
year); and
|
(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium |
shall not exceed 20%
of the Health Maintenance |
Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience
with |
respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the |
period (and, for
purposes of a refund or additional |
premium, the profitable or unprofitable
experience shall |
|
be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the
|
Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and |
marketing expenses, but
shall not include any refund to be |
made or additional premium to be paid
pursuant to this |
subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and |
the
group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable |
or unprofitable
experience may be calculated taking into |
account the refund period and the
immediately preceding 2 |
plan years.
|
The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a |
statement in the
evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee |
describing the possibility of a
refund or additional premium, |
and upon request of any group or enrollment unit,
provide to |
the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used |
to
calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's |
profitable experience with
respect to the group or enrollment |
unit and the resulting refund to the group
or enrollment unit |
or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable
|
experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the |
resulting
additional premium to be paid by the group or |
enrollment unit.
|
In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance |
Organization
Guaranty Association be liable to pay any |
contractual obligation of an
insolvent organization to pay any |
refund authorized under this Section.
|
(g) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, |
|
if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance |
with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure |
Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on |
Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for |
whatever reason, is unauthorized. |
(Source: P.A. 99-761, eff. 1-1-18; 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; |
100-138, eff. 8-18-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1026, eff. |
8-22-18; 100-1057, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19; revised |
10-4-18.) |
Section 910-40. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is |
amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
|
(215 ILCS 165/10) (from Ch. 32, par. 604)
|
Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health |
services
plan corporations and all persons interested therein |
or dealing therewith
shall be subject to the provisions of |
Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections
3.1, 133, 136, 139, 140, |
143, 143c, 149, 155.22a, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356g, |
356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v,
356w, 356x, 356y, |
356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, |
356z.9,
356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, |
356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, |
356z.30, 356z.32, 364.01, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1,
402,
403, |
403A, 408,
408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of |
Section 367 of the Illinois
Insurance Code.
|
|
Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if |
any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance |
with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure |
Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on |
Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for |
whatever reason, is unauthorized. |
(Source: P.A. 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; |
100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1026, eff. 8-22-18; 100-1057, eff. |
1-1-19; 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.) |
Section 910-45. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended |
by changing Section 22 and 36 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)
|
Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.
|
(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, |
reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other |
disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may |
deem proper
with regard to the license or permit of any person |
issued
under this Act, including imposing fines not to exceed |
$10,000 for each violation, upon any of the following grounds:
|
(1) (Blank). Performance of an elective abortion in any |
place, locale,
facility, or
institution other than:
|
(a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory |
Surgical Treatment
Center Act;
|
|
(b) an institution licensed under the Hospital |
Licensing Act;
|
(c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or |
hospitalization or care
facility maintained by the |
State or any agency thereof, where such department
or |
agency has authority under law to establish and enforce |
standards for the
ambulatory surgical treatment |
centers, hospitalization, or care facilities
under its |
management and control;
|
(d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, |
hospitalization or care
facilities maintained by the |
Federal Government; or
|
(e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, |
hospitalization or care
facilities maintained by any |
university or college established under the laws
of |
this State and supported principally by public funds |
raised by
taxation.
|
(2) (Blank). Performance of an abortion procedure in a |
willful and wanton
manner on a
woman who was not pregnant |
at the time the abortion procedure was
performed.
|
(3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of |
guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, |
including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding |
sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first |
offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of |
the United States of any crime that is a felony.
|
|
(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.
|
(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or |
unprofessional
conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
defraud or harm the public.
|
(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or
|
misrepresentation.
|
(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined |
in law
as
controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any |
other substances which results in
the inability to practice |
with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
|
(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by |
law, an
assumed
name.
|
(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or |
procuring, a
license
under this Act or in connection with |
applying for renewal of a license under
this Act.
|
(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding |
their
skill or the
efficacy or value of the medicine, |
treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at
their direction |
in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the |
body
or mind.
|
(11) Allowing another person or organization to use |
their
license, procured
under this Act, to practice.
|
(12) Adverse action taken by another state or |
jurisdiction
against a license
or other authorization to |
practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy,
doctor |
of osteopathic medicine or
doctor of chiropractic, a |
|
certified copy of the record of the action taken by
the |
other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence |
thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State |
or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor |
of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of |
chiropractic from providing services to the agency's |
participants.
|
(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the |
Medical
Practice Act
prior to the repeal of that Act, or |
violation of the rules, or a final
administrative action of |
the Secretary, after consideration of the
recommendation |
of the Disciplinary Board.
|
(14) Violation of the prohibition against fee |
splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.
|
(15) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the
|
registrant after
having his or her license placed on |
probationary status or subjected to
conditions or |
restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed |
to
comply with such terms or conditions.
|
(16) Abandonment of a patient.
|
(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, |
distributing, giving
or
self-administering any drug |
classified as a controlled substance (designated
product) |
or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic
|
purposes.
|
(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, |
|
appliances or
goods provided
for a patient in such manner |
as to exploit the patient for financial gain of
the |
physician.
|
(19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat
|
disease by a secret
method, procedure, treatment or |
medicine, or the treating, operating or
prescribing for any |
human condition by a method, means or procedure which the
|
licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.
|
(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act |
including,
but not limited to, commission of an act of |
sexual misconduct related to the
licensee's
practice.
|
(21) Willfully making or filing false records or |
reports in his
or her
practice as a physician, including, |
but not limited to, false records to
support claims against |
the medical assistance program of the Department of |
Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of
|
Public Aid)
under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
|
(22) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully |
impeding
the filing or
recording, or inducing another |
person to omit to file or record, medical
reports as |
required by law, or willfully failing to report an instance |
of
suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.
|
(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
report by
the Department
of Children and Family Services |
under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting
Act, and |
upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the |
|
licensee has
caused a child to be an abused child or |
neglected child as defined in the
Abused and Neglected |
Child Reporting Act.
|
(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any
|
corporation, agents or
persons, or profiting from those |
representing themselves to be agents of the
licensee.
|
(25) Gross and willful and continued overcharging for
|
professional services,
including filing false statements |
for collection of fees for which services are
not rendered, |
including, but not limited to, filing such false statements |
for
collection of monies for services not rendered from the |
medical assistance
program of the Department of Healthcare |
and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
|
under the Illinois Public Aid
Code.
|
(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which
|
demonstrates
incapacity
or incompetence to practice under |
this Act.
|
(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the
|
inability to
practice under this Act with reasonable |
judgment, skill or safety.
|
(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to,
|
deterioration through
the aging process, or loss of motor |
skill which results in a physician's
inability to practice |
under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or
safety.
|
(29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing
|
examinations
administered under this Act.
|
|
(30) Willfully or negligently violating the |
confidentiality
between
physician and patient except as |
required by law.
|
(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive |
statement
in any
document connected with practice under |
this Act.
|
(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed |
under this
Act in the
practice of a profession licensed |
under this Act.
|
(33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations |
relating
to controlled
substances, legend
drugs, or |
ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.
|
(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse |
final
action taken
against them by another licensing |
jurisdiction (any other state or any
territory of the |
United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer
|
review body, by any health care institution, by any |
professional society or
association related to practice |
under this Act, by any governmental agency, by
any law |
enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct |
similar to acts
or conduct which would constitute grounds |
for action as defined in this
Section.
|
(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a
|
license or
authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a |
doctor of osteopathy, a
doctor of osteopathic medicine, or |
doctor
of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or |
|
surrender of membership on
any medical staff or in any |
medical or professional association or society,
while |
under disciplinary investigation by any of those |
authorities or bodies,
for acts or conduct similar to acts |
or conduct which would constitute grounds
for action as |
defined in this Section.
|
(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse |
judgment,
settlement,
or award arising from a liability |
claim related to acts or conduct similar to
acts or conduct |
which would constitute grounds for action as defined in |
this
Section.
|
(37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as |
required
by law.
|
(38) Failure to furnish the Department, its |
investigators or
representatives, relevant information, |
legally requested by the Department
after consultation |
with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical
|
Coordinator.
|
(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral
|
Act.
|
(40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is |
required
under the
Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.
|
(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of |
patient care and
treatment as required by this law.
|
(42) Entering into an excessive number of written |
collaborative
agreements with licensed advanced practice |
|
registered nurses resulting in an inability to
adequately |
collaborate.
|
(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
licensed advanced practice registered nurse. |
(44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical |
Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
|
(45) Entering into an excessive number of written |
collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing |
psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately |
collaborate. |
(46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
licensed prescribing psychologist. |
(47) Willfully failing to report an instance of |
suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or |
self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and |
required by the Adult Protective Services Act. |
(48) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by |
the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services |
Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that |
the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited |
an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective |
Services Act. |
(49) Entering into an excessive number of written |
collaborative agreements with licensed physician |
assistants resulting in an inability to adequately |
collaborate. |
|
(50) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
physician assistant. |
Except
for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all |
proceedings to suspend,
revoke, place on probationary status, |
or take any
other disciplinary action as the Department may |
deem proper, with regard to a
license on any of the foregoing |
grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next
after receipt by |
the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or
|
notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described |
herein. Except
for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and |
(29), no action shall be commenced more
than 10 years after the |
date of the incident or act alleged to have violated
this |
Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a |
pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents |
alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior |
that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act |
received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the |
complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause |
of action
in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final |
judgment of any civil action
in favor of the plaintiff, such |
claim, cause of action or civil action being
grounded on the |
allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent
|
in providing care, the Department shall have an additional |
period of 2 years
from the date of notification to the |
Department under Section 23 of this Act
of such settlement or |
final judgment in which to investigate and
commence formal |
|
disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except
|
as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder |
of the license
was outside the State of Illinois shall not be |
included within any period of
time limiting the commencement of |
disciplinary action by the Department.
|
The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court |
establishing that any
person holding a license under this Act |
is a person in need of mental treatment
operates as a |
suspension of that license. That person may resume their
|
practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon |
a finding by
the Disciplinary Board that they have been |
determined to be recovered
from mental illness by the court and |
upon the Disciplinary Board's
recommendation that they be |
permitted to resume their practice.
|
The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary |
action concerning the license of any person
who fails to file a |
return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a
filed |
return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or |
interest, as
required by any tax Act administered by the |
Illinois Department of Revenue,
until such time as the |
requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as
determined by |
the Illinois Department of Revenue.
|
The Department, upon the recommendation of the |
Disciplinary Board, shall
adopt rules which set forth standards |
to be used in determining:
|
(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently |
|
rehabilitated to warrant the
public trust;
|
(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or |
unprofessional conduct of
a character likely to deceive, |
defraud, or harm the public;
|
(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission |
of any act,
including, but not limited to, commission of an |
act of sexual misconduct
related
to the licensee's |
practice; and
|
(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice |
of medicine.
|
However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in |
any civil action
except for review of a licensing or other |
disciplinary action under this Act.
|
In enforcing this Section, the Disciplinary Board or the |
Licensing Board,
upon a showing of a possible violation, may |
compel, in the case of the Disciplinary Board, any individual |
who is licensed to
practice under this Act or holds a permit to |
practice under this Act, or, in the case of the Licensing |
Board, any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit
|
pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical |
examination and evaluation, or both,
which may include a |
substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by |
the Licensing Board or Disciplinary Board and at the expense of |
the Department. The Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall |
specifically designate the examining physician licensed to |
practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the |
|
multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or |
physical examination and evaluation, or both. The |
multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to |
practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one |
or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice |
medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic |
physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical |
social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and |
other professional and administrative staff. Any examining |
physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require |
any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation |
pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional |
supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any |
examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited |
to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or |
neuropsychological testing.
The Disciplinary Board, the |
Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining
|
physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to |
provide to the Department, the Disciplinary Board, or the |
Licensing Board any and all records, including business |
records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, |
including any supplemental testing performed. The Disciplinary |
Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the |
examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team |
to present testimony concerning this examination
and |
evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, |
|
including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or |
documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No |
information, report, record, or other documents in any way |
related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by |
reason of
any common
law or statutory privilege relating to |
communication between the licensee, permit holder, or
|
applicant and
the examining physician or any member of the |
multidisciplinary team.
No authorization is necessary from the |
licensee, permit holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an |
evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any |
member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, |
reports, records, or other documents or to provide any |
testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The |
individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, |
another
physician of his or her choice present during all |
aspects of the examination.
Failure of any individual to submit |
to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when
|
directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without |
hearing, until such time
as the individual submits to the |
examination. If the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board finds |
a physician unable
to practice following an examination and |
evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section, |
the Disciplinary
Board or Licensing Board shall require such |
physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment
by |
physicians, or other health care professionals, approved or |
designated by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition
for |
|
issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to |
practice. Any physician,
whose license was granted pursuant to |
Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or,
continued, reinstated, |
renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such
terms, |
conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such |
terms,
conditions or restrictions, or to complete a required |
program of care,
counseling, or treatment, as determined by the |
Chief Medical Coordinator or
Deputy Medical Coordinators, |
shall be referred to the Secretary for a
determination as to |
whether the licensee shall have their license suspended
|
immediately, pending a hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In |
instances in
which the Secretary immediately suspends a license |
under this Section, a hearing
upon such person's license must |
be convened by the Disciplinary Board within 15
days after such |
suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
|
Disciplinary Board shall have the authority to review the |
subject physician's
record of treatment and counseling |
regarding the impairment, to the extent
permitted by applicable |
federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
|
confidentiality of medical records.
|
An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this |
Section, shall be
afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the |
Disciplinary Board that they can
resume practice in compliance |
with acceptable and prevailing standards under
the provisions |
of their license.
|
The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of |
|
fines in
disciplinary cases, not to exceed
$10,000 for each |
violation of this Act. Fines
may be imposed in conjunction with |
other forms of disciplinary action, but
shall not be the |
exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out
of |
conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds |
collected from
such fines shall be deposited in the Illinois |
State Medical Disciplinary Fund.
|
All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within |
60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine |
or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing |
the fine. |
(B) The Department shall revoke the license or
permit |
issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic |
physician who
has been convicted a second time of committing |
any felony under the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the |
Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who |
has been convicted a second time of
committing a Class 1 felony |
under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public
Aid Code. A |
person whose license or permit is revoked
under
this subsection |
B shall be prohibited from practicing
medicine or treating |
human ailments without the use of drugs and without
operative |
surgery.
|
(C) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on |
probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any |
other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the |
license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine to |
|
a physician: |
(1) based solely upon the recommendation of the |
physician to an eligible patient regarding, or |
prescription for, or treatment with, an investigational |
drug, biological product, or device; or |
(2) for experimental treatment for Lyme disease or |
other tick-borne diseases, including, but not limited to, |
the prescription of or treatment with long-term |
antibiotics. |
(D) The Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the
|
Department civil
penalties and any other appropriate |
discipline in disciplinary cases when the
Board finds that a |
physician willfully performed an abortion with actual
|
knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been |
performed is a minor
or an incompetent person without notice as |
required under the Parental Notice
of Abortion Act of 1995. |
Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall
impose, |
for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a |
second or
subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.
|
(Source: P.A. 99-270, eff. 1-1-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; |
100-429, eff. 8-25-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-605, eff. |
1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1137, eff. 1-1-19; revised |
12-19-18.)
|
(225 ILCS 60/36) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-36)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)
|
|
Sec. 36. Investigation; notice. |
(a) Upon the motion of either the Department
or the |
Disciplinary Board or upon the verified complaint in
writing of |
any person setting forth facts which, if proven,
would |
constitute grounds for suspension or revocation under
Section |
22 of this Act, the Department shall investigate the
actions of |
any person, so accused, who holds or represents
that they hold |
a license. Such person is hereinafter called
the accused.
|
(b) The Department shall, before suspending, revoking,
|
placing on probationary status, or taking any other
|
disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with
|
regard to any license at least 30 days prior to the date set
|
for the hearing, notify the accused in writing of any
charges |
made and the time and place for a hearing of the
charges before |
the Disciplinary Board, direct them to file
their written |
answer thereto to the Disciplinary Board under
oath within 20 |
days after the service on them of such notice
and inform them |
that if they fail to file such answer
default will be taken |
against them and their license may be
suspended, revoked, |
placed on probationary status, or have
other disciplinary |
action, including limiting the scope,
nature or extent of their |
practice, as the Department may
deem proper taken with regard |
thereto. The Department shall, at least 14 days prior to the |
date set for the hearing, notify in writing any person who |
filed a complaint against the accused of the time and place for |
the hearing of the charges against the accused before the |
|
Disciplinary Board and inform such person whether he or she may |
provide testimony at the hearing.
|
(c) (Blank). Where a physician has been found, upon |
complaint and
investigation of the Department, and after |
hearing, to have
performed an abortion procedure in a wilful |
and wanton
manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time |
such
abortion procedure was performed, the Department shall
|
automatically revoke the license of such physician to
practice |
medicine in Illinois.
|
(d) Such written notice and any notice in such proceedings
|
thereafter may be served by delivery of the same,
personally, |
to the accused person, or by mailing the same by
registered or |
certified mail to the accused person's address of record.
|
(e) All information gathered by the Department during its |
investigation
including information subpoenaed
under Section |
23 or 38 of this Act and the investigative file shall be kept |
for
the confidential use of the Secretary, Disciplinary Board, |
the Medical
Coordinators, persons employed by contract to |
advise the Medical Coordinator or
the Department, the
|
Disciplinary Board's attorneys, the medical investigative |
staff, and authorized
clerical staff, as provided in this Act |
and shall be afforded the same status
as is provided |
information concerning medical studies in Part 21 of Article
|
VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, except that the Department |
may disclose information and documents to a federal, State, or |
local law enforcement agency pursuant to a subpoena in an |
|
ongoing criminal investigation to a health care licensing body |
of this State or another state or jurisdiction pursuant to an |
official request made by that licensing body. Furthermore, |
information and documents disclosed to a federal, State, or |
local law enforcement agency may be used by that agency only |
for the investigation and prosecution of a criminal offense or, |
in the case of disclosure to a health care licensing body, only |
for investigations and disciplinary action proceedings with |
regard to a license issued by that licensing body.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-449, eff. 1-1-12; 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; |
98-1140, eff. 12-30-14 .)
|
Section 910-50. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by |
changing Section 65-35 and 65-43 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 65/65-35)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-15)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)
|
Sec. 65-35. Written collaborative
agreements. |
(a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all |
advanced practice registered nurses engaged in clinical |
practice prior to meeting the requirements of Section 65-43, |
except for advanced practice registered nurses who are |
privileged to practice in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or |
ambulatory surgical treatment center. |
(a-5) If an advanced practice registered nurse engages in |
clinical practice outside of a hospital, hospital affiliate, or |
|
ambulatory surgical treatment center in which he or she is |
privileged to practice, the advanced practice registered nurse |
must have a written collaborative agreement, except as set |
forth in Section 65-43.
|
(b) A written collaborative
agreement shall describe the |
relationship of the
advanced practice registered nurse with the |
collaborating
physician and shall describe the categories of
|
care, treatment, or procedures to be provided by the advanced
|
practice registered nurse. A collaborative agreement with a |
podiatric physician must be in accordance with subsection (c-5) |
or (c-15) of this Section. A collaborative agreement with a |
dentist must be in accordance with subsection (c-10) of this |
Section. A collaborative agreement with a podiatric physician |
must be in accordance with subsection (c-5) of this Section. |
Collaboration does not require an
employment relationship |
between the collaborating physician
and the advanced practice |
registered nurse.
|
The collaborative
relationship under an agreement shall |
not be
construed to require the personal presence of a |
collaborating physician at the place where services are |
rendered.
Methods of communication shall
be available for |
consultation with the collaborating
physician in person or by |
telecommunications or electronic communications as set forth |
in the written
agreement.
|
(b-5) Absent an employment relationship, a written |
collaborative agreement may not (1) restrict the categories of |
|
patients of an advanced practice registered nurse within the |
scope of the advanced practice registered nurses training and |
experience, (2) limit third party payors or government health |
programs, such as the medical assistance program or Medicare |
with which the advanced practice registered nurse contracts, or |
(3) limit the geographic area or practice location of the |
advanced practice registered nurse in this State. |
(c)
In the case of anesthesia services provided by a |
certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, a |
physician, a dentist, or a podiatric physician must participate |
through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan |
and remain physically present and available on the premises |
during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, |
consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions.
|
(c-5) A certified registered nurse anesthetist, who |
provides anesthesia services outside of a hospital or |
ambulatory surgical treatment center shall enter into a written |
collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the |
physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or |
the podiatric physician performing the procedure. Outside of a |
hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the |
certified registered nurse anesthetist may provide only those |
services that the collaborating podiatric physician is |
authorized to provide pursuant to the Podiatric Medical |
Practice Act of 1987 and rules adopted thereunder. A certified |
registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer |
|
medication, including controlled substances, and apply |
appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia |
services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the |
anesthesiologist or the operating physician or operating |
podiatric physician. |
(c-10) A certified registered nurse anesthetist who |
provides anesthesia services in a dental office shall enter |
into a written collaborative agreement with an |
anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice |
medicine in all its branches or the operating dentist |
performing the procedure. The agreement shall describe the |
working relationship of the certified registered nurse |
anesthetist and dentist and shall authorize the categories of |
care, treatment, or procedures to be performed by the certified |
registered nurse anesthetist. In a collaborating dentist's |
office, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may only |
provide those services that the operating dentist with the |
appropriate permit is authorized to provide pursuant to the |
Illinois Dental Practice Act and rules adopted thereunder. For |
anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist, physician, or |
operating dentist shall participate through discussion of and |
agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically |
present and be available on the premises during the delivery of |
anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment |
of emergency medical conditions. A certified registered nurse |
anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication, |
|
including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical |
devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the |
anesthesia plan agreed with by the operating dentist. |
(c-15) An advanced practice registered nurse who had a |
written collaborative agreement with a podiatric physician |
immediately before the effective date of Public Act 100-513 may |
continue in that collaborative relationship or enter into a new |
written collaborative relationship with a podiatric physician |
under the requirements of this Section and Section 65-40, as |
those Sections existed immediately before the amendment of |
those Sections by Public Act 100-513 with regard to a written |
collaborative agreement between an advanced practice |
registered nurse and a podiatric physician. |
(d) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement |
must be available
to the Department upon request from both the |
advanced practice registered nurse
and the collaborating |
physician, dentist, or podiatric physician. |
(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed |
practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other |
persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice |
Act of 1987. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit |
the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, |
including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, |
standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders. |
(e-5) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize |
|
an advanced practice registered nurse to provide health care |
services required by law or rule to be performed by a |
physician . The scope of practice of an advanced practice |
registered nurse does not include operative surgery. Nothing in |
this Section shall be construed to preclude an advanced |
practice registered nurse from assisting in surgery , including |
those acts to be performed by a physician in Section 3.1 of the |
Illinois Abortion Law of 1975 . |
(f) An advanced
practice registered nurse shall inform each |
collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician of |
all collaborative
agreements he or she
has signed and provide a |
copy of these to any collaborating physician, dentist, or |
podiatric physician upon
request.
|
(g) (Blank). |
(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; |
100-577, eff. 1-26-18; 100-1096, eff. 8-26-18.)
|
(225 ILCS 65/65-43) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028) |
Sec. 65-43. Full practice authority. |
(a) An Illinois-licensed advanced practice registered |
nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or |
clinical nurse specialist shall be deemed by law to possess the |
ability to practice without a written collaborative agreement |
as set forth in this Section. |
(b) An advanced practice registered nurse certified as a |
|
nurse midwife, clinical nurse specialist, or nurse |
practitioner who files with the Department a notarized |
attestation of completion of at least 250 hours of continuing |
education or training and at least 4,000 hours of clinical |
experience after first attaining national certification shall |
not require a written collaborative agreement, except as |
specified in subsection (c). Documentation of successful |
completion shall be provided to the Department upon request. |
Continuing education or training hours required by |
subsection (b) shall be in the advanced practice registered |
nurse's area of certification as set forth by Department rule. |
The clinical experience must be in the advanced practice |
registered nurse's area of certification. The clinical |
experience shall be in collaboration with a physician or |
physicians. Completion of the clinical experience must be |
attested to by the collaborating physician or physicians and |
the advanced practice registered nurse. |
(c) The scope of practice of an advanced practice |
registered nurse with full practice authority includes: |
(1) all matters included in subsection (c) of Section |
65-30 of this Act; |
(2) practicing without a written collaborative |
agreement in all practice settings consistent with |
national certification; |
(3) authority to prescribe both legend drugs and |
Schedule II through V controlled substances; this |
|
authority includes prescription of, selection of, orders |
for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples |
of, and dispensing over the counter medications, legend |
drugs, and controlled substances categorized as any |
Schedule II through V controlled substances, as defined in |
Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and |
other preparations, including, but not limited to, |
botanical and herbal remedies; |
(4) prescribing benzodiazepines or Schedule II |
narcotic drugs, such as opioids, only in a consultation |
relationship with a physician; this consultation |
relationship shall be recorded in the Prescription |
Monitoring Program website, pursuant to Section 316 of the |
Illinois Controlled Substances Act, by the physician and |
advanced practice registered nurse with full practice |
authority and is not required to be filed with the |
Department; the specific Schedule II narcotic drug must be |
identified by either brand name or generic name; the |
specific Schedule II narcotic drug, such as an opioid, may |
be administered by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
application; delivery by injection or other route of |
administration is not permitted; at least monthly, the |
advanced practice registered nurse and the physician must |
discuss the condition of any patients for whom a |
benzodiazepine or opioid is prescribed; nothing in this |
subsection shall be construed to require a prescription by |
|
an advanced practice registered nurse with full practice |
authority to require a physician name; |
(5) authority to obtain an Illinois controlled |
substance license and a federal Drug Enforcement |
Administration number; and |
(6) use of only local anesthetic. |
The scope of practice of an advanced practice registered |
nurse does not include operative surgery. Nothing in this |
Section shall be construed to preclude an advanced practice |
registered nurse from assisting in surgery. |
(d) The Department may adopt rules necessary to administer |
this Section, including, but not limited to, requiring the |
completion of forms and the payment of fees. |
(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize an |
advanced practice registered nurse with full practice |
authority to provide health care services required by law or |
rule to be performed by a physician , including, but not limited |
to, those acts to be performed by a physician in Section 3.1 of |
the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975 .
|
(Source: P.A. 100-513, eff. 1-1-18 .) |
Section 910-53. The Physician Assistant Practice Act of |
1987 is amended by changing Section 7.5 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 95/7.5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)
|
|
Sec. 7.5. Written collaborative agreements; prescriptive |
authority. |
(a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all |
physician assistants to practice in the State, except as |
provided in Section 7.7 of this Act. |
(1) A written collaborative agreement shall describe |
the working relationship of the physician assistant with |
the collaborating physician and shall describe the |
categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be provided |
by the physician assistant.
The written collaborative |
agreement shall promote the exercise of professional |
judgment by the physician assistant commensurate with his |
or her education and experience. The services to be |
provided by the physician assistant shall be services that |
the collaborating physician is authorized to and generally |
provides to his or her patients in the normal course of his |
or her clinical medical practice. The written |
collaborative agreement need not describe the exact steps |
that a physician assistant must take with respect to each |
specific condition, disease, or symptom but must specify |
which authorized procedures require the presence of the |
collaborating physician as the procedures are being |
performed. The relationship under a written collaborative |
agreement shall not be construed to require the personal |
presence of a physician at the place where services are |
rendered. Methods of communication shall be available for |
|
consultation with the collaborating physician in person or |
by telecommunications or electronic communications as set |
forth in the written collaborative agreement. For the |
purposes of this Act, "generally provides to his or her |
patients in the normal course of his or her clinical |
medical practice" means services, not specific tasks or |
duties, the collaborating physician routinely provides |
individually or through delegation to other persons so that |
the physician has the experience and ability to collaborate |
and provide consultation. |
(2) The written collaborative agreement shall be |
adequate if a physician does each of the following: |
(A) Participates in the joint formulation and |
joint approval of orders or guidelines with the |
physician assistant and he or she periodically reviews |
such orders and the services provided patients under |
such orders in accordance with accepted standards of |
medical practice and physician assistant practice. |
(B) Provides consultation at least once a month. |
(3) A copy of the signed, written collaborative |
agreement must be available to the Department upon request |
from both the physician assistant and the collaborating |
physician. |
(4) A physician assistant shall inform each |
collaborating physician of all written collaborative |
agreements he or she has signed and provide a copy of these |
|
to any collaborating physician upon request. |
(b) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, |
delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as |
part of a written collaborative agreement. This authority may, |
but is not required to, include prescription of, selection of, |
orders for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of |
samples of, and dispensing medical devices, over the counter |
medications, legend drugs, medical gases, and controlled |
substances categorized as Schedule II through V controlled |
substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled |
Substances Act, and other preparations, including, but not |
limited to, botanical and herbal remedies. The collaborating |
physician must have a valid, current Illinois controlled |
substance license and federal registration with the Drug |
Enforcement Agency to delegate the authority to prescribe |
controlled substances. |
(1) To prescribe Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled |
substances under this
Section, a physician assistant must |
obtain a mid-level practitioner
controlled substances |
license. Medication orders issued by a
physician
assistant |
shall be reviewed
periodically by the collaborating |
physician. |
(2) The collaborating physician shall file
with the |
Department notice of delegation of prescriptive authority |
to a
physician assistant and
termination of delegation, |
specifying the authority delegated or terminated.
Upon |
|
receipt of this notice delegating authority to prescribe |
controlled substances, the physician assistant shall be |
eligible to
register for a mid-level practitioner |
controlled substances license under
Section 303.05 of the |
Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
Nothing in this Act |
shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or
|
duties by the collaborating physician to a nurse or other |
appropriately trained
persons in accordance with Section |
54.2 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.
|
(3) In addition to the requirements of this subsection |
(b), a collaborating physician may, but is not required to, |
delegate authority to a physician assistant to prescribe |
Schedule II controlled substances, if all of the following |
conditions apply: |
(A) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by |
oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may |
be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II |
controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the |
collaborating physician. This delegation must identify |
the specific Schedule II controlled substances by |
either brand name or generic name. Schedule II |
controlled substances to be delivered by injection or |
other route of administration may not be delegated. |
(B) (Blank). |
(C) Any prescription must be limited to no more |
than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized |
|
only after prior approval of the collaborating |
physician. |
(D) The physician assistant must discuss the |
condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
substance is prescribed monthly with the collaborating |
physician. |
(E) The physician assistant meets the education |
requirements of Section 303.05 of the Illinois |
Controlled Substances Act. |
(c) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed |
practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other |
persons. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, |
including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, |
standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders. |
Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a physician |
assistant to provide health care services required by law or |
rule to be performed by a physician. Nothing in this Act shall |
be construed to authorize the delegation or performance of |
operative surgery. Nothing in this Section shall be construed |
to preclude a physician assistant from assisting in surgery. |
(c-5) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply
|
to any medication authority, including Schedule II controlled
|
substances of a licensed physician assistant for care provided
|
in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical
|
|
treatment center pursuant to Section 7.7 of this Act.
|
(d) (Blank). |
(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit |
generic substitution. |
(Source: P.A. 100-453, eff. 8-25-17.)
|
Section 910-55. The Vital Records Act is amended by |
changing Section 1 as follows:
|
(410 ILCS 535/1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73-1)
|
Sec. 1. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise |
requires:
|
(1) "Vital records" means records of births, deaths, fetal |
deaths,
marriages, dissolution of marriages, and data related |
thereto.
|
(2) "System of vital records" includes the registration, |
collection,
preservation, amendment, and certification of |
vital records, and
activities related thereto.
|
(3) "Filing" means the presentation of a certificate, |
report, or
other record provided for in this Act, of a birth, |
death, fetal death,
adoption, marriage, or dissolution of |
marriage, for registration by the Office of Vital
Records.
|
(4) "Registration" means the acceptance by the Office of |
Vital
Records and the incorporation in its official records of |
certificates,
reports, or other records provided for in this |
Act, of births, deaths,
fetal deaths, adoptions, marriages, or |
|
dissolution of marriages.
|
(5) "Live birth" means the complete expulsion or extraction |
from its
mother of a product of human conception, irrespective |
of the duration of
pregnancy, which after such separation |
breathes or shows any other
evidence of life such as beating of |
the heart, pulsation of the
umbilical cord, or definite |
movement of voluntary muscles, whether or
not the umbilical |
cord has been cut or the placenta is attached.
|
(6) "Fetal death" means death prior to the complete |
expulsion or
extraction from the uterus its mother of a product |
of human conception,
irrespective of the duration of pregnancy , |
and which is not due to an abortion as defined in Section 1-10 |
of the Reproductive Health Act. ; The the death is indicated by |
the
fact that after such separation the fetus does not breathe |
or show any
other evidence of life such as beating of the |
heart, pulsation of the
umbilical cord, or definite movement of |
voluntary muscles.
|
(7) "Dead body" means a lifeless human body or parts of |
such body or
bones thereof from the state of which it may |
reasonably be concluded
that death has occurred.
|
(8) "Final disposition" means the burial, cremation, or |
other
disposition of a dead human body or fetus or parts |
thereof.
|
(9) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice |
medicine in
Illinois or any other state.
|
(10) "Institution" means any establishment, public or |
|
private, which
provides in-patient medical, surgical, or |
diagnostic care or treatment,
or nursing, custodial, or |
domiciliary care to 2 or more unrelated
individuals, or to |
which persons are committed by law.
|
(11) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of |
the State
of Illinois.
|
(12) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois |
Department of
Public Health.
|
(13) "Licensed health care professional" means a person |
licensed to practice as a physician, advanced practice |
registered nurse, or physician assistant in Illinois or any |
other state. |
(14) "Licensed mental health professional" means a person |
who is licensed or registered to provide mental health services |
by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or a |
board of registration duly authorized to register or grant |
licenses to persons engaged in the practice of providing mental |
health services in Illinois or any other state. |
(15) "Intersex condition" means a condition in which a |
person is born with a reproductive or sexual anatomy or |
chromosome pattern that does not fit typical definitions of |
male or female. |
(16) "Homeless person" means an individual who meets the |
definition of "homeless" under Section 103 of the federal |
McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 11302) or an |
individual residing in any of the living situations described |
|
in 42 U.S.C. 11434a(2). |
(Source: P.A. 100-360, eff. 1-1-18; 100-506, eff. 1-1-18; |
100-863, eff. 8-14-18.)
|
Section 910-60. The Environmental Protection Act is |
amended by changing Section 56.1 as follows: |
(415 ILCS 5/56.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1056.1)
|
Sec. 56.1. Acts prohibited.
|
(A) No person shall:
|
(a) Cause or allow the disposal of any potentially |
infectious medical
waste. Sharps may be disposed in any |
landfill permitted by the Agency under
Section 21 of this |
Act to accept municipal waste for disposal, if both:
|
(1) the infectious potential has been eliminated |
from the sharps by
treatment; and
|
(2) the sharps are packaged in accordance with |
Board regulations.
|
(b) Cause or allow the delivery of any potentially |
infectious medical
waste for transport, storage, |
treatment, or transfer except in accordance
with Board |
regulations.
|
(c) Beginning July 1, 1992, cause or allow the delivery |
of any
potentially infectious medical waste to a person or |
facility for storage,
treatment, or transfer that does not |
have a permit issued by the agency to
receive potentially |
|
infectious medical waste, unless no permit is required
|
under subsection (g)(1).
|
(d) Beginning July 1, 1992, cause or allow the delivery |
or transfer of
any potentially infectious medical waste for |
transport unless:
|
(1) the transporter has a permit issued by the |
Agency to transport
potentially infectious medical |
waste, or the transporter is exempt from the
permit |
requirement set forth in subsection (f)(l).
|
(2) a potentially infectious medical waste |
manifest is completed for
the waste if a manifest is |
required under subsection (h).
|
(e) Cause or allow the acceptance of any potentially |
infectious medical
waste for purposes of transport, |
storage, treatment, or transfer except in
accordance with |
Board regulations.
|
(f) Beginning July 1, 1992, conduct any potentially |
infectious medical
waste transportation operation:
|
(1) Without a permit issued by the Agency to |
transport potentially
infectious medical waste. No |
permit is required under this provision (f)(1)
for:
|
(A) a person transporting potentially |
infectious medical waste
generated solely by that |
person's activities;
|
(B) noncommercial transportation of less than |
50 pounds of potentially
infectious medical waste |
|
at any one
time; or
|
(C) the U.S. Postal Service.
|
(2) In violation of any condition of any permit |
issued by the Agency
under this Act.
|
(3) In violation of any regulation adopted by the |
Board.
|
(4) In violation of any order adopted by the Board |
under this Act.
|
(g) Beginning July 1, 1992, conduct any potentially |
infectious medical
waste treatment, storage, or transfer |
operation:
|
(1) without a permit issued by the Agency that |
specifically
authorizes the treatment, storage, or |
transfer of potentially infectious
medical waste. No |
permit is required under this subsection (g) or |
subsection (d)(1) of Section 21 for any:
|
(A) Person conducting a potentially infectious |
medical waste
treatment, storage, or transfer |
operation for potentially infectious
medical waste |
generated by the person's own activities that are |
treated,
stored, or transferred within the site |
where the potentially infectious
medical waste is |
generated.
|
(B) Hospital that treats, stores, or transfers |
only potentially
infectious medical waste |
generated by its own activities or by members of |
|
its
medical staff.
|
(C) Sharps collection station that is operated |
in accordance with
Section 56.7.
|
(2) in violation of any condition of any permit |
issued by the Agency
under this Act.
|
(3) in violation of any regulation adopted by the |
Board.
|
(4) In violation of any order adopted by the Board |
under this Act.
|
(h) Transport potentially infectious medical waste |
unless the
transporter carries a completed potentially |
infectious medical waste
manifest. No manifest is required |
for the transportation of:
|
(1) potentially infectious medical waste being |
transported by
generators who generated the waste by |
their own activities, when the
potentially infectious |
medical waste is transported within or between sites
or |
facilities owned, controlled, or operated by that |
person;
|
(2) less than 50 pounds of potentially infectious |
medical waste at
any one time for a noncommercial
|
transportation activity; or
|
(3) potentially infectious medical waste by the |
U.S. Postal Service.
|
(i) Offer for transportation, transport, deliver, |
receive or accept
potentially infectious medical waste for |
|
which a manifest is required,
unless the manifest indicates |
that the fee required under Section 56.4 of
this Act has |
been paid.
|
(j) Beginning January 1, 1994, conduct a potentially |
infectious medical
waste treatment operation at an |
incinerator in existence on the effective
date of this |
Title in violation of emission standards established
for |
these incinerators under Section 129 of the Clean Air Act |
(42 USC 7429),
as amended.
|
(k) Beginning July 1, 2015, knowingly mix household |
sharps, including, but not limited to, hypodermic, |
intravenous, or other medical needles or syringes or other |
medical household waste containing used or unused sharps, |
including, but not limited to, hypodermic, intravenous, or |
other medical needles or syringes or other sharps, with any |
other material intended for collection as a recyclable |
material by a residential hauler. |
(l) Beginning on July 1, 2015, knowingly place |
household sharps into a container intended for collection |
by a residential hauler for processing at a recycling |
center. |
(B) In making its orders and determinations relative to
|
penalties, if any, to be imposed for violating subdivision |
(A)(a) of
this Section, the Board, in addition to the
factors |
in Sections 33(c) and 42(h) of this Act, or the Court shall |
take into
consideration whether the owner or operator of the |
|
landfill reasonably relied
on written statements from the |
person generating or treating the waste that
the waste is not |
potentially infectious medical waste.
|
(C) Notwithstanding subsection (A) or any other provision |
of law, including the Vital Records Act, tissue and products |
from an abortion, as defined in Section 1-10 of the |
Reproductive Health Act, or a miscarriage may be buried, |
entombed, or cremated. |
(Source: P.A. 99-82, eff. 7-20-15 .)
|
Section 910-65. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by |
changing Section 9-1.2, 9-2.1, 9-3.2, and 12-3.1 as follows:
|
(720 ILCS 5/9-1.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-1.2)
|
Sec. 9-1.2. Intentional Homicide of an Unborn Child.
|
(a) A person
commits the offense of intentional homicide of |
an unborn child if, in
performing acts which cause the death of |
an unborn child, he without lawful
justification:
|
(1) either intended to cause the death of or do great |
bodily harm to the
pregnant individual woman or her unborn |
child or knew that such acts would cause death
or great |
bodily harm to the pregnant individual woman or her unborn |
child; or
|
(2) knew that his acts created a strong probability of |
death or great
bodily harm to the pregnant individual woman |
or her unborn child; and
|
|
(3) knew that the individual woman was pregnant.
|
(b) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall |
mean any
individual of the human species from the implantation |
of an embryo fertilization until birth, and (2)
"person" shall |
not include the pregnant woman whose unborn child is killed.
|
(c) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause the |
death of an
unborn child if those acts were committed during |
any abortion, as defined
in Section 1-10 of the Reproductive |
Health Act, Section 2 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975, as |
amended, to which the
pregnant individual woman has consented. |
This Section shall not apply to acts which
were committed |
pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical
practice |
during diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.
|
(d) Penalty. The sentence for intentional homicide of an |
unborn child
shall be the same as for first degree murder, |
except that:
|
(1) the death penalty may not be imposed;
|
(2) if the person committed the offense while armed |
with a firearm, 15
years shall be added to the term of |
imprisonment imposed by the court;
|
(3) if, during the commission of the offense, the |
person personally
discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be |
added to the term of imprisonment
imposed by the court;
|
(4) if, during the commission of the offense, the |
person personally
discharged a firearm that proximately |
caused great bodily harm, permanent
disability, permanent |
|
disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up
|
to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of |
imprisonment imposed by
the court.
|
(e) The provisions of this Act shall not be construed to |
prohibit the
prosecution of any person under any other |
provision of law.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
|
(720 ILCS 5/9-2.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-2.1)
|
Sec. 9-2.1. Voluntary Manslaughter of an Unborn Child. (a) |
A person
who kills an unborn child without lawful justification |
commits voluntary
manslaughter of an unborn child if at the |
time of the killing he is acting
under a sudden and
intense |
passion resulting from serious provocation by
another whom the |
offender endeavors to kill, but he negligently or
accidentally |
causes the death of the unborn child.
|
Serious provocation is conduct sufficient to excite an |
intense passion in
a reasonable person.
|
(b) A person who intentionally or knowingly kills an unborn |
child
commits voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child if at |
the time of the
killing he believes the circumstances to be |
such that, if they existed,
would justify or exonerate the |
killing under the principles stated in
Article 7 of this Code, |
but his belief is unreasonable.
|
(c) Sentence.
Voluntary Manslaughter of an unborn child is |
a Class 1 felony.
|
|
(d) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall |
mean any
individual of the human species from the implantation |
of an embryo fertilization until birth, and (2)
"person" shall |
not include the pregnant individual woman whose unborn child is |
killed.
|
(e) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause the |
death of an
unborn child if those acts were committed during |
any abortion, as defined
in Section 1-10 of the Reproductive |
Health Act, Section 2 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975, as |
amended, to which the
pregnant individual woman has
consented. |
This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed
|
pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice |
during
diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.
|
(Source: P.A. 84-1414.)
|
(720 ILCS 5/9-3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-3.2)
|
Sec. 9-3.2.
Involuntary Manslaughter and Reckless Homicide |
of an
Unborn Child. (a) A person who unintentionally kills an |
unborn child
without lawful justification commits involuntary |
manslaughter of an unborn
child if his acts whether lawful or |
unlawful which cause the death are such
as are likely to cause |
death or great bodily harm to some individual, and
he performs |
them recklessly, except in cases in which the cause of death
|
consists of the driving of a motor vehicle, in which case the |
person
commits reckless homicide of an unborn child.
|
(b) Sentence.
|
|
(1) Involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child is a Class |
3 felony.
|
(2) Reckless homicide of an unborn child is a Class 3 |
felony.
|
(c) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall |
mean any
individual of the human species from the implantation |
of an embryo fertilization until birth, and (2)
"person" shall |
not include the pregnant individual woman whose unborn child is |
killed.
|
(d) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause the |
death of an
unborn child if those acts were committed during |
any abortion, as defined
in Section 1-10 of the Reproductive |
Health Act, Section 2 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975, as |
amended , to which the
pregnant individual woman has
consented. |
This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed
|
pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice |
during
diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.
|
(e) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed |
to prohibit
the prosecution of any person under any other |
provision of law, nor shall
it be construed to preclude any |
civil cause of action.
|
(Source: P.A. 84-1414.)
|
(720 ILCS 5/12-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-3.1)
|
Sec. 12-3.1. Battery of an unborn child; aggravated battery |
of an unborn child. |
|
(a) A person commits battery
of an unborn child if he or |
she knowingly without legal
justification and by any means |
causes bodily harm to an unborn child.
|
(a-5) A person commits aggravated battery of an unborn |
child when, in committing a battery of an unborn child, he or |
she knowingly causes great bodily harm or permanent disability |
or disfigurement to an unborn child. |
(b) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall |
mean any
individual of the human species from the implantation |
of an embryo fertilization until birth, and (2)
"person" shall |
not include the pregnant individual woman whose unborn child is |
harmed.
|
(c) Sentence. Battery of an unborn child is a Class A |
misdemeanor. Aggravated battery of an unborn child is a Class 2 |
felony.
|
(d) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause bodily |
harm to an
unborn child if those acts were committed during any |
abortion, as defined
in Section 1-10 of the Reproductive Health |
Act, Section 2 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975, as |
amended, to which the
pregnant individual woman has
consented. |
This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed
|
pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice |
during
diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11 .)
|
Section 910-70. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by |
|
changing Section 8-802 as follows:
|
(735 ILCS 5/8-802) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-802)
|
Sec. 8-802. Physician and patient. No physician or surgeon |
shall be
permitted to disclose any information he or she may |
have acquired in
attending any patient in a professional |
character, necessary to enable him
or her professionally to |
serve the patient, except only (1) in trials for
homicide when |
the disclosure relates directly to the fact or immediate
|
circumstances of the homicide, (2) in actions, civil or |
criminal, against
the physician for malpractice, (3) with the |
expressed consent of the
patient, or in case of his or her |
death or disability, of his or her
personal representative or |
other person authorized to sue for personal
injury or of the |
beneficiary of an insurance policy on his or her life,
health, |
or physical condition, or as authorized by Section 8-2001.5, |
(4) in all actions brought by or against the
patient, his or |
her personal representative, a beneficiary under a policy
of |
insurance, or the executor or administrator of his or her |
estate wherein
the patient's physical or mental condition is an |
issue, (5) upon an issue
as to the validity of a document as a |
will of the patient, (6) (blank) in any
criminal action where |
the charge is either first degree murder by abortion,
attempted |
abortion or abortion , (7) in actions, civil or criminal, |
arising
from the filing of a report in compliance with the |
Abused and Neglected
Child Reporting Act, (8) to any |
|
department, agency, institution
or facility which has custody |
of the patient pursuant to State statute
or any court order of |
commitment, (9) in prosecutions where written
results of blood |
alcohol tests are admissible pursuant to Section 11-501.4
of |
the Illinois Vehicle Code, (10) in prosecutions where written
|
results of blood alcohol tests are admissible under Section |
5-11a of the
Boat Registration and Safety Act,
(11) in criminal |
actions arising from the filing of a report of suspected
|
terrorist offense in compliance with Section 29D-10(p)(7) of |
the Criminal Code
of 2012, (12) upon the issuance of a subpoena |
pursuant to Section 38 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987; the |
issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 25.1 of the Illinois |
Dental Practice Act; the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to |
Section 22 of the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and |
Disciplinary Act; or the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to |
Section 25.5 of the Workers' Compensation Act, (13) upon the |
issuance of a grand jury subpoena pursuant to Article 112 of |
the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or (14) to or through a |
health information exchange, as that term is defined in Section |
2 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities |
Confidentiality Act, in accordance with State or federal law. |
Upon disclosure under item (13) of this Section, in any |
criminal action where the charge is domestic battery, |
aggravated domestic battery, or an offense under Article 11 of |
the Criminal Code of 2012 or where the patient is under the age |
of 18 years or upon the request of the patient, the State's |
|
Attorney shall petition the court for a protective order |
pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 415.
|
In the event of a conflict between the application of this |
Section
and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities |
Confidentiality
Act to a specific situation, the provisions of |
the Mental Health and
Developmental Disabilities |
Confidentiality Act shall control.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-954, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; 99-78, |
eff. 7-20-15.)
|
Section 910-73. The Health Care Right of Conscience Act is |
amended by changing Section 3 as follows:
|
(745 ILCS 70/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 5303)
|
Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
context clearly
otherwise
requires:
|
(a) "Health care" means any phase of patient care, |
including
but
not limited to, testing; diagnosis; |
prognosis; ancillary research;
instructions; family |
planning, counselling, referrals, or any other
advice in |
connection with the use or procurement of contraceptives |
and
sterilization or abortion procedures; medication; or |
surgery or other
care or treatment rendered by a physician |
or physicians, nurses,
paraprofessionals or health care |
facility, intended for the
physical,
emotional, and mental |
well-being of persons; or an abortion as defined by the |
|
Reproductive Health Act;
|
(b) "Physician" means any person who is licensed by the |
State of Illinois under the
Medical Practice Act of 1987;
|
(c) "Health care personnel" means any nurse, nurses'
|
aide, medical school
student, professional, |
paraprofessional or any other person who
furnishes, or |
assists in the furnishing of, health care
services;
|
(d) "Health care facility" means any public or private
|
hospital, clinic,
center, medical school, medical training |
institution, laboratory or
diagnostic
facility, |
physician's office, infirmary, dispensary, ambulatory |
surgical
treatment center or other institution or location |
wherein health care
services are provided to any person, |
including physician organizations and
associations, |
networks, joint ventures, and all
other combinations of |
those organizations;
|
(e) "Conscience" means a sincerely held set of moral |
convictions
arising from belief in and relation to God, or |
which, though not so
derived, arises from a place in the |
life of its possessor
parallel to
that filled by God among |
adherents to religious faiths;
|
(f) "Health care payer" means a health maintenance |
organization, insurance
company, management services |
organization, or any other entity that pays for
or arranges |
for the payment of any health care or medical care service,
|
procedure, or product; and
|
|
(g) "Undue delay" means unreasonable delay that causes |
impairment of the patient's health. |
The above definitions include not only the traditional |
combinations and forms
of these persons and organizations but |
also all new and emerging forms and
combinations of these |
persons and organizations.
|
(Source: P.A. 99-690, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
Section 910-75. The Rights of Married Persons Act is |
amended by changing Section 15 as follows:
|
(750 ILCS 65/15) (from Ch. 40, par. 1015)
|
Sec. 15.
(a)(1) The expenses of the family and of the |
education of the children
shall be chargeable upon the property |
of both husband and wife, or of
either of them, in favor of |
creditors therefor, and in relation thereto
they may be sued |
jointly or separately.
|
(2) No creditor, who has a claim against a spouse or former |
spouse for an expense
incurred by that spouse or former spouse |
which is not a family expense, shall maintain an
action against |
the other spouse or former spouse for that expense except:
|
(A) an expense for which the other spouse or former spouse |
agreed, in
writing, to be liable; or
|
(B) an expense for goods or merchandise purchased by or in |
the
possession of the other spouse or former spouse, or for |
services ordered by
the other spouse or former spouse.
|
|
(3) Any creditor who maintains an action in violation of |
this subsection
(a) for an expense other than a family expense |
against
a spouse or former spouse other than the
spouse or |
former spouse
who incurred the expense, shall be liable to the |
other spouse
or former spouse for his or her costs, expenses |
and attorney's fees
incurred in defending the action.
|
(4) No creditor shall, with respect to any claim against a |
spouse or former spouse for
which the creditor is prohibited |
under this subsection (a) from maintaining
an action against |
the other spouse or former spouse, engage in any collection |
efforts
against the other spouse or former spouse, including, |
but not limited to,
informal or formal
collection attempts, |
referral of the claim to a collector or collection
agency for |
collection from the other spouse or former spouse, or making |
any
representation to a credit
reporting agency that the other |
spouse or former spouse is any way liable
for payment of the |
claim.
|
(b) (Blank). No spouse shall be liable for any expense |
incurred by the other spouse
when an abortion is performed on |
such spouse, without the consent of such
other spouse, unless |
the physician who performed the abortion certifies
that such |
abortion is necessary to preserve the life of the spouse who |
obtained
such abortion.
|
(c) (Blank). No parent shall be liable for any expense |
incurred by his or her minor
child when an abortion is |
performed on such minor child without the consent
of both |
|
parents of such child, if they both have custody, or the parent
|
having custody, or legal guardian of such child, unless the |
physician who
performed the abortion certifies that such |
abortion is necessary to preserve
the life of the minor child |
who obtained such abortion.
|
(Source: P.A. 86-689.)
|
Section 910-995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act |
makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by |
text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a |
Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text |
does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the |
changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any |
other Public Act. |
Article 999. EFFECTIVE DATE |
Section 999-999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon |
becoming law. |